Air Force Technical Order (Afto) Quiz Questions

100 Questions | Total Attempts: 1706

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2A656 Quizzes & Trivia

If you are planning on being a member of the air force there is a series of courses you must take so as to understand what happens. The quiz below is a pretest on all five volumes of 2A656 CDC`s on Air Force technical orders. Do you think you have a good understanding of it? Take up the quiz below and get to refresh your memory.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    (001) There are how many levels of maintenance?
    • A. 

      Two

    • B. 

      Three

    • C. 

      Four

    • D. 

      Five

  • 2. 
    (001) If you work on an aircraft on the flight line, you are doing which level of maintenance?
    • A. 

      Depot

    • B. 

      Intermediate

    • C. 

      Organizational

    • D. 

      Off-equipment

  • 3. 
    (002) Who is responsible for managing the wing's quality assurance programs?
    • A. 

      Flight Chief

    • B. 

      Quality assurance section chief

    • C. 

      Maintenance group commander

    • D. 

      Aircraft maintenance squadron commander

  • 4. 
    (002) Who is responsible for ensuring compliance with the wing Environmental Protection Agency program?
    • A. 

      Wing commander

    • B. 

      Squadron commander

    • C. 

      Propulsion flight chief

    • D. 

      Maintenance superintendent

  • 5. 
    (002) Who is responsible to the squadron commander for maintenance production?
    • A. 

      Maintenance group commander

    • B. 

      Maintenance flight chief

    • C. 

      Maintenance supervisor

    • D. 

      Flight chief

  • 6. 
    (002) Who is responsible to the maintenance supervisor for the leadership, supervision, and training of assigned personnel?
    • A. 

      Shift leader

    • B. 

      Section chief

    • C. 

      Flight commander/chief

    • D. 

      Maintenance superintendent

  • 7. 
    (003) Which flight is part of a maintenance squadron?
    • A. 

      Test, measurement, and diagnostic equipment

    • B. 

      Maintenance operations and programs

    • C. 

      Quality assurance

    • D. 

      Resources

  • 8. 
    (003) Quality maintenance is the responsibility of maintenance technicians, supervisors, and commanders who work in concert with
    • A. 

      Maintenance training

    • B. 

      Quality assurance

    • C. 

      Resources

    • D. 

      Egress

  • 9. 
    (004) The Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) Training Management Subsystem can be used to monitor
    • A. 

      Upgrade training

    • B. 

      Optional training

    • C. 

      Seasonal training

    • D. 

      Qualitative training

  • 10. 
    (005) Which is the correct method for writing 30 January 2011?
    • A. 

      20110130

    • B. 

      01/30/11

    • C. 

      30/01/11

    • D. 

      11/01/30

  • 11. 
    (005) A symbol entered on a maintenance form reflects the opinion of the
    • A. 

      Shop supervisor

    • B. 

      Maintenance officer

    • C. 

      Squadron commander

    • D. 

      Individual making the entry

  • 12. 
    (005) When a new Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 781A is initiated, what kind of discrepancies cannot be transferred to the AFTO Form 781K?
    • A. 

      Red X

    • B. 

      Red dash

    • C. 

      Red diagonal

    • D. 

      Discrepancies with a supply document number

  • 13. 
    (005) The Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 244 is used to document discrepancies and corrective actions for
    • A. 

      Aircraft

    • B. 

      Batteries

    • C. 

      Equipment

    • D. 

      Multimeters

  • 14. 
    (006) The five authorized inspection concepts used by the Air Force are
    • A. 

      Major, minor, phase, isochronal, postflight

    • B. 

      Major, minor, shop, home station, postflight

    • C. 

      Periodic, home station, postflight, isochronal, programmed depot maintenance

    • D. 

      Periodic, phase, isochronal, programmed depot maintenance, airline/manufacturer maintenance

  • 15. 
    (006) Which inspection is used to detect defects that could have developed during ground operation of an aircraft?
    • A. 

      Preflight

    • B. 

      Thruflight

    • C. 

      Postflight

    • D. 

      End-of-runway

  • 16. 
    (006) Reducing the time an aircraft is out of commission is an objective of which inspection?
    • A. 

      Phase

    • B. 

      Hourly

    • C. 

      Periodic

    • D. 

      Isochronal

  • 17. 
    (006) Which is a thorough and searching inspection?
    • A. 

      Minor

    • B. 

      Major

    • C. 

      Postflight

    • D. 

      Home station check

  • 18. 
    (007) Which is not one of the elements of the maintenance training program?
    • A. 

      Upgrade training

    • B. 

      Management training

    • C. 

      Qualification training

    • D. 

      Cross-Utilization training

  • 19. 
    (007) The primary responsibility for formal upgrade training rests with
    • A. 

      Training management personnel

    • B. 

      The commander

    • C. 

      The supervisor

    • D. 

      The individual

  • 20. 
    (008) What technical order (TO) explains the Material Deficiency Reporting System?
    • A. 

      05-5-15

    • B. 

      00-25-195

    • C. 

      00-35D-54

    • D. 

      00-25C-234

  • 21. 
    (008) A Category II, Product Quality Deficiency Report that has been submitted for a defect in workmanship must be forwarded to the screening point within
    • A. 

      1 workday

    • B. 

      2 workdays

    • C. 

      3 workdays

    • D. 

      4 workdays

  • 22. 
    (009) The first part of a national stock number indicates the
    • A. 

      Part code

    • B. 

      Bureau code

    • C. 

      Item identification

    • D. 

      Supply classification

  • 23. 
    (009) The second position of the Expendability/Recoverability/Reparability/Category (ERRC) Designator Code indicates
    • A. 

      Expendability

    • B. 

      Repair level

    • C. 

      Supplier

    • D. 

      Cost

  • 24. 
    (009) Bench stock supplies should be replenished when the authorized quantity on-hand drops below what amount?
    • A. 

      40%

    • B. 

      50%

    • C. 

      60%

    • D. 

      70%

  • 25. 
    (010) Air Force property responsibility is imposed by law on
    • A. 

      Commanders only

    • B. 

      All military employees

    • C. 

      Commanders and supervisors only

    • D. 

      All military and civilian employees

  • 26. 
    (010) What types of property responsibility can be charged to Department of Defense (DOD) personnel?
    • A. 

      Command and custodial

    • B. 

      Individual and custodial

    • C. 

      Command and supervisory

    • D. 

      Supervisory and custodial

  • 27. 
    (010) An airman who signs out a toolbox assumes which type of property responsibility for that toolbox?
    • A. 

      Supervisory

    • B. 

      Custodial

    • C. 

      Individual

    • D. 

      Command

  • 28. 
    (011) Which publications are considered working handbooks?
    • A. 

      Air Force manuals

    • B. 

      Air Force pamphlets

    • C. 

      Air Force instructions

    • D. 

      Recurring publications

  • 29. 
    (012) The list of applicable publications (LOAP) lists Technical Orders that apply to
    • A. 

      Active aircraft time compliance technical orders

    • B. 

      A specific aircraft

    • C. 

      Overhaul depots

    • D. 

      A specific tester

  • 30. 
    (012) Which technical order (TO) explains how to maintain and inspect a particular weapons system?
    • A. 

      Operations and Maintenance

    • B. 

      Methods and Procedures

    • C. 

      Time Compliance

    • D. 

      Abbreviated

  • 31. 
    (012) A series of red X’s printed around the border of the first page of a time compliance technical order (TCTO) signifies
    • A. 

      An inspection action TCTO.

    • B. 

      An immediate action TCTO.

    • C. 

      A routine action TCTO.

    • D. 

      An urgent action TCTO.

  • 32. 
    (013) What technical order (TO) explains the TO numbering system?
    • A. 

      00–5–1

    • B. 

      00–5–5

    • C. 

      00–5–10

    • D. 

      00–5–18

  • 33. 
    (013) In the basic technical order (TO) numbering system, what is the minimum groups of numbers each TO will have?
    • A. 

      Two

    • B. 

      Three

    • C. 

      Four

    • D. 

      Five

  • 34. 
    (013) The first number group within a technical order (TO) number identifies the
    • A. 

      Specific equipment

    • B. 

      Section of the TO

    • C. 

      TO category

    • D. 

      Kind of TO

  • 35. 
    (014) The Maintenance Integrated Data Access System (MIDAS) page number is
    • A. 

      A two-digit numbering system expressed as one element of two digits

    • B. 

      A six-digit numbering system expressed as three elements of two digits each

    • C. 

      A four-digit numbering system expressed as two elements of two digits each

    • D. 

      An eight-digit numbering system expressed as four elements of two digits each

  • 36. 
    (014) Which kind of technical order (TO) contains operational checkout procedures?
    • A. 

      Job Guide

    • B. 

      Fault Isolation

    • C. 

      General Vehicle

    • D. 

      Schematic Diagram

  • 37. 
    (014) While troubleshooting, you are using a wiring diagram to help you locate a malfunctioning component. After determining which component is faulty, you want to determine its part number. To do this, you would check the wiring diagram’s
    • A. 

      Numerical index

    • B. 

      Reference designator

    • C. 

      Line replaceable unit index

    • D. 

      Line replaceable unit designation

  • 38. 
    (015) Revisions are issued when changes exceed what percentage of the basic TO?
    • A. 

      50

    • B. 

      60

    • C. 

      70

    • D. 

      80

  • 39. 
    (015) Safety supplements to technical orders are identified with a border of
    • A. 

      Black SS’s on the title page

    • B. 

      Red SS’s on the title page

    • C. 

      Black SS’s on all pages

    • D. 

      Red SS’s on all pages

  • 40. 
    (016) Which deficiency report is used for a technical order (TO) deficiency that involves safety or the unit mission?
    • A. 

      Interim

    • B. 

      Urgent

    • C. 

      Routine

    • D. 

      Emergency

  • 41. 
    (016) Personnel at the Air Logistics Center (ALC) activity must act on an emergency Air Force technical order (AFTO) Form 22 report within how many hours of receipt?
    • A. 

      24

    • B. 

      36

    • C. 

      48

    • D. 

      72

  • 42. 
    (017) How far away from parked aircraft should liquid oxygen (LOX) carts be stored?
    • A. 

      25 feet

    • B. 

      50 feet

    • C. 

      75 feet

    • D. 

      100 feet

  • 43. 
    (017) When you are servicing an aircraft with liquid oxygen (LOX), do not wear
    • A. 

      Cuffless trousers

    • B. 

      A battle dress uniform (BDU) cap

    • C. 

      Leather welders gauntlet cuff gloves

    • D. 

      Shoes which fit loosely around the top

  • 44. 
    (018) Liquid nitrogen must be stored below what minimum temperature to remain in a liquid state?
    • A. 

      –310.8°F

    • B. 

      –315.8°F

    • C. 

      –320.8°F

    • D. 

      –325.8°F

  • 45. 
    (019) What type of tasks may you perform in the immediate area of explosives?
    • A. 

      Mission critical

    • B. 

      Routine

    • C. 

      None

    • D. 

      Core

  • 46. 
    What must you ensure when you are transporting squibs?
    • A. 

      Not to exceed the maximum amount of squibs

    • B. 

      Other personnel are not in the immediate area

    • C. 

      The squibs are in a protective container

    • D. 

      The use of a specially designed vehicle

  • 47. 
    (020) How much electrical current does it take to cause muscle paralysis?
    • A. 

      .001 amps

    • B. 

      .005 amps

    • C. 

      .010 amps

    • D. 

      .015 amps

  • 48. 
    (020) For personnel electrostatic discharge (ESD) grounding, you must use a skin contact wrist strap connected to the workbench surface. This strap must have a resistance of at least
    • A. 

      1 ohm

    • B. 

      10 ohms

    • C. 

      1 megohm

    • D. 

      10 megohms

  • 49. 
    (021) Which situation illustrates a physical hazard presented by a chemical hazard?
    • A. 

      Acute liver damage

    • B. 

      Irritation of the kidney

    • C. 

      Second degree skin burn

    • D. 

      Chronic exposure to vapors

  • 50. 
    (021) What is the minimum information required on a hazardous chemical inventory?
    • A. 

      Name, location, and detailed ingredient list of the material

    • B. 

      Name, location, and quantity of material authorized

    • C. 

      Name and location of the material

    • D. 

      Name of the material

  • 51. 
    (021) Which element must be included in a workplace written hazard communication program?
    • A. 

      Hazardous material inventory

    • B. 

      Hazardous waste disposal procedures

    • C. 

      Telephone number of hazardous material monitor

    • D. 

      List of routine operations performed in the work center

  • 52. 
    (022) Which Air Force publication is a source of information for the prevention of accidents?
    • A. 

      Air Force Instruction (AFI) 91–202

    • B. 

      Air Force Regulation (AFR) 8–2

    • C. 

      AFI 91–204

    • D. 

      AFR 39–1

  • 53. 
    (022) What should be the main concern when planning the layout of any shop area?
    • A. 

      Safety

    • B. 

      Lighting

    • C. 

      Adequate work space

    • D. 

      Location of test equipment

  • 54. 
    (023) What is considered to be a safe distance in front of jet engine intake ducts?
    • A. 

      10 feet

    • B. 

      15 feet

    • C. 

      20 feet

    • D. 

      25 feet

  • 55. 
    (024) Which mishap prevention tag is used to warn personnel against potential hazards?
    • A. 

      Danger

    • B. 

      Caution

    • C. 

      Out of Order

    • D. 

      Do Not Start

  • 56. 
    (024) Which Air Force (AF) Form is used to report ground safety accidents involving personnel (not involving aircraft)?
    • A. 

      AF Form 711

    • B. 

      AF Form 711B

    • C. 

      AF Form 117

    • D. 

      AF Form 117B

  • 57. 
    (025) High-frequency radiation is not produced by
    • A. 

      Radio equipment

    • B. 

      Radar equipment

    • C. 

      Nuclear weapons

    • D. 

      Electronic counter-measures equipment

  • 58. 
    (025) Which type of nuclear radiation is the most deadly?
    • A. 

      Alpha

    • B. 

      Beta

    • C. 

      Delta

    • D. 

      Gamma

  • 59. 
    (026) What is a temporary storage location designed to store nuclear materials in transit through a base called?
    • A. 

      Pyramid Alert

    • B. 

      Safeguarding

    • C. 

      Safe Haven

    • D. 

      Tempest

  • 60. 
    (026) Which safety standard of the nuclear surety program includes a pre-task briefing?
    • A. 

      Weapons security

    • B. 

      Individual responsibilities

    • C. 

      Prevent nuclear explosions

    • D. 

      Prevent unauthorized or accidental actions

  • 61. 
    (201) Screwdrivers are sized by the length of the
    • A. 

      Blade

    • B. 

      Shank

    • C. 

      Handle

    • D. 

      Ferrule

  • 62. 
    (201) When striking an object with a hammer, the hammer face should be
    • A. 

      Parallel to the work

    • B. 

      Offset to the work

    • C. 

      Slightly angled

    • D. 

      Slightly open

  • 63. 
    (201) What kind of pliers are good for pulling cotter pins
    • A. 

      Snap ring

    • B. 

      Vise grip

    • C. 

      Long-nose

    • D. 

      Diagonal cutting

  • 64. 
    (201) One advantage of box-end wrenches is that they
    • A. 

      Are the fastest to use

    • B. 

      Can be hammered on safely

    • C. 

      Are not likely to slip off a nut

    • D. 

      Are easy to use on recessed bolts

  • 65. 
    (201) Which wrench is usually the strongest, fastest, and safest in a tool kit?
    • A. 

      Socket

    • B. 

      Box-end

    • C. 

      Open-end

    • D. 

      Adjustable

  • 66. 
    (201) When filing aluminum or lead, you should use a
    • A. 

      Rasp

    • B. 

      Scribe

    • C. 

      Mill file

    • D. 

      Triangular file

  • 67. 
     (201) What type of gauge would you use to measure an actuating switch clearance?
    • A. 

      Gap

    • B. 

      Thread

    • C. 

      Pressure

    • D. 

      Thickness

  • 68. 
    (202) The last verification date on a torque wrench must not exceed 
    • A. 

      60 workdays

    • B. 

      30 workdays

    • C. 

      60 calendar-days

    • D. 

      30 calendar-days.

  • 69. 
    (202) A precaution concerning torque wrenches is to
    • A. 

      Never use an extension with a torque wrench

    • B. 

      Never use another wrench to secure a bolt before torquing

    • C. 

      Never use a torque wrench that has been dropped unless it has been verified

    • D. 

      Always calculate the leverage advantage before using a torque wrench above its rated capacity

  • 70. 
     (202) Before storing a torque wrench you have used, you should
    • A. 

      Lubricate it with a light oil

    • B. 

      Set it at its lowest setting

    • C. 

      Check it for accuracy

    • D. 

      Set it at zero setting

  • 71. 
    (203) Tubing used in aircraft oxygen, fuel, lubrication, fire extinguishing, instruments, hydraulic, and vent lines is
    • A. 

      Stainless steel and Teflon alloy

    • B. 

      Stainless steel and copper tubing

    • C. 

      Aluminum alloy and copper tubing

    • D. 

      Aluminum alloy and stainless steel

  • 72. 
    (203) A properly installed bolt has a minimum of how many threads protruding through the nut? 
    • A. 

      Four

    • B. 

      Three

    • C. 

      Two

    • D. 

      One

  • 73. 
    (203) When torquing a bolt assembly, what is the force applied to overcome friction?
    • A. 

      Torsion

    • B. 

      Tension

    • C. 

      Tensile

    • D. 

      Shear

  • 74. 
     (204) When installing a cotter pin, ensure the prong that bends over the bolt shank does not exceed the bolt nut 
    • A. 

      Grip

    • B. 

      Width

    • C. 

      Length

    • D. 

      Diameter

  • 75. 
     (205) Wire insulation may consist of several layers of nonconducting material that provides
    • A. 

      Thermal protection and fluid resistance

    • B. 

      A method of identification

    • C. 

      Protection from freezing

    • D. 

      Strength and flexibility

  • 76. 
    (205) Which technical order (TO) provides instructions for the Brady Wire Marking System?
    • A. 

      00-20-1

    • B. 

      00-20-2

    • C. 

      1-1A-8

    • D. 

      1-1A-14

  • 77. 
    (205) Wires and wire bundles should be supported by clamps or grommets at intervals of no more than
    • A. 

      15 inches

    • B. 

      20 inches

    • C. 

      24 inches

    • D. 

      26 inches

  • 78. 
    (206) Which color code and corresponding wire sizes are valid for a preinsulated terminal?
    • A. 

      Yellow - 12 and 10

    • B. 

      Brown - 22 and 20

    • C. 

      Blue - 20 and 18

    • D. 

      Red - 16 and 14

  • 79. 
    (206) The indent-type crimping tool should be used only on
    • A. 

      Preinsulated splices

    • B. 

      Preinsulated terminals

    • C. 

      Noninsulated terminals

    • D. 

      Noninsulated terminal boards

  • 80. 
    (206) When joining copper and aluminum terminal lugs together on the same terminal board stud, separate them with
    • A. 

      A steel washer

    • B. 

      A copper washer

    • C. 

      A cadmium-plated washer

    • D. 

      An aluminum-alloy washer

  • 81. 
    (206) What do you use as junction points for circuits that are frequently disconnected?
    • A. 

      Connector plugs

    • B. 

      Terminal boards

    • C. 

      Shielded wires

    • D. 

      Splices

  • 82. 
    (207) When heat is applied to thermofit material, which is used in compact wire bundles, it will shrink by at least
    • A. 

      One and a half times its original diameter

    • B. 

      One-fourth its original diameter.

    • C. 

      One-half its original diameter

    • D. 

      One time its original diameter

  • 83. 
    (208) Never use cushioned clamps in any bonding or grounding connection, because the cushion acts as
    • A. 

      A conductor

    • B. 

      An insulator

    • C. 

      A semiconductor

    • D. 

      An alternative path for current

  • 84. 
    (208) After a bonding or grounding jumper is installed, it should read no more than
    • A. 

      0.02 ohms

    • B. 

      0.01 ohms

    • C. 

      0.2 ohms

    • D. 

      0.1 ohms

  • 85. 
    (209) Oxide film is removed from the surface of metals during the soldering process by the use of
    • A. 

      A bristle brush

    • B. 

      The soldering flux

    • C. 

      A soldering iron tip

    • D. 

      An approved solvent

  • 86. 
    (210) In order to clean a plated soldering tip, use
    • A. 

      A fine file while the tip is cold

    • B. 

      A coarse file while the tip is hot

    • C. 

      An abrasive cloth while the tip is hot

    • D. 

      An abrasive cloth while the tip is cold

  • 87. 
    (210) Thermal shunts are used in soldering because they
    • A. 

      Make the part heat faster

    • B. 

      Protect heat-sensitive components

    • C. 

      Keep the lead and component at the same temperature

    • D. 

      Give good holding action to the component being soldered

  • 88. 
    (210) You can best determine a soldered connection's quality by
    • A. 

      Reheating it slightly

    • B. 

      Prying on it with a soldering aid

    • C. 

      Giving it a thorough visual inspection

    • D. 

      Pulling on it gently with your fingers

  • 89. 
    (211) Prior to soldering electronic equipment, ensure the equipment is
    • A. 

      Disconnected from the power source

    • B. 

      Connected to the power source

    • C. 

      Protected from voltage spikes

    • D. 

      Properly grounded

  • 90. 
    (211) How should you test the heat of a soldering iron?
    • A. 

      Submerge the tip in flux

    • B. 

      Hold the tip near your face

    • C. 

      Touch the tip to the solder, near your body

    • D. 

      Touch the tip to the solder, away from your body

  • 91. 
    (211) How should you remove excess solder from the soldering iron tip?
    • A. 

      Give the iron a quick flip

    • B. 

      Wipe the iron on a damp sponge or rag

    • C. 

      Gently tap the iron on a trash can edge

    • D. 

      Let the iron cool and file away excess

  • 92. 
    (212) An acceptable tinned wire has
    • A. 

      No insulation clearance and wire strands covered with solder, but still visible

    • B. 

      No insulation clearance and wire strands covered with solder, but not visible

    • C. 

      An insulation clearance equal to the diameter of the wire and wire strands covered with solder, but still visible

    • D. 

      An insulation clearance equal to the diameter of the wire and wire strands partially covered with solder, and still visible

  • 93. 
    (212) What do you have when you have a cold solder joint?
    • A. 

      Low resistance to current

    • B. 

      High resistance to current

    • C. 

      An acceptable solder joint

    • D. 

      A bright and shiny soldered joint

  • 94. 
    (213) During soldering, apply the proper amount of solder directly to the
    • A. 

      Iron tip

    • B. 

      Component

    • C. 

      Connection

    • D. 

      Heat bridge

  • 95. 
    (213) Which choice best describes a good solder connection?
    • A. 

      A dull gray appearance

    • B. 

      No pits or holes and has a good concave fillet

    • C. 

      No pits or holes and has a good convex fillet

    • D. 

      Bright and shiny with a minimum amount of pits or holes

  • 96. 
    (214) When making wire connections to turret terminals, wrap the wire around the terminal at least
    • A. 

      90 degrees

    • B. 

      180 degrees

    • C. 

      270 degrees

    • D. 

      360 degrees

  • 97. 
    (214) To connect wires or component leads to flat perforated terminals, the wrap must be
    • A. 

      45 degrees

    • B. 

      60 degrees

    • C. 

      90 degrees

    • D. 

      180 degrees

  • 98. 
    (215) What is the heaviest duty soldering iron you normally use in soldering a printed circuit board?
    • A. 

      20 watts

    • B. 

      27 watts

    • C. 

      30 watts

    • D. 

      35 watts

  • 99. 
    (215) You should clean the circuit board connection within how long after it has cooled?
    • A. 

      30 minutes

    • B. 

      60 minutes

    • C. 

      90 minutes

    • D. 

      120 minutes

  • 100. 
    (215) Unclinched-lead terminations are of what type?
    • A. 

      Special

    • B. 

      Convex

    • C. 

      Standard

    • D. 

      Concave