Air Force Technical Order (Afto) Quiz Questions
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If you are planning on being a member of the air force there is a series of courses you must take so as to understand what happens. The quiz below is a pretest on all five volumes of 2A656 CDC`s on Air Force technical orders. Do you think you have a good understanding of it? Take up the quiz below and get to refresh your memory.
- 1.(001) There are how many levels of maintenance?
- A.
Two
- B.
Three
- C.
Four
- D.
Five
- 2.(001) If you work on an aircraft on the flight line, you are doing which level of maintenance?
- A.
Depot
- B.
Intermediate
- C.
Organizational
- D.
Off-equipment
- 3.(002) Who is responsible for managing the wing's quality assurance programs?
- A.
Flight Chief
- B.
Quality assurance section chief
- C.
Maintenance group commander
- D.
Aircraft maintenance squadron commander
- 4.(002) Who is responsible for ensuring compliance with the wing Environmental Protection Agency program?
- A.
Wing commander
- B.
Squadron commander
- C.
Propulsion flight chief
- D.
Maintenance superintendent
- 5.(002) Who is responsible to the squadron commander for maintenance production?
- A.
Maintenance group commander
- B.
Maintenance flight chief
- C.
Maintenance supervisor
- D.
Flight chief
- 6.(002) Who is responsible to the maintenance supervisor for the leadership, supervision, and training of assigned personnel?
- A.
Shift leader
- B.
Section chief
- C.
Flight commander/chief
- D.
Maintenance superintendent
- 7.(003) Which flight is part of a maintenance squadron?
- A.
Test, measurement, and diagnostic equipment
- B.
Maintenance operations and programs
- C.
Quality assurance
- D.
Resources
- 8.(003) Quality maintenance is the responsibility of maintenance technicians, supervisors, and commanders who work in concert with
- A.
Maintenance training
- B.
Quality assurance
- C.
Resources
- D.
Egress
- 9.(004) The Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) Training Management Subsystem can be used to monitor
- A.
Upgrade training
- B.
Optional training
- C.
Seasonal training
- D.
Qualitative training
- 10.(005) Which is the correct method for writing 30 January 2011?
- A.
20110130
- B.
01/30/11
- C.
30/01/11
- D.
11/01/30
- 11.(005) A symbol entered on a maintenance form reflects the opinion of the
- A.
Shop supervisor
- B.
Maintenance officer
- C.
Squadron commander
- D.
Individual making the entry
- 12.(005) When a new Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 781A is initiated, what kind of discrepancies cannot be transferred to the AFTO Form 781K?
- A.
Red X
- B.
Red dash
- C.
Red diagonal
- D.
Discrepancies with a supply document number
- 13.(005) The Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 244 is used to document discrepancies and corrective actions for
- A.
Aircraft
- B.
Batteries
- C.
Equipment
- D.
Multimeters
- 14.(006) The five authorized inspection concepts used by the Air Force are
- A.
Major, minor, phase, isochronal, postflight
- B.
Major, minor, shop, home station, postflight
- C.
Periodic, home station, postflight, isochronal, programmed depot maintenance
- D.
Periodic, phase, isochronal, programmed depot maintenance, airline/manufacturer maintenance
- 15.(006) Which inspection is used to detect defects that could have developed during ground operation of an aircraft?
- A.
Preflight
- B.
Thruflight
- C.
Postflight
- D.
End-of-runway
- 16.(006) Reducing the time an aircraft is out of commission is an objective of which inspection?
- A.
Phase
- B.
Hourly
- C.
Periodic
- D.
Isochronal
- 17.(006) Which is a thorough and searching inspection?
- A.
Minor
- B.
Major
- C.
Postflight
- D.
Home station check
- 18.(007) Which is not one of the elements of the maintenance training program?
- A.
Upgrade training
- B.
Management training
- C.
Qualification training
- D.
Cross-Utilization training
- 19.(007) The primary responsibility for formal upgrade training rests with
- A.
Training management personnel
- B.
The commander
- C.
The supervisor
- D.
The individual
- 20.(008) What technical order (TO) explains the Material Deficiency Reporting System?
- A.
05-5-15
- B.
00-25-195
- C.
00-35D-54
- D.
00-25C-234
- 21.(008) A Category II, Product Quality Deficiency Report that has been submitted for a defect in workmanship must be forwarded to the screening point within
- A.
1 workday
- B.
2 workdays
- C.
3 workdays
- D.
4 workdays
- 22.(009) The first part of a national stock number indicates the
- A.
Part code
- B.
Bureau code
- C.
Item identification
- D.
Supply classification
- 23.(009) The second position of the Expendability/Recoverability/Reparability/Category (ERRC) Designator Code indicates
- A.
Expendability
- B.
Repair level
- C.
Supplier
- D.
Cost
- 24.(009) Bench stock supplies should be replenished when the authorized quantity on-hand drops below what amount?
- A.
40%
- B.
50%
- C.
60%
- D.
70%
- 25.(010) Air Force property responsibility is imposed by law on
- A.
Commanders only
- B.
All military employees
- C.
Commanders and supervisors only
- D.
All military and civilian employees
- 26.(010) What types of property responsibility can be charged to Department of Defense (DOD) personnel?
- A.
Command and custodial
- B.
Individual and custodial
- C.
Command and supervisory
- D.
Supervisory and custodial
- 27.(010) An airman who signs out a toolbox assumes which type of property responsibility for that toolbox?
- A.
Supervisory
- B.
Custodial
- C.
Individual
- D.
Command
- 28.(011) Which publications are considered working handbooks?
- A.
Air Force manuals
- B.
Air Force pamphlets
- C.
Air Force instructions
- D.
Recurring publications
- 29.(012) The list of applicable publications (LOAP) lists Technical Orders that apply to
- A.
Active aircraft time compliance technical orders
- B.
A specific aircraft
- C.
Overhaul depots
- D.
A specific tester
- 30.(012) Which technical order (TO) explains how to maintain and inspect a particular weapons system?
- A.
Operations and Maintenance
- B.
Methods and Procedures
- C.
Time Compliance
- D.
Abbreviated
- 31.(012) A series of red X’s printed around the border of the first page of a time compliance technical order (TCTO) signifies
- A.
An inspection action TCTO.
- B.
An immediate action TCTO.
- C.
A routine action TCTO.
- D.
An urgent action TCTO.
- 32.(013) What technical order (TO) explains the TO numbering system?
- A.
00–5–1
- B.
00–5–5
- C.
00–5–10
- D.
00–5–18
- 33.(013) In the basic technical order (TO) numbering system, what is the minimum groups of numbers each TO will have?
- A.
Two
- B.
Three
- C.
Four
- D.
Five
- 34.(013) The first number group within a technical order (TO) number identifies the
- A.
Specific equipment
- B.
Section of the TO
- C.
TO category
- D.
Kind of TO
- 35.(014) The Maintenance Integrated Data Access System (MIDAS) page number is
- A.
A two-digit numbering system expressed as one element of two digits
- B.
A six-digit numbering system expressed as three elements of two digits each
- C.
A four-digit numbering system expressed as two elements of two digits each
- D.
An eight-digit numbering system expressed as four elements of two digits each
- 36.(014) Which kind of technical order (TO) contains operational checkout procedures?
- A.
Job Guide
- B.
Fault Isolation
- C.
General Vehicle
- D.
Schematic Diagram
- 37.(014) While troubleshooting, you are using a wiring diagram to help you locate a malfunctioning component. After determining which component is faulty, you want to determine its part number. To do this, you would check the wiring diagram’s
- A.
Numerical index
- B.
Reference designator
- C.
Line replaceable unit index
- D.
Line replaceable unit designation
- 38.(015) Revisions are issued when changes exceed what percentage of the basic TO?
- A.
50
- B.
60
- C.
70
- D.
80
- 39.(015) Safety supplements to technical orders are identified with a border of
- A.
Black SS’s on the title page
- B.
Red SS’s on the title page
- C.
Black SS’s on all pages
- D.
Red SS’s on all pages
- 40.(016) Which deficiency report is used for a technical order (TO) deficiency that involves safety or the unit mission?
- A.
Interim
- B.
Urgent
- C.
Routine
- D.
Emergency
- 41.(016) Personnel at the Air Logistics Center (ALC) activity must act on an emergency Air Force technical order (AFTO) Form 22 report within how many hours of receipt?
- A.
24
- B.
36
- C.
48
- D.
72
- 42.(017) How far away from parked aircraft should liquid oxygen (LOX) carts be stored?
- A.
25 feet
- B.
50 feet
- C.
75 feet
- D.
100 feet
- 43.(017) When you are servicing an aircraft with liquid oxygen (LOX), do not wear
- A.
Cuffless trousers
- B.
A battle dress uniform (BDU) cap
- C.
Leather welders gauntlet cuff gloves
- D.
Shoes which fit loosely around the top
- 44.(018) Liquid nitrogen must be stored below what minimum temperature to remain in a liquid state?
- A.
–310.8°F
- B.
–315.8°F
- C.
–320.8°F
- D.
–325.8°F
- 45.(019) What type of tasks may you perform in the immediate area of explosives?
- A.
Mission critical
- B.
Routine
- C.
None
- D.
Core
- 46.What must you ensure when you are transporting squibs?
- A.
Not to exceed the maximum amount of squibs
- B.
Other personnel are not in the immediate area
- C.
The squibs are in a protective container
- D.
The use of a specially designed vehicle
- 47.(020) How much electrical current does it take to cause muscle paralysis?
- A.
.001 amps
- B.
.005 amps
- C.
.010 amps
- D.
.015 amps
- 48.(020) For personnel electrostatic discharge (ESD) grounding, you must use a skin contact wrist strap connected to the workbench surface. This strap must have a resistance of at least
- A.
1 ohm
- B.
10 ohms
- C.
1 megohm
- D.
10 megohms
- 49.(021) Which situation illustrates a physical hazard presented by a chemical hazard?
- A.
Acute liver damage
- B.
Irritation of the kidney
- C.
Second degree skin burn
- D.
Chronic exposure to vapors
- 50.(021) What is the minimum information required on a hazardous chemical inventory?
- A.
Name, location, and detailed ingredient list of the material
- B.
Name, location, and quantity of material authorized
- C.
Name and location of the material
- D.
Name of the material
- 51.(021) Which element must be included in a workplace written hazard communication program?
- A.
Hazardous material inventory
- B.
Hazardous waste disposal procedures
- C.
Telephone number of hazardous material monitor
- D.
List of routine operations performed in the work center
- 52.(022) Which Air Force publication is a source of information for the prevention of accidents?
- A.
Air Force Instruction (AFI) 91–202
- B.
Air Force Regulation (AFR) 8–2
- C.
AFI 91–204
- D.
AFR 39–1
- 53.(022) What should be the main concern when planning the layout of any shop area?
- A.
Safety
- B.
Lighting
- C.
Adequate work space
- D.
Location of test equipment
- 54.(023) What is considered to be a safe distance in front of jet engine intake ducts?
- A.
10 feet
- B.
15 feet
- C.
20 feet
- D.
25 feet
- 55.(024) Which mishap prevention tag is used to warn personnel against potential hazards?
- A.
Danger
- B.
Caution
- C.
Out of Order
- D.
Do Not Start
- 56.(024) Which Air Force (AF) Form is used to report ground safety accidents involving personnel (not involving aircraft)?
- A.
AF Form 711
- B.
AF Form 711B
- C.
AF Form 117
- D.
AF Form 117B
- 57.(025) High-frequency radiation is not produced by
- A.
Radio equipment
- B.
Radar equipment
- C.
Nuclear weapons
- D.
Electronic counter-measures equipment
- 58.(025) Which type of nuclear radiation is the most deadly?
- A.
Alpha
- B.
Beta
- C.
Delta
- D.
Gamma
- 59.(026) What is a temporary storage location designed to store nuclear materials in transit through a base called?
- A.
Pyramid Alert
- B.
Safeguarding
- C.
Safe Haven
- D.
Tempest
- 60.(026) Which safety standard of the nuclear surety program includes a pre-task briefing?
- A.
Weapons security
- B.
Individual responsibilities
- C.
Prevent nuclear explosions
- D.
Prevent unauthorized or accidental actions
- 61.(201) Screwdrivers are sized by the length of the
- A.
Blade
- B.
Shank
- C.
Handle
- D.
Ferrule
- 62.(201) When striking an object with a hammer, the hammer face should be
- A.
Parallel to the work
- B.
Offset to the work
- C.
Slightly angled
- D.
Slightly open
- 63.(201) What kind of pliers are good for pulling cotter pins
- A.
Snap ring
- B.
Vise grip
- C.
Long-nose
- D.
Diagonal cutting
- 64.(201) One advantage of box-end wrenches is that they
- A.
Are the fastest to use
- B.
Can be hammered on safely
- C.
Are not likely to slip off a nut
- D.
Are easy to use on recessed bolts
- 65.(201) Which wrench is usually the strongest, fastest, and safest in a tool kit?
- A.
Socket
- B.
Box-end
- C.
Open-end
- D.
Adjustable
- 66.(201) When filing aluminum or lead, you should use a
- A.
Rasp
- B.
Scribe
- C.
Mill file
- D.
Triangular file
- 67.(201) What type of gauge would you use to measure an actuating switch clearance?
- A.
Gap
- B.
Thread
- C.
Pressure
- D.
Thickness
- 68.(202) The last verification date on a torque wrench must not exceed
- A.
60 workdays
- B.
30 workdays
- C.
60 calendar-days
- D.
30 calendar-days.
- 69.(202) A precaution concerning torque wrenches is to
- A.
Never use an extension with a torque wrench
- B.
Never use another wrench to secure a bolt before torquing
- C.
Never use a torque wrench that has been dropped unless it has been verified
- D.
Always calculate the leverage advantage before using a torque wrench above its rated capacity
- 70.(202) Before storing a torque wrench you have used, you should
- A.
Lubricate it with a light oil
- B.
Set it at its lowest setting
- C.
Check it for accuracy
- D.
Set it at zero setting
- 71.(203) Tubing used in aircraft oxygen, fuel, lubrication, fire extinguishing, instruments, hydraulic, and vent lines is
- A.
Stainless steel and Teflon alloy
- B.
Stainless steel and copper tubing
- C.
Aluminum alloy and copper tubing
- D.
Aluminum alloy and stainless steel
- 72.(203) A properly installed bolt has a minimum of how many threads protruding through the nut?
- A.
Four
- B.
Three
- C.
Two
- D.
One
- 73.(203) When torquing a bolt assembly, what is the force applied to overcome friction?
- A.
Torsion
- B.
Tension
- C.
Tensile
- D.
Shear
- 74.(204) When installing a cotter pin, ensure the prong that bends over the bolt shank does not exceed the bolt nut
- A.
Grip
- B.
Width
- C.
Length
- D.
Diameter
- 75.(205) Wire insulation may consist of several layers of nonconducting material that provides
- A.
Thermal protection and fluid resistance
- B.
A method of identification
- C.
Protection from freezing
- D.
Strength and flexibility
- 76.(205) Which technical order (TO) provides instructions for the Brady Wire Marking System?
- A.
00-20-1
- B.
00-20-2
- C.
1-1A-8
- D.
1-1A-14
- 77.(205) Wires and wire bundles should be supported by clamps or grommets at intervals of no more than
- A.
15 inches
- B.
20 inches
- C.
24 inches
- D.
26 inches
- 78.(206) Which color code and corresponding wire sizes are valid for a preinsulated terminal?
- A.
Yellow - 12 and 10
- B.
Brown - 22 and 20
- C.
Blue - 20 and 18
- D.
Red - 16 and 14
- 79.(206) The indent-type crimping tool should be used only on
- A.
Preinsulated splices
- B.
Preinsulated terminals
- C.
Noninsulated terminals
- D.
Noninsulated terminal boards
- 80.(206) When joining copper and aluminum terminal lugs together on the same terminal board stud, separate them with
- A.
A steel washer
- B.
A copper washer
- C.
A cadmium-plated washer
- D.
An aluminum-alloy washer
- 81.(206) What do you use as junction points for circuits that are frequently disconnected?
- A.
Connector plugs
- B.
Terminal boards
- C.
Shielded wires
- D.
Splices
- 82.(207) When heat is applied to thermofit material, which is used in compact wire bundles, it will shrink by at least
- A.
One and a half times its original diameter
- B.
One-fourth its original diameter.
- C.
One-half its original diameter
- D.
One time its original diameter
- 83.(208) Never use cushioned clamps in any bonding or grounding connection, because the cushion acts as
- A.
A conductor
- B.
An insulator
- C.
A semiconductor
- D.
An alternative path for current
- 84.(208) After a bonding or grounding jumper is installed, it should read no more than
- A.
0.02 ohms
- B.
0.01 ohms
- C.
0.2 ohms
- D.
0.1 ohms
- 85.(209) Oxide film is removed from the surface of metals during the soldering process by the use of
- A.
A bristle brush
- B.
The soldering flux
- C.
A soldering iron tip
- D.
An approved solvent
- 86.(210) In order to clean a plated soldering tip, use
- A.
A fine file while the tip is cold
- B.
A coarse file while the tip is hot
- C.
An abrasive cloth while the tip is hot
- D.
An abrasive cloth while the tip is cold
- 87.(210) Thermal shunts are used in soldering because they
- A.
Make the part heat faster
- B.
Protect heat-sensitive components
- C.
Keep the lead and component at the same temperature
- D.
Give good holding action to the component being soldered
- 88.(210) You can best determine a soldered connection's quality by
- A.
Reheating it slightly
- B.
Prying on it with a soldering aid
- C.
Giving it a thorough visual inspection
- D.
Pulling on it gently with your fingers
- 89.(211) Prior to soldering electronic equipment, ensure the equipment is
- A.
Disconnected from the power source
- B.
Connected to the power source
- C.
Protected from voltage spikes
- D.
Properly grounded
- 90.(211) How should you test the heat of a soldering iron?
- A.
Submerge the tip in flux
- B.
Hold the tip near your face
- C.
Touch the tip to the solder, near your body
- D.
Touch the tip to the solder, away from your body
- 91.(211) How should you remove excess solder from the soldering iron tip?
- A.
Give the iron a quick flip
- B.
Wipe the iron on a damp sponge or rag
- C.
Gently tap the iron on a trash can edge
- D.
Let the iron cool and file away excess
- 92.(212) An acceptable tinned wire has
- A.
No insulation clearance and wire strands covered with solder, but still visible
- B.
No insulation clearance and wire strands covered with solder, but not visible
- C.
An insulation clearance equal to the diameter of the wire and wire strands covered with solder, but still visible
- D.
An insulation clearance equal to the diameter of the wire and wire strands partially covered with solder, and still visible
- 93.(212) What do you have when you have a cold solder joint?
- A.
Low resistance to current
- B.
High resistance to current
- C.
An acceptable solder joint
- D.
A bright and shiny soldered joint
- 94.(213) During soldering, apply the proper amount of solder directly to the
- A.
Iron tip
- B.
Component
- C.
Connection
- D.
Heat bridge
- 95.(213) Which choice best describes a good solder connection?
- A.
A dull gray appearance
- B.
No pits or holes and has a good concave fillet
- C.
No pits or holes and has a good convex fillet
- D.
Bright and shiny with a minimum amount of pits or holes
- 96.(214) When making wire connections to turret terminals, wrap the wire around the terminal at least
- A.
90 degrees
- B.
180 degrees
- C.
270 degrees
- D.
360 degrees
- 97.(214) To connect wires or component leads to flat perforated terminals, the wrap must be
- A.
45 degrees
- B.
60 degrees
- C.
90 degrees
- D.
180 degrees
- 98.(215) What is the heaviest duty soldering iron you normally use in soldering a printed circuit board?
- A.
20 watts
- B.
27 watts
- C.
30 watts
- D.
35 watts
- 99.(215) You should clean the circuit board connection within how long after it has cooled?
- A.
30 minutes
- B.
60 minutes
- C.
90 minutes
- D.
120 minutes
- 100.(215) Unclinched-lead terminations are of what type?
- A.
Special
- B.
Convex
- C.
Standard
- D.
Concave
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