2A654 Volume 1
Settings
Volume one of the Air Force 2A6X4 CDC
- 1.Which character of an AFSC identifies the skill level?
- A.
Second
- B.
Third
- C.
Fourth
- D.
Fifth
- 2.Which AFSC identifies the awarded specialty in which an Airman is most highly qualified to perform duty?
- A.
PAFSC
- B.
2AFSC
- C.
DAFSC
- D.
CAFSC
- 3.Which AFSC identifies the authorized manning document to which an Airman is assigned?
- A.
PAFSC
- B.
2AFSC
- C.
DAFSC
- D.
CAFSC
- 4.A CAFSC is used to identify
- A.
An awarded AFSC other than a primary AFSC
- B.
An authorized manning position to which an Airman is assigned
- C.
An Airman's highest usable skill in terms of total Air Force requirements
- D.
Any awarded specialty in which an Airman is qualified to perform all duties
- 5.5What source provides the career knowledge required for upgrade to the 5-skill level?
- A.
Job proficiency
- B.
Technical orders
- C.
Specialty training standard
- D.
Career development course
- 6.Which tasks require the initials of a certifying official in the last column of an STS?
- A.
Core tasks only
- B.
All tasks listed on the STS
- C.
Only mission-critical tasks
- D.
Only those tasks that are performed frequently
- 7.As an aircraft fuel systems journeyman, you'll be expected to
- A.
Troubleshoot components
- B.
Treat aircraft corrosion
- C.
Refuel an aircraft
- D.
Clear red Xs
- 8.As an aircraft fuel systems journeyman, what are your duties regarding HAZMAT?
- A.
None.
- B.
Handle, label, and dispose of them according to environmental standards
- C.
Handle and label them only according to environmental standards
- D.
Dispose of them according to applicable AFOSH standards
- 9.The AGE shop in your squadron is undermanned. This situation is creating equipment shortages on the flightline. What program may be used to qualify personnel from adequately-manned shops to perform some AGE tasks such as towing equipment and fuel servicing?
- A.
Retraining
- B.
Technical training
- C.
On-the-job training
- D.
Cross-utilization training
- 10.In a fuel system repair element shop, which of the following personnel would most likely be CUT, if required?
- A.
A fully qualified 5-level
- B.
A SSgt in qualification training
- C.
A TSgt in upgrade training to the 7-level
- D.
An Amn in upgrade training to the 5-level
- 11.Responsibiity and accountability for mission results rests with
- A.
Base commanders
- B.
Wing commanders
- C.
Group commanders
- D.
Squadron commanders
- 12.Under the new organizational structure, the wing is referred to as the
- A.
Combat wing
- B.
Operational wing
- C.
Composite wing
- D.
Objective wing
- 13.All personnel that were assigned to the operations and logistics groups are now asigned to
- A.
Maintenance support squadrons
- B.
Logistics support squadrons
- C.
Maintenance groups
- D.
Operations groups
- 14.What type of relationship is required among operations, maintenance, and support groups?
- A.
A closely coordinated work effort
- B.
No relationship is required
- C.
An independent existence
- D.
A flexible relationship
- 15.A composite wing is one that
- A.
Has a dual mission
- B.
Hosts two ore more different commands
- C.
Is located in two or more different locations
- D.
Operates two or more different types of aircraft
- 16.To whom is the squadron commander responsible for the overall squadron management?
- A.
Maintenance group commander
- B.
Combat wing commander
- C.
MAJCOM
- D.
HQ USAF
- 17.The technical authority and advisor of maintenance production is the
- A.
Maintenance supervisor
- B.
Squadron commander
- C.
Section chief
- D.
Flight chief
- 18.Propellers are maintained by personnel assigned to the
- A.
AGE flight
- B.
Propulsion flight
- C.
Fabrication flight
- D.
Accessories flight
- 19.PMEL personnel are assigned to the
- A.
- 20.Off-equipment maintenance of electronic warfare systems is performed by the personnel assigned to the
- A.
TMDE flight
- B.
Avionics flight
- C.
Munitions flight
- D.
Accessories flight
- 21.Maintenance and repair of tgaseous and cryogenic servicing units are performed by the personnel assigned to the
- A.
AGE flight
- B.
Fuels flight
- C.
Pneudraulics flight
- D.
Electro-environmental flight
- 22.The responsibility for the on/off equipment maintenance that is required to accomplish sortie production and the wing mission rests with
- A.
The LG commander
- B.
The group commander
- C.
All squadron commanders
- D.
All maintenance personnel
- 23.Responsibility for ensuring the maintenance capability is considered in the development of the flying program rests with the
- A.
Flight chief
- B.
Section chief
- C.
Group commander
- D.
Squadron commander
- 24.Responsibility for controlling the assignment of newly assigned maintenance officers and senior NCOs rests with the
- A.
- 25.Responsibility for approving the requirements for bench stocks and providing guidance as to the type, location and use of bench stocks by one or more sections rests with the
- A.
- 26.The dedicated crew chief program is established by the
- A.
OG/CC
- B.
MXG/CC
- C.
Flying squadron commander
- D.
Operations support squadron commander
- 27.Ensuring procedurs to properly turn-in recoverable items is the responsibility of the
- A.
Operations commander
- B.
Group commander
- C.
Supply technician
- D.
Egress technician
- 28.Advising the wing staff on operational capabilities, limitations, and status of resources is a function of personnel assigned to the
- A.
Weapons and tactics flight
- B.
Civil engineering squadron
- C.
Logistics readiness squadron
- D.
Maintenance and operations flight
- 29.Peronnel assigned to PS&D are aligned under the
- A.
Weapons and tactics flight
- B.
Airfield operations flight
- C.
Operations plans flight
- D.
Weather flight
- 30.The objective of the maintenance-training program is to manage the
- A.
Wing training program
- B.
Logistics group training program
- C.
Operations group training program
- D.
Maintenance squadron training program
- 31.The main function of the personnel assigned to the MOC is to
- A.
Monitor the production effort
- B.
Monitor aircraft flight schedules
- C.
Dispatch specialists to the flightline
- D.
Act as a liason between maintenance and operations
- 32.The personnel assigned to the maintenance supply liaison section fall under the
- A.
OSS
- B.
COF
- C.
MXOO
- D.
MOC
- 33.I am vengeance. I am the night. I am
- A.
Right behind you
- B.
Thirsty
- C.
Batman
- D.
Pat Sajak
- 34.A SI evaluation may be of what type, and at whose option?
- A.
- 35.After you have performed an inspection or repair on an item of equipment, QA personnel will conduct a
- A.
TI on the equipment
- B.
PE inspection on the equipment
- C.
SI on the equipment
- D.
QI on the equipment
- 36.An over-the-shoulder evaluation of a technician or supervisor accomplishing a maintenance action by QA personnel, is a
- A.
TI
- B.
PE
- C.
SI
- D.
QI
- 37.Responsibility for maintaining an up-to-date master TO file rests with
- A.
QA
- B.
MOC
- C.
MTF
- D.
PS&D
- 38.Which is not a QA function?
- A.
- 39.Which is not an authorized inspection concept?
- A.
Phased
- B.
Periodic
- C.
Homestation
- D.
Depot maintenance
- 40.Which is an inspection requiring skills, equipment, and facilities beyond your normal duties?
- A.
Phased
- B.
Periodic
- C.
Isochronal
- D.
Programmed depot maintenance
- 41.Which inspection augments the basic post-flight
- A.
Preflight
- B.
Thru flight
- C.
End-of-runway
- D.
Hourly postflight
- 42.Which is a very thorough inspection and covers the complete aircraft?
- A.
Preflight
- B.
Periodic
- C.
Thru flight
- D.
End-of-runway
- 43.Combinations of the parts of the basic post flight are accomplished during the
- A.
Periodic
- B.
Hourly post flight
- C.
Thru flight and periodic
- D.
Hourly post flight and periodic
- 44.Which inspection is due on the accrual of the number of calendar days?
- A.
Major
- B.
Thru flight
- C.
Phase
- D.
HSC
- 45.Which inspection is thorough and searching "look, see, fix" of the weapon system and each of the requirements may be more extensive in scope?
- A.
- 46.Which inspection is due upon accrual of the number of calendar days and is specified in the applicable -6 inspection manual and -6 work cards?
- A.
Phased
- B.
Minor
- C.
Preflight
- D.
Acceptance
- 47.What type inspection is performed on all newly assigned aircraft?
- A.
Special
- B.
Calendar
- C.
Acceptance
- D.
Time replacement
- 48.An aircraft is examined with sufficient thoroughnessto determine its mechanical fitness for flight and the completeness of its equipment and supporting documents during a
- A.
Time replacement inspection
- B.
Acceptance inspection
- C.
Calendar inspection
- D.
Special inspection
- 49.Which inspection is outlined in the -6 TO and differs from other types of inspections in that only one part of the aircraft or item requires the inspection?
- A.
Special
- B.
Calendar
- C.
Acceptance
- D.
Time replacement
- 50.Which inspection management category includes the pre-inspection, look phase, fix phase, and post-inspection phase?
- A.
Personnel
- B.
Facilities
- C.
Equipment
- D.
Inspection
- 51.Which inspection pahse consists of correcting write-ups found on post inspection checks and those found after functional check flights?
- A.
Fix
- B.
Look
- C.
Pre-inspection
- D.
Post-inspection
- 52.Which system provides a process for storing and retreiving base-level, depot-level, and contractor-type maintenance information?
- A.
Maintenance data collection
- B.
Materiel deficiency reporting
- C.
Maintenance integrated data access
- D.
Maintenance management informational control
- 53.Symbols entered in aircraft forms must be entered in red with
- A.
No exceptions
- B.
The exception of a red diagonal which may be entered in black ink
- C.
The exception of a black symbol which is permitted in automated forms
- D.
The exception of when you're transcribing forms; then, existing symbols may be reentered in black
- 54.What symbol or entry must be made in the aircraft forms upon receipt of an urgent action TCTO?
- A.
- 55.What type of entry on AFTO Form 781A does not require a symbol?
- A.
Functional check flight due
- B.
Discrepancy which is corrected on-the-spot
- C.
Informational note not affecting flight safety
- D.
Inspection of a noncritical system or subsystem
- 56.Which discrepancies are not documented on the AFTO Form 781A?
- A.
Discrepancies resulting from battle damage
- B.
Discrepancies caused by engine failure due to FOD
- C.
Discrepancies which were discovered in flight but could not be duplicated
- D.
Discrepancies which do not affect the safety of flight or flying efficiency of the aircraft
- 57.To indentify repeat discrepancies on the AFTO Form 781A, enter the word
- A.
REPEAT in red
- B.
REPEAT in black
- C.
RECURRING in red
- D.
RECURRING in black
- 58.To document discrepancies and corrective actions on support equipment, you would use an AFTO Form
- A.
95
- B.
244
- C.
349
- D.
781A
- 59.Which section of the AFTO Form 244 is used to document discrepancies and overdue time changes
- A.
Part II, NON-SCHEDULED INSPECTIONS
- B.
Part III, SCHEDULED INSPECTIONS
- C.
Part IV, SUPERVISORY REVIEW
- D.
Part V, INDUSTRIAL SUPPORT EQUIPMENT RECORD
- 60.This question was deleted. Just choose "C". Have a nice day.
- A.
No.
- B.
I'll try.
- C.
Thank you! You have a nice day as well.
- D.
Whodey?
- 61.After a permanent repair on a fuel tank is accomplished, the AFTO Form 427 is
- A.
Cleared
- B.
Destroyed
- C.
Maintained
- D.
Re-accomplished
- 62.The basic ingredient of all accidents is
- A.
- 63.What percentage of all accidents is due to natural causes, such as lightning, storms, or floods?
- A.
2
- B.
4
- C.
6
- D.
8
- 64.What may be considered to be the direct cause of any accident?
- A.
Inattentiveness
- B.
Lack of adequate training
- C.
Unsafe acts and conditions
- D.
Unchangeable circumstances
- 65.All of these factors contribute to the indirect cost of an accident except
- A.
Interference with operations
- B.
Time lost through investigation
- C.
Medical costs for injured person
- D.
Loss of production time due to injury
- 66.A neat and orderly work area is a direct reflection of
- A.
- 67.What are the two types of distracters found in the workcenter?
- A.
Depression and displacement
- B.
External and dispondent
- C.
Despondent and internal
- D.
External and internal
- 68.All of these are examples of internal distracters except
- A.
Thinking about problems
- B.
Daydreaming
- C.
Boredom
- D.
Noise
- 69.An accident has resulted in the hospitalization of five or more personnel. This accident would be classified as a class _____ mishap
- A.
A
- B.
B
- C.
C
- D.
D
- 70.An accident on the flightline has resulted in the death of a civilian worker. This accident would be considered a
- A.
Class A
- B.
Class B
- C.
Class C
- D.
Class D
- 71.Which of these results would categorize an accident as a class C mishap?
- A.
A fatality
- B.
Loss of an entire workday
- C.
Permanent partial disability
- D.
Property damage totaling $5,000
- 72.What is the key factor in the creation of static electricity?
- A.
Motion
- B.
Air density
- C.
Temperature
- D.
Conductivity of object
- 73.Which of the following best describes effective grounding?
- A.
Bonding an aircraft to a static ground
- B.
Providing static discharge plates on equipment
- C.
Providing a path for static electricity to dissipate between units
- D.
Providing a path for static electricity to flow to a grounding point
- 74.What materials are used to make personnel static discharge plates?
- A.
Copper, zinc, or zinc-coated material
- B.
Copper, brass, or brass-coated material
- C.
Aluminum, zinc, on zinc-coated material
- D.
Aluminum, brass, or brass-coated material
- 75.Static-discharge plates should be mounted on the
- A.
Left handrail of a workstand
- B.
Right handrail of a workstand
- C.
Top left side of a workstand platform
- D.
Bottom right side of a workstand platform
- 76.The minimum safe distance to the intake of an operating jet engine is
- A.
10 feet
- B.
25 feet
- C.
50 feet
- D.
100 feet
- 77.A red stripe painted on the fuselage or engine nacelles of jet aircraft indicates
- A.
A potential noise hazard area
- B.
The exhause blast danger area
- C.
The turbine wheel plane of rotation
- D.
Areas containing a power-actuated device
- 78.What type of warning devices are used to prevent inadvertent operation of devices such as landing gear and flight control devices?
- A.
Red tags
- B.
Placards
- C.
Danger tags
- D.
Red streamers
- 79.The purpose of the BLC exhaust areas is to
- A.
Increase aircraft speed
- B.
Prevent bird strikes
- C.
Reduce turbulence
- D.
De-ice the aircraft
- 80.As a fuel systems journeyman, what are your responsibilities concerning ground locks?
- A.
Install them if the ground crew is not available
- B.
Install them only if you are working on the aircraft
- C.
Notify someone if they are missing and continue working
- D.
Ensure the ground crew has installed them before you begin work
- 81.Two major contributors of FOD are poor
- A.
Planning and work habits
- B.
Organization and planning
- C.
Work habits and housekeeping
- D.
Housekeeping and organization
- 82.The three general classes of FOD are
- A.
Metal, cloth, and organic
- B.
Cloth, stone, and miscellaneous
- C.
Metal, stone, and miscellaneous
- D.
Stone, organic, and miscellaneous
- 83.What is the most difficult class of FOD to control?
- A.
Metal
- B.
Stone
- C.
Organic
- D.
Miscellaneous
- 84.Fuel or chemicals coming in contact with your skin may cause
- A.
Vertigo
- B.
Paralysis
- C.
Dermatitis
- D.
It to be oily
- 85.Which condition may result from the accidental swallowing of fuel?
- A.
Vertigo
- B.
Paralysis
- C.
Euphoria
- D.
Dermatitis
- 86.One of the most common signs of excesive fuel vapor inhallation is
- A.
Euphoria
- B.
Skin irritation
- C.
Hallucinations
- D.
Muscular uncoordination
- 87.What action must be taken regarding a class I fuel spill on the flightline?
- A.
Monitor the spill until the aircraft is moved
- B.
Monitor the spill until fire protection personnel arrive
- C.
Immediately notify fire protection and environmental services personnel
- D.
Post people as fire guards and immediately notify fire protection personnel
- 88.Which type of fuel spill is considered a ground mishap, and requires response by the senior fire official on the installation?
- A.
- 89.Nitrogen can be dangerous because it
- A.
Is flammable
- B.
Is combustible
- C.
Does not support life
- D.
Gives off toxic fumes
- 90.As a minimum, how often must a respirator test-fit be accomplished for every respirator wearer?
- A.
- 91.Respirator training must be documented on an
- A.
AF Form 55
- B.
AF Form 623
- C.
AF Form 1071
- D.
AFTO Form 244
- 92.Individually issued respirators should be cleaned and sanitized
- A.
After every use
- B.
Before every use
- C.
At the end of the day in which they were used
- D.
At the beginning of the day in which they will be used
- 93.Respirators stored for emergency or rescue use must be inspected at least
- A.
- 94.Coveralls worn during fuel systems maintenance must
- A.
Have buttons
- B.
Have pockets
- C.
Be static-free
- D.
Have a nylon zipper
- 95.Which footwear items are authorized for wear inside a fuel cell?
- A.
Gym shoes
- B.
Cotton-blend socks
- C.
Steel-toe boots with footwear covers
- D.
Clean boots with or without footwear covers
- 96.You must wear goggles when you're
- A.
Power buffing a fuel cell
- B.
Installing an access door
- C.
Performing blowback from inside a tank
- D.
Performing injection sealing from inside a tank
- 97.What should you do to a self-contained emergency eyewash station before you begin fuel systems maintenance?
- A.
Flush the unit
- B.
Drain and refill
- C.
Place the unit outside
- D.
Ensure the unit is filled with fresh water
- 98.What level of publication applies to a minimum of two MAJCOMs?
- A.
Field
- B.
Nondirective
- C.
Organizational
- D.
Departmental
- 99.AFI 36-2903 is an example of a
- A.
Field publication
- B.
Special publication
- C.
Departmental publication
- D.
Organizational publication
- 100.Which statement best describes an Air Force Policy Directive?
- A.
Written in an informal style
- B.
Does not contain detailed "how-to" instructions
- C.
Contains examples for performing standard tasks
- D.
Prescribes command relationships of Air Force units
- 101.What type of publications serve to guide, point out, or provide references?
- A.
Indexes
- B.
Pamphlets
- C.
Directories
- D.
Supplements
- 102.What type of technical orders covers installation and handling of Air Force military systems?
- A.
Abbreviated
- B.
Time compliance
- C.
Methods and procedures
- D.
Operations and maintenance
- 103.What type of TO is available in limited quantities during equipment acquisition to verify dara against an aircraft system?
- A.
Preliminary
- B.
Abbreviated
- C.
Supplemental material
- D.
Commercial off-the-shelf manual
- 104.Which TCTO can be identified by a border of alternately placed red diagonals and red Xs on the title page?
- A.
Urgent action
- B.
Routine action
- C.
Immediate action
- D.
Emergency action
- 105.What type of TCTO is issued for conditions that could have a negative effect on aircraft operational efficiency?
- A.
Urgent
- B.
Routine
- C.
Immediate
- D.
Emergency
- 106.The first part of a TO number indicates the
- A.
Category
- B.
Aircraft series
- C.
Type of manual
- D.
Type of equipment
- 107.In TO number 1C-5B-2-5, the "2" indicates the
- A.
Category
- B.
Aircraft series
- C.
Type of manual
- D.
Type of equipment
- 108.TO 1B-52G-4-4-1 is an example of
- A.
A structural repair To
- B.
Inspection requirements
- C.
A maintenance instruction
- D.
An Illustrated Parts Breakdown (IPB)
- 109.What does the fourth part of a MIDAS manual identify?
- A.
Type of aircraft
- B.
Type of manual
- C.
Aircraft model and series
- D.
Chapter number and subject matter
- 110.What does the fifth park of an MIDAS manual identify?
- A.
Subsystem
- B.
Type of manual
- C.
Chapter number
- D.
Supplemental manual
- 111.A work stoppage caused by a TO deficiency is considered to be a basis for an
- A.
Immediate TO improvement report
- B.
Emergency TO improvement report
- C.
Urgent TO improvement report
- D.
Routine TO improvement report
- 112.What type of TO improvement report would be submitted for a deficiency that could jeopardize the safety or successful accomplishment of a mission?
- A.
Urgent
- B.
Priority
- C.
Routine
- D.
Emergency
- 113.The Air Force supply system is different from civilian supply systems because it
- A.
Deals with many customers
- B.
Is not as concerned with economy of operation
- C.
Receives its supplies from many different vendors
- D.
Requires more flexibility than civilian supply systems
- 114.The Air Force supply system
- A.
Is CONUS-oriented
- B.
Is managed on a functional basis
- C.
Is consolidated for effective management
- D.
Contains a limited amount of items, all of high value
- 115.Which system allows logistics personnel, customers, and commanders to track every item in the supply system through standardized procedures?
- A.
- 116.Which element of supply would you visit to obtain personal and organizational clothing?
- A.
Retail sales
- B.
Customer service
- C.
Demand processing
- D.
Equipment management
- 117.Which element of base supply manages all DIFM materiel?
- A.
Stock control
- B.
Demand processing
- C.
Pickup and delivery
- D.
Repair cycle support
- 118.The repair cycle of a supply asset ends when the item is
- A.
Removed from the aircraft
- B.
Installed on the aircraft or equipment
- C.
Sent back to supply as serviceable or unserviceable
- D.
Sent back to the base maintenance shop as serviceble
- 119.Which form is used to document a repair action that has been accomplished on a repair cycle item as a result of a maintenance turnaround?
- A.
DD Form 1575
- B.
AFTO Form 349
- C.
AFTO Form 350
- D.
DD Form 1348-1
- 120.Which condition would be reported using the DR system?
- A.
Medical supply item deficiency
- B.
A pricing error for a check valve
- C.
Shutoff valve defect caused by improper packaging
- D.
Boost pump deficiency do to non-conformance to specifications.
- 121.What is the correct sequence of events for submission of a DR by the originating point?
- A.
Prepare a draft report, tag the exhibit, forward the draft report, and secure the exhibit
- B.
Tag the exhibit, prepare a draft report, secure the exhibit, and forward the draft report
- C.
Prepare a draft report, tag the exhibit, secure the exhibit, and forward the draft report
- D.
Tag the exhibit, secure the exhibit, prepare a draft report, and forward the draft report
- 122.To review all document numbers processed during the day by supply personnel, you would check the
- A.
Daily Document Register
- B.
Priority Monitor Report
- C.
Due-out Validation List
- D.
AWP Validation List
- 123.To obtain a current review of due-outs that have been ordered with an urgency of need designator (UND) A or B, you would check the
- A.
Daily Document Register
- B.
Priority Monitor Report
- C.
Due-out Validation List
- D.
AWP Validation List
- 124.What monthly supply listing provides a means to monitor and verify that each due-out is still a valid requirement?
- A.
Daily Document Register
- B.
Priority Monitor Report
- C.
Due-out Validation List
- D.
AWP Validation List
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