2A654 Volume 1

124 Questions | Total Attempts: 939

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2A654 Quizzes & Trivia

Volume one of the Air Force 2A6X4 CDC


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Which character of an AFSC identifies the skill level?
    • A. 

      Second

    • B. 

      Third

    • C. 

      Fourth

    • D. 

      Fifth

  • 2. 
    Which AFSC identifies the awarded specialty in which an Airman is most highly qualified to perform duty?
    • A. 

      PAFSC

    • B. 

      2AFSC

    • C. 

      DAFSC

    • D. 

      CAFSC

  • 3. 
    Which AFSC identifies the authorized manning document to which an Airman is assigned?
    • A. 

      PAFSC

    • B. 

      2AFSC

    • C. 

      DAFSC

    • D. 

      CAFSC

  • 4. 
    A CAFSC is used to identify
    • A. 

      An awarded AFSC other than a primary AFSC

    • B. 

      An authorized manning position to which an Airman is assigned

    • C. 

      An Airman's highest usable skill in terms of total Air Force requirements

    • D. 

      Any awarded specialty in which an Airman is qualified to perform all duties

  • 5. 
    5What source provides the career knowledge required for upgrade to the 5-skill level?
    • A. 

      Job proficiency

    • B. 

      Technical orders

    • C. 

      Specialty training standard

    • D. 

      Career development course

  • 6. 
    Which tasks require the initials of a certifying official in the last column of an STS?
    • A. 

      Core tasks only

    • B. 

      All tasks listed on the STS

    • C. 

      Only mission-critical tasks

    • D. 

      Only those tasks that are performed frequently

  • 7. 
    As an aircraft fuel systems journeyman, you'll be expected to
    • A. 

      Troubleshoot components

    • B. 

      Treat aircraft corrosion

    • C. 

      Refuel an aircraft

    • D. 

      Clear red Xs

  • 8. 
    As an aircraft fuel systems journeyman, what are your duties regarding HAZMAT?
    • A. 

      None.

    • B. 

      Handle, label, and dispose of them according to environmental standards

    • C. 

      Handle and label them only according to environmental standards

    • D. 

      Dispose of them according to applicable AFOSH standards

  • 9. 
    The AGE shop in your squadron is undermanned. This situation is creating equipment shortages on the flightline. What program may be used to qualify personnel from adequately-manned shops to perform some AGE tasks such as towing equipment and fuel servicing?
    • A. 

      Retraining

    • B. 

      Technical training

    • C. 

      On-the-job training

    • D. 

      Cross-utilization training

  • 10. 
    In a fuel system repair element shop, which of the following personnel would most likely be CUT, if required?
    • A. 

      A fully qualified 5-level

    • B. 

      A SSgt in qualification training

    • C. 

      A TSgt in upgrade training to the 7-level

    • D. 

      An Amn in upgrade training to the 5-level

  • 11. 
    Responsibiity and accountability for mission results rests with
    • A. 

      Base commanders

    • B. 

      Wing commanders

    • C. 

      Group commanders

    • D. 

      Squadron commanders

  • 12. 
    Under the new organizational structure, the wing is referred to as the
    • A. 

      Combat wing

    • B. 

      Operational wing

    • C. 

      Composite wing

    • D. 

      Objective wing

  • 13. 
    All personnel that were assigned to the operations and logistics groups are now asigned to
    • A. 

      Maintenance support squadrons

    • B. 

      Logistics support squadrons

    • C. 

      Maintenance groups

    • D. 

      Operations groups

  • 14. 
    What type of relationship is required among operations, maintenance, and support groups?
    • A. 

      A closely coordinated work effort

    • B. 

      No relationship is required

    • C. 

      An independent existence

    • D. 

      A flexible relationship

  • 15. 
    A composite wing is one that
    • A. 

      Has a dual mission

    • B. 

      Hosts two ore more different commands

    • C. 

      Is located in two or more different locations

    • D. 

      Operates two or more different types of aircraft

  • 16. 
    To whom is the squadron commander responsible for the overall squadron management?
    • A. 

      Maintenance group commander

    • B. 

      Combat wing commander

    • C. 

      MAJCOM

    • D. 

      HQ USAF

  • 17. 
    The technical authority and advisor of maintenance production is the
    • A. 

      Maintenance supervisor

    • B. 

      Squadron commander

    • C. 

      Section chief

    • D. 

      Flight chief

  • 18. 
    Propellers are maintained by personnel assigned to the
    • A. 

      AGE flight

    • B. 

      Propulsion flight

    • C. 

      Fabrication flight

    • D. 

      Accessories flight

  • 19. 
    PMEL personnel are assigned to the
    • A. 

  • 20. 
    Off-equipment maintenance of electronic warfare systems is performed by the personnel assigned to the
    • A. 

      TMDE flight

    • B. 

      Avionics flight

    • C. 

      Munitions flight

    • D. 

      Accessories flight

  • 21. 
    Maintenance and repair of tgaseous and cryogenic servicing units are performed by the personnel assigned to the
    • A. 

      AGE flight

    • B. 

      Fuels flight

    • C. 

      Pneudraulics flight

    • D. 

      Electro-environmental flight

  • 22. 
    The responsibility for the on/off equipment maintenance that is required to accomplish sortie production and the wing mission rests with
    • A. 

      The LG commander

    • B. 

      The group commander

    • C. 

      All squadron commanders

    • D. 

      All maintenance personnel

  • 23. 
    Responsibility for ensuring the maintenance capability is considered in the development of the flying program rests with the
    • A. 

      Flight chief

    • B. 

      Section chief

    • C. 

      Group commander

    • D. 

      Squadron commander

  • 24. 
    Responsibility for controlling the assignment of newly assigned maintenance officers and senior NCOs rests with the
    • A. 

  • 25. 
    Responsibility for approving the requirements for bench stocks and providing guidance as to the type, location and use of bench stocks by one or more sections rests with the
    • A. 

  • 26. 
    The dedicated crew chief program is established by the
    • A. 

      OG/CC

    • B. 

      MXG/CC

    • C. 

      Flying squadron commander

    • D. 

      Operations support squadron commander

  • 27. 
    Ensuring procedurs to properly turn-in recoverable items is the responsibility of the
    • A. 

      Operations commander

    • B. 

      Group commander

    • C. 

      Supply technician

    • D. 

      Egress technician

  • 28. 
    Advising the wing staff on operational capabilities, limitations, and status of resources is a function of personnel assigned to the
    • A. 

      Weapons and tactics flight

    • B. 

      Civil engineering squadron

    • C. 

      Logistics readiness squadron

    • D. 

      Maintenance and operations flight

  • 29. 
    Peronnel assigned to PS&D are aligned under the
    • A. 

      Weapons and tactics flight

    • B. 

      Airfield operations flight

    • C. 

      Operations plans flight

    • D. 

      Weather flight

  • 30. 
    The objective of the maintenance-training program is to manage the
    • A. 

      Wing training program

    • B. 

      Logistics group training program

    • C. 

      Operations group training program

    • D. 

      Maintenance squadron training program

  • 31. 
    The main function of the personnel assigned to the MOC is to
    • A. 

      Monitor the production effort

    • B. 

      Monitor aircraft flight schedules

    • C. 

      Dispatch specialists to the flightline

    • D. 

      Act as a liason between maintenance and operations

  • 32. 
    The personnel assigned to the maintenance supply liaison section fall under the
    • A. 

      OSS

    • B. 

      COF

    • C. 

      MXOO

    • D. 

      MOC

  • 33. 
    I am vengeance. I am the night. I am
    • A. 

      Right behind you

    • B. 

      Thirsty

    • C. 

      Batman

    • D. 

      Pat Sajak

  • 34. 
    A SI evaluation may be of what type, and at whose option?
    • A. 

  • 35. 
    After you have performed an inspection or repair on an item of equipment, QA personnel will conduct a
    • A. 

      TI on the equipment

    • B. 

      PE inspection on the equipment

    • C. 

      SI on the equipment

    • D. 

      QI on the equipment

  • 36. 
    An over-the-shoulder evaluation of a technician or supervisor accomplishing a maintenance action by QA personnel, is a
    • A. 

      TI

    • B. 

      PE

    • C. 

      SI

    • D. 

      QI

  • 37. 
    Responsibility for maintaining an up-to-date master TO file rests with
    • A. 

      QA

    • B. 

      MOC

    • C. 

      MTF

    • D. 

      PS&D

  • 38. 
    Which is not a QA function?
    • A. 

  • 39. 
    Which is not an authorized inspection concept?
    • A. 

      Phased

    • B. 

      Periodic

    • C. 

      Homestation

    • D. 

      Depot maintenance

  • 40. 
    Which is an inspection requiring skills, equipment, and facilities beyond your normal duties?
    • A. 

      Phased

    • B. 

      Periodic

    • C. 

      Isochronal

    • D. 

      Programmed depot maintenance

  • 41. 
    Which inspection augments the basic post-flight
    • A. 

      Preflight

    • B. 

      Thru flight

    • C. 

      End-of-runway

    • D. 

      Hourly postflight

  • 42. 
    Which is a very thorough inspection and covers the complete aircraft?
    • A. 

      Preflight

    • B. 

      Periodic

    • C. 

      Thru flight

    • D. 

      End-of-runway

  • 43. 
    Combinations of the parts of the basic post flight are accomplished during the
    • A. 

      Periodic

    • B. 

      Hourly post flight

    • C. 

      Thru flight and periodic

    • D. 

      Hourly post flight and periodic

  • 44. 
    Which inspection is due on the accrual of the number of calendar days?
    • A. 

      Major

    • B. 

      Thru flight

    • C. 

      Phase

    • D. 

      HSC

  • 45. 
    Which inspection is thorough and searching "look, see, fix" of the weapon system and each of the requirements may be more extensive in scope?
    • A. 

  • 46. 
    Which inspection is due upon accrual of the number of calendar days and is specified in the applicable -6 inspection manual and -6 work cards?
    • A. 

      Phased

    • B. 

      Minor

    • C. 

      Preflight

    • D. 

      Acceptance

  • 47. 
    What type inspection is performed on all newly assigned aircraft?
    • A. 

      Special

    • B. 

      Calendar

    • C. 

      Acceptance

    • D. 

      Time replacement

  • 48. 
    An aircraft is examined with sufficient thoroughnessto determine its mechanical fitness for flight and the completeness of its equipment and supporting documents during a
    • A. 

      Time replacement inspection

    • B. 

      Acceptance inspection

    • C. 

      Calendar inspection

    • D. 

      Special inspection

  • 49. 
    Which inspection is outlined in the -6 TO and differs from other types of inspections in that only one part of the aircraft or item requires the inspection?
    • A. 

      Special

    • B. 

      Calendar

    • C. 

      Acceptance

    • D. 

      Time replacement

  • 50. 
    Which inspection management category includes the pre-inspection, look phase, fix phase, and post-inspection phase?
    • A. 

      Personnel

    • B. 

      Facilities

    • C. 

      Equipment

    • D. 

      Inspection

  • 51. 
    Which inspection pahse consists of correcting write-ups found on post inspection checks and those found after functional check flights?
    • A. 

      Fix

    • B. 

      Look

    • C. 

      Pre-inspection

    • D. 

      Post-inspection

  • 52. 
    Which system provides a process for storing and retreiving base-level, depot-level, and contractor-type maintenance information?
    • A. 

      Maintenance data collection

    • B. 

      Materiel deficiency reporting

    • C. 

      Maintenance integrated data access

    • D. 

      Maintenance management informational control

  • 53. 
    Symbols entered in aircraft forms must be entered in red with
    • A. 

      No exceptions

    • B. 

      The exception of a red diagonal which may be entered in black ink

    • C. 

      The exception of a black symbol which is permitted in automated forms

    • D. 

      The exception of when you're transcribing forms; then, existing symbols may be reentered in black

  • 54. 
    What symbol or entry must be made in the aircraft forms upon receipt of an urgent action TCTO?
    • A. 

  • 55. 
    What type of entry on AFTO Form 781A does not require a symbol?
    • A. 

      Functional check flight due

    • B. 

      Discrepancy which is corrected on-the-spot

    • C. 

      Informational note not affecting flight safety

    • D. 

      Inspection of a noncritical system or subsystem

  • 56. 
    Which discrepancies are not documented on the AFTO Form 781A?
    • A. 

      Discrepancies resulting from battle damage

    • B. 

      Discrepancies caused by engine failure due to FOD

    • C. 

      Discrepancies which were discovered in flight but could not be duplicated

    • D. 

      Discrepancies which do not affect the safety of flight or flying efficiency of the aircraft

  • 57. 
    To indentify repeat discrepancies on the AFTO Form 781A, enter the word
    • A. 

      REPEAT in red

    • B. 

      REPEAT in black

    • C. 

      RECURRING in red

    • D. 

      RECURRING in black

  • 58. 
    To document discrepancies and corrective actions on support equipment, you would use an AFTO Form
    • A. 

      95

    • B. 

      244

    • C. 

      349

    • D. 

      781A

  • 59. 
    Which section of the AFTO Form 244 is used to document discrepancies and overdue time changes
    • A. 

      Part II, NON-SCHEDULED INSPECTIONS

    • B. 

      Part III, SCHEDULED INSPECTIONS

    • C. 

      Part IV, SUPERVISORY REVIEW

    • D. 

      Part V, INDUSTRIAL SUPPORT EQUIPMENT RECORD

  • 60. 
    This question was deleted. Just choose "C". Have a nice day.
    • A. 

      No.

    • B. 

      I'll try.

    • C. 

      Thank you! You have a nice day as well.

    • D. 

      Whodey?

  • 61. 
    After a permanent repair on a fuel tank is accomplished, the AFTO Form 427 is
    • A. 

      Cleared

    • B. 

      Destroyed

    • C. 

      Maintained

    • D. 

      Re-accomplished

  • 62. 
    The basic ingredient of all accidents is
    • A. 

  • 63. 
    What percentage of all accidents is due to natural causes, such as lightning, storms, or floods?
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      4

    • C. 

      6

    • D. 

      8

  • 64. 
    What may be considered to be the direct cause of any accident?
    • A. 

      Inattentiveness

    • B. 

      Lack of adequate training

    • C. 

      Unsafe acts and conditions

    • D. 

      Unchangeable circumstances

  • 65. 
    All of these factors contribute to the indirect cost of an accident except
    • A. 

      Interference with operations

    • B. 

      Time lost through investigation

    • C. 

      Medical costs for injured person

    • D. 

      Loss of production time due to injury

  • 66. 
    A neat and orderly work area is a direct reflection of
    • A. 

  • 67. 
    What are the two types of distracters found in the workcenter?
    • A. 

      Depression and displacement

    • B. 

      External and dispondent

    • C. 

      Despondent and internal

    • D. 

      External and internal

  • 68. 
    All of these are examples of internal distracters except
    • A. 

      Thinking about problems

    • B. 

      Daydreaming

    • C. 

      Boredom

    • D. 

      Noise

  • 69. 
    An accident has resulted in the hospitalization of five or more personnel. This accident would be classified as a class _____ mishap
    • A. 

      A

    • B. 

      B

    • C. 

      C

    • D. 

      D

  • 70. 
    An accident on the flightline has resulted in the death of a civilian worker. This accident would be considered a
    • A. 

      Class A

    • B. 

      Class B

    • C. 

      Class C

    • D. 

      Class D

  • 71. 
    Which of these results would categorize an accident as a class C mishap?
    • A. 

      A fatality

    • B. 

      Loss of an entire workday

    • C. 

      Permanent partial disability

    • D. 

      Property damage totaling $5,000

  • 72. 
    What is the key factor in the creation of static electricity?
    • A. 

      Motion

    • B. 

      Air density

    • C. 

      Temperature

    • D. 

      Conductivity of object

  • 73. 
    Which of the following best describes effective grounding?
    • A. 

      Bonding an aircraft to a static ground

    • B. 

      Providing static discharge plates on equipment

    • C. 

      Providing a path for static electricity to dissipate between units

    • D. 

      Providing a path for static electricity to flow to a grounding point

  • 74. 
    What materials are used to make personnel static discharge plates?
    • A. 

      Copper, zinc, or zinc-coated material

    • B. 

      Copper, brass, or brass-coated material

    • C. 

      Aluminum, zinc, on zinc-coated material

    • D. 

      Aluminum, brass, or brass-coated material

  • 75. 
    Static-discharge plates should be mounted on the
    • A. 

      Left handrail of a workstand

    • B. 

      Right handrail of a workstand

    • C. 

      Top left side of a workstand platform

    • D. 

      Bottom right side of a workstand platform

  • 76. 
    The minimum safe distance to the intake of an operating jet engine is
    • A. 

      10 feet

    • B. 

      25 feet

    • C. 

      50 feet

    • D. 

      100 feet

  • 77. 
    A red stripe painted on the fuselage or engine nacelles of jet aircraft indicates
    • A. 

      A potential noise hazard area

    • B. 

      The exhause blast danger area

    • C. 

      The turbine wheel plane of rotation

    • D. 

      Areas containing a power-actuated device

  • 78. 
    What type of warning devices are used to prevent inadvertent operation of devices such as landing gear and flight control devices?
    • A. 

      Red tags

    • B. 

      Placards

    • C. 

      Danger tags

    • D. 

      Red streamers

  • 79. 
    The purpose of the BLC exhaust areas is to
    • A. 

      Increase aircraft speed

    • B. 

      Prevent bird strikes

    • C. 

      Reduce turbulence

    • D. 

      De-ice the aircraft

  • 80. 
    As a fuel systems journeyman, what are your responsibilities concerning ground locks?
    • A. 

      Install them if the ground crew is not available

    • B. 

      Install them only if you are working on the aircraft

    • C. 

      Notify someone if they are missing and continue working

    • D. 

      Ensure the ground crew has installed them before you begin work

  • 81. 
    Two major contributors of FOD are poor
    • A. 

      Planning and work habits

    • B. 

      Organization and planning

    • C. 

      Work habits and housekeeping

    • D. 

      Housekeeping and organization

  • 82. 
    The three general classes of FOD are
    • A. 

      Metal, cloth, and organic

    • B. 

      Cloth, stone, and miscellaneous

    • C. 

      Metal, stone, and miscellaneous

    • D. 

      Stone, organic, and miscellaneous

  • 83. 
    What is the most difficult class of FOD to control?
    • A. 

      Metal

    • B. 

      Stone

    • C. 

      Organic

    • D. 

      Miscellaneous

  • 84. 
    Fuel or chemicals coming in contact with your skin may cause
    • A. 

      Vertigo

    • B. 

      Paralysis

    • C. 

      Dermatitis

    • D. 

      It to be oily

  • 85. 
    Which condition may result from the accidental swallowing of fuel?
    • A. 

      Vertigo

    • B. 

      Paralysis

    • C. 

      Euphoria

    • D. 

      Dermatitis

  • 86. 
    One of the most common signs of excesive fuel vapor inhallation is
    • A. 

      Euphoria

    • B. 

      Skin irritation

    • C. 

      Hallucinations

    • D. 

      Muscular uncoordination

  • 87. 
    What action must be taken regarding a class I fuel spill on the flightline?
    • A. 

      Monitor the spill until the aircraft is moved

    • B. 

      Monitor the spill until fire protection personnel arrive

    • C. 

      Immediately notify fire protection and environmental services personnel

    • D. 

      Post people as fire guards and immediately notify fire protection personnel

  • 88. 
    Which type of fuel spill is considered a ground mishap, and requires response by the senior fire official on the installation?
    • A. 

  • 89. 
    Nitrogen can be dangerous because it
    • A. 

      Is flammable

    • B. 

      Is combustible

    • C. 

      Does not support life

    • D. 

      Gives off toxic fumes

  • 90. 
    As a minimum, how often must a respirator test-fit be accomplished for every respirator wearer?
    • A. 

  • 91. 
    Respirator training must be documented on an
    • A. 

      AF Form 55

    • B. 

      AF Form 623

    • C. 

      AF Form 1071

    • D. 

      AFTO Form 244

  • 92. 
    Individually issued respirators should be cleaned and sanitized
    • A. 

      After every use

    • B. 

      Before every use

    • C. 

      At the end of the day in which they were used

    • D. 

      At the beginning of the day in which they will be used

  • 93. 
    Respirators stored for emergency or rescue use must be inspected at least
    • A. 

  • 94. 
    Coveralls worn during fuel systems maintenance must
    • A. 

      Have buttons

    • B. 

      Have pockets

    • C. 

      Be static-free

    • D. 

      Have a nylon zipper

  • 95. 
    Which footwear items are authorized for wear inside a fuel cell?
    • A. 

      Gym shoes

    • B. 

      Cotton-blend socks

    • C. 

      Steel-toe boots with footwear covers

    • D. 

      Clean boots with or without footwear covers

  • 96. 
    You must wear goggles when you're
    • A. 

      Power buffing a fuel cell

    • B. 

      Installing an access door

    • C. 

      Performing blowback from inside a tank

    • D. 

      Performing injection sealing from inside a tank

  • 97. 
    What should you do to a self-contained emergency eyewash station before you begin fuel systems maintenance?
    • A. 

      Flush the unit

    • B. 

      Drain and refill

    • C. 

      Place the unit outside

    • D. 

      Ensure the unit is filled with fresh water

  • 98. 
    What level of publication applies to a minimum of two MAJCOMs?
    • A. 

      Field

    • B. 

      Nondirective

    • C. 

      Organizational

    • D. 

      Departmental

  • 99. 
    AFI 36-2903 is an example of a
    • A. 

      Field publication

    • B. 

      Special publication

    • C. 

      Departmental publication

    • D. 

      Organizational publication

  • 100. 
    Which statement best describes an Air Force Policy Directive?
    • A. 

      Written in an informal style

    • B. 

      Does not contain detailed "how-to" instructions

    • C. 

      Contains examples for performing standard tasks

    • D. 

      Prescribes command relationships of Air Force units

  • 101. 
    What type of publications serve to guide, point out, or provide references?
    • A. 

      Indexes

    • B. 

      Pamphlets

    • C. 

      Directories

    • D. 

      Supplements

  • 102. 
    What type of technical orders covers installation and handling of Air Force military systems?
    • A. 

      Abbreviated

    • B. 

      Time compliance

    • C. 

      Methods and procedures

    • D. 

      Operations and maintenance

  • 103. 
    What type of TO is available in limited quantities during equipment acquisition to verify dara against an aircraft system?
    • A. 

      Preliminary

    • B. 

      Abbreviated

    • C. 

      Supplemental material

    • D. 

      Commercial off-the-shelf manual

  • 104. 
    Which TCTO can be identified by a border of alternately placed red diagonals and red Xs on the title page?
    • A. 

      Urgent action

    • B. 

      Routine action

    • C. 

      Immediate action

    • D. 

      Emergency action

  • 105. 
    What type of TCTO is issued for conditions that could have a negative effect on aircraft operational efficiency?
    • A. 

      Urgent

    • B. 

      Routine

    • C. 

      Immediate

    • D. 

      Emergency

  • 106. 
    The first part of a TO number indicates the
    • A. 

      Category

    • B. 

      Aircraft series

    • C. 

      Type of manual

    • D. 

      Type of equipment

  • 107. 
    In TO number 1C-5B-2-5, the "2" indicates the
    • A. 

      Category

    • B. 

      Aircraft series

    • C. 

      Type of manual

    • D. 

      Type of equipment

  • 108. 
    TO 1B-52G-4-4-1 is an example of
    • A. 

      A structural repair To

    • B. 

      Inspection requirements

    • C. 

      A maintenance instruction

    • D. 

      An Illustrated Parts Breakdown (IPB)

  • 109. 
    What does the fourth part of a MIDAS manual identify?
    • A. 

      Type of aircraft

    • B. 

      Type of manual

    • C. 

      Aircraft model and series

    • D. 

      Chapter number and subject matter

  • 110. 
    What does the fifth park of an MIDAS manual identify?
    • A. 

      Subsystem

    • B. 

      Type of manual

    • C. 

      Chapter number

    • D. 

      Supplemental manual

  • 111. 
    A work stoppage caused by a TO deficiency is considered to be a basis for an
    • A. 

      Immediate TO improvement report

    • B. 

      Emergency TO improvement report

    • C. 

      Urgent TO improvement report

    • D. 

      Routine TO improvement report

  • 112. 
    What type of TO improvement report would be submitted for a deficiency that could jeopardize the safety or successful accomplishment of a mission?
    • A. 

      Urgent

    • B. 

      Priority

    • C. 

      Routine

    • D. 

      Emergency

  • 113. 
    The Air Force supply system is different from civilian supply systems because it
    • A. 

      Deals with many customers

    • B. 

      Is not as concerned with economy of operation

    • C. 

      Receives its supplies from many different vendors

    • D. 

      Requires more flexibility than civilian supply systems

  • 114. 
    The Air Force supply system
    • A. 

      Is CONUS-oriented

    • B. 

      Is managed on a functional basis

    • C. 

      Is consolidated for effective management

    • D. 

      Contains a limited amount of items, all of high value

  • 115. 
    Which system allows logistics personnel, customers, and commanders to track every item in the supply system through standardized procedures?
    • A. 

  • 116. 
    Which element of supply would you visit to obtain personal and organizational clothing?
    • A. 

      Retail sales

    • B. 

      Customer service

    • C. 

      Demand processing

    • D. 

      Equipment management

  • 117. 
    Which element of base supply manages all DIFM materiel?
    • A. 

      Stock control

    • B. 

      Demand processing

    • C. 

      Pickup and delivery

    • D. 

      Repair cycle support

  • 118. 
    The repair cycle of a supply asset ends when the item is
    • A. 

      Removed from the aircraft

    • B. 

      Installed on the aircraft or equipment

    • C. 

      Sent back to supply as serviceable or unserviceable

    • D. 

      Sent back to the base maintenance shop as serviceble

  • 119. 
    Which form is used to document a repair action that has been accomplished on a repair cycle item as a result of a maintenance turnaround?
    • A. 

      DD Form 1575

    • B. 

      AFTO Form 349

    • C. 

      AFTO Form 350

    • D. 

      DD Form 1348-1

  • 120. 
    Which condition would be reported using the DR system?
    • A. 

      Medical supply item deficiency

    • B. 

      A pricing error for a check valve

    • C. 

      Shutoff valve defect caused by improper packaging

    • D. 

      Boost pump deficiency do to non-conformance to specifications.

  • 121. 
    What is the correct sequence of events for submission of a DR by the originating point?
    • A. 

      Prepare a draft report, tag the exhibit, forward the draft report, and secure the exhibit

    • B. 

      Tag the exhibit, prepare a draft report, secure the exhibit, and forward the draft report

    • C. 

      Prepare a draft report, tag the exhibit, secure the exhibit, and forward the draft report

    • D. 

      Tag the exhibit, secure the exhibit, prepare a draft report, and forward the draft report

  • 122. 
    To review all document numbers processed during the day by supply personnel, you would check the
    • A. 

      Daily Document Register

    • B. 

      Priority Monitor Report

    • C. 

      Due-out Validation List

    • D. 

      AWP Validation List

  • 123. 
    To obtain a current review of due-outs that have been ordered with an urgency of need designator (UND) A or B, you would check the
    • A. 

      Daily Document Register

    • B. 

      Priority Monitor Report

    • C. 

      Due-out Validation List

    • D. 

      AWP Validation List

  • 124. 
    What monthly supply listing provides a means to monitor and verify that each due-out is still a valid requirement?
    • A. 

      Daily Document Register

    • B. 

      Priority Monitor Report

    • C. 

      Due-out Validation List

    • D. 

      AWP Validation List