Mfe - 2A651 Vol 5 Unit Review

100 Questions | Total Attempts: 31

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Electrical Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    After reviewing the aircraft/engine forms, where should you begin troubleshooting?
    • A. 

      Discuss problem with other journeymen in the shop.

    • B. 

      Check each part of every system.

    • C. 

      Examine the most complex unit.

    • D. 

      Observe gauge indications.

  • 2. 
    All of the options listed below are proper troubleshooting practices except
    • A. 

      Checking the applicable trouble areas.

    • B. 

      Understanding the function of each engine unit.

    • C. 

      Performing easy checks, then going to more difficult checks.

    • D. 

      Inspecting other areas after isolating the trouble between points.

  • 3. 
    Aircraft power plant and engine intermediate maintenance technical orders (TO) contain information on troubleshooting. This information is presented in the form of
    • A. 

      Fix-it diagrams.

    • B. 

      Power plant charts.

    • C. 

      Mechanical drawings.

    • D. 

      Troubleshooting charts.

  • 4. 
    To become an expert troubleshooter, you must
    • A. 

      Be a 7-level.

    • B. 

      Have at least 5 years experience.

    • C. 

      Attend college courses in troubleshooting techniques.

    • D. 

      Understand the function of each unit within each system.

  • 5. 
    The F100-PW–220 engine monitoring system component that acquires fault data from the digital electronic engine control (DEEC) and logs the faults with the time of their occurrence is the
    • A. 

      Data collection unit (DCU).

    • B. 

      Ground station unit (GSU).

    • C. 

      Engine analyzer unit (EAU).

    • D. 

      Engine diagnostic unit (EDU).

  • 6. 
    An understanding of the operating principles of engine instruments will help you decide
    • A. 

      If an engine should be removed from an aircraft.

    • B. 

      If the engine should be sent to the test cell.

    • C. 

      The meanings of the instrument readings.

    • D. 

      What tools are required for maintenance.

  • 7. 
    Most engine monitoring gauges and instruments require some type of
    • A. 

      Electrical valve to the indicator.

    • B. 

      Metal tubing for electron flow.

    • C. 

      Radio frequency transmitter.

    • D. 

      Transmitter and indicator.

  • 8. 
    Which jet engine temperature is not measured?
    • A. 

      Exhaust gas.

    • B. 

      Turbine inlet.

    • C. 

      Combustion inlet.

    • D. 

      Fan turbine inlet.

  • 9. 
    A typical jet engine exhaust gas temperature (EGT) indicating system contains thermocouples, leads, an indicator, and
    • A. 

      Resistor.

    • B. 

      Turbine inlet.

    • C. 

      Control valve.

    • D. 

      Exhaust duct.

  • 10. 
    The engine fuel-flow indicating system of most jet powered aircraft contains a fuel-flow
    • A. 

      Transmitter and a float valve.

    • B. 

      Control valve and a float valve.

    • C. 

      Transmitter and a fuel-flow indicator.

    • D. 

      Control valve and a fuel-flow transcriber.

  • 11. 
    The fuel system component of a jet engine that operates by using a water wheel concept is the
    • A. 

      Fuel-flow generator.

    • B. 

      Fuel-flow indicator.

    • C. 

      Fuel-flow transmitter.

    • D. 

      Fuel remaining counter.

  • 12. 
    The fuel-flow indicator indicates the rate of fuel-flow as
    • A. 

      Pounds per hour.

    • B. 

      Gallons per hour.

    • C. 

      Pounds per minute.

    • D. 

      Gallons per second.

  • 13. 
    Two units that work together to indicate that the oil system is operating correctly are the oil pressure
    • A. 

      Transmitter and indicator.

    • B. 

      Relief valve and indicator.

    • C. 

      Relief valve and transmitter.

    • D. 

      Synchronous unit and indicator.

  • 14. 
    The oil pressure indicator receives an electrical signal from the
    • A. 

      Gyro.

    • B. 

      Transmitter.

    • C. 

      Hydraulic unit.

    • D. 

      Synchronous unit.

  • 15. 
    The two primary units of the tachometer indicating system are the tachometer generator and tachometer
    • A. 

      Indicator.

    • B. 

      Fuse panel.

    • C. 

      Transformer.

    • D. 

      Thermocouple.

  • 16. 
    The N2 tachometer generator is usually driven from the tachometer drive located on the
    • A. 

      Engine accessory section.

    • B. 

      Engine turbine section.

    • C. 

      Combustion case.

    • D. 

      Fuel control.

  • 17. 
    The tachometer indicator is
    • A. 

      An electric direct-drive type instrument.

    • B. 

      An electric-magnetic-drag-type instrument.

    • C. 

      A mechanical direct-drive-type instrument.

    • D. 

      A mechanical-magnetic-drag-type instrument.

  • 18. 
    The exhaust nozzle position indicating system found on engines with afterburners is important because it
    • A. 

      Helps the pilot determine engine power.

    • B. 

      Helps the pilot determine fuel consumption.

    • C. 

      Gives the pilot indications of electrical failures.

    • D. 

      Aids the pilot in selection of proper altitude levels.

  • 19. 
    On engines with afterburners, the position of the exhaust nozzle is converted into an electrical signal by a
    • A. 

      Rheostat.

    • B. 

      Rectifier.

    • C. 

      Transducer.

    • D. 

      Transformer.

  • 20. 
    One type of overheat detector unit used on aircraft engines consists of a hollow stainlesssteel tube that covers
    • A. 

      One gold contact.

    • B. 

      Two silver contacts.

    • C. 

      Three bronze contacts.

    • D. 

      Four copper contacts.

  • 21. 
    What is used to indicate the amount of thrust a dual-compressor engine is producing?
    • A. 

      Engine pressure ratio (EPR).

    • B. 

      Exhaust gas temperature (EGT).

    • C. 

      Revolutions per minute (RPM).

    • D. 

      Turbine inlet temperature (TIT).

  • 22. 
    The pressures used in the operation of the engine pressure ratio (EPR) system are the
    • A. 

      Engine inlet total pressure and exhaust total pressure.

    • B. 

      Exhaust total pressure and turbine inlet total pressure.

    • C. 

      Inlet total pressure and compressor discharge total pressure.

    • D. 

      Compressor discharge total pressure and turbine inlet total pressure.

  • 23. 
    Inlet pressure (Pt2) is transmitted from its sensing point
    • A. 

      Electrically.

    • B. 

      Mechanically.

    • C. 

      Hydraulically.

    • D. 

      Through tubing.

  • 24. 
    The direct oil pressure gauge on a test cell is connected to an engine oil pressure line. This configuration will indicate oil pressure without using wiring, indicator, or
    • A. 

      Engine transformer.

    • B. 

      Aircraft transformer.

    • C. 

      Engine transmitter.

    • D. 

      Aircraft transmitter.

  • 25. 
    The test cell exhaust gas temperature (EGT) selector allows selection of
    • A. 

      The EGT parameter for transit speeds.

    • B. 

      Accuracy check switch during adjustment.

    • C. 

      The EGT indicator to be read in digital or analog.

    • D. 

      Individual thermocouple inputs or an average of these inputs.

  • 26. 
    When properly adjusted, the accuracy of the test cell N1 and N2 speed indicator will be within
    • A. 

      1 RPM

    • B. 

      2 RPM

    • C. 

      3 RPM

    • D. 

      4 RPM

  • 27. 
    The test cell IC temperature indicator displays temperatures in degrees Fahrenheit, with a range of
    • A. 

      –100 to +1,000°.

    • B. 

      –75 to +1,400°.

    • C. 

      –50 to +1,600°.

    • D. 

      –25 to +1,800°.

  • 28. 
    What type of vibration causes unnecessary engine removals and unwarranted repairs?
    • A. 

      Forced.

    • B. 

      Transient.

    • C. 

      Unbalanced.

    • D. 

      Externally excited.

  • 29. 
    What kind of engine vibration does not persist, but comes and goes?
    • A. 

      Forced.

    • B. 

      Transient.

    • C. 

      Resonance.

    • D. 

      Externally excited.

  • 30. 
    During vibration analysis, frequency is usually measured in
    • A. 

      Mils.

    • B. 

      Phase lags.

    • C. 

      Cycles per second.

    • D. 

      Phases per second.

  • 31. 
    Forces acting to create vibration in a jet engine present a highly complex pattern. This is because the main rotor
    • A. 

      Is a rigid rotor system.

    • B. 

      Is both a rigid and flexible system.

    • C. 

      Functions as a flexible rotor system.

    • D. 

      Acts as an unmeasurable rotation system.

  • 32. 
    During vibration analysis, why is it necessary to measure all parameters to identify a vibration source?
    • A. 

      The compressor rotor is a freely rotating mass.

    • B. 

      The main rotor functions as an inflexible system.

    • C. 

      A change in mechanical condition will not be detected.

    • D. 

      Displacement may be the same in two completely different problems.

  • 33. 
    The two types of transducers used to measure vibration are
    • A. 

      Velocity and phase accelerometer.

    • B. 

      Velocity and displacement accelerometer.

    • C. 

      Velocity and piezoelectric accelerometer.

    • D. 

      Piezoelectric accelerometer and phase lag transducer.

  • 34. 
    Which type of vibration transducer is made up of certain ceramic compounds and natural crystals?
    • A. 

      Velocity.

    • B. 

      Phase log.

    • C. 

      Displacement accelerometer.

    • D. 

      Piezoelectric accelerometer.

  • 35. 
    The filter selector switch on the vibration analyzer is used to
    • A. 

      Provide an exact revolutions per minute (RPM) indication.

    • B. 

      Indicate the amplitude of the overall vibration.

    • C. 

      Display the frequency of the overall engine.

    • D. 

      Allow selection of the necessary filter.

  • 36. 
    What is used to support the fan and low pressure turbine?
    • A. 

      Blades.

    • B. 

      Bearings.

    • C. 

      Brackets.

    • D. 

      Bushings.

  • 37. 
    What procedure is used to ensure the fan and low pressure turbine are correctly balanced?
    • A. 

      Engine trim.

    • B. 

      Fan rotor trim balance.

    • C. 

      Low-pressure turbine rotor trim balance.

    • D. 

      High-pressure turbine rotor trim balance.

  • 38. 
    The carbon seal tester simulates the effects of
    • A. 

      Turbine gas flow through the carbon seal.

    • B. 

      Having no air pressure on the carbon seal.

    • C. 

      Compressor airflow through the carbon seal.

    • D. 

      Ambient (outside) pressure on the carbon seal.

  • 39. 
    The engine remote trimmer enables you to adjust the
    • A. 

      Fuel enrichment valve without being under the engine.

    • B. 

      Fuel flow transmitter while under the engine.

    • C. 

      Fuel control without being under the engine.

    • D. 

      Fuel pump while under the engine.

  • 40. 
    When connected to the engine, which piece of F100-PW–100 engine test equipment becomes an engine electronic control (EEC)?
    • A. 

      Supervisory control system (SCS) test set.

    • B. 

      Mach number (Mn) simulator test set.

    • C. 

      Engine start system (ESS) tester.

    • D. 

      Remote trimmer.

  • 41. 
    Which piece of test equipment is used to troubleshoot a jet fuel starter (JFS) problem on an F–16 aircraft?
    • A. 

      Supervisory control system (SCS) test set.

    • B. 

      Mach number (Mn) simulator test set.

    • C. 

      Engine start system (ESS) tester.

    • D. 

      Remote trimmer.

  • 42. 
    You can find written instructions for safe flight line vehicle operations in
    • A. 

      AFI 36–2903.

    • B. 

      AFOSH STD 91–100.

    • C. 

      The flight line job guide (JG).

    • D. 

      The intermediate maintenance TO.

  • 43. 
    The term trim means to adjust the engine systems for optimum performance per the limits in the technical order (TO). There are two methods used to trim an engine. They are
    • A. 

      Hydraulic and mechanical.

    • B. 

      Hydraulic and electronic.

    • C. 

      Manual and electronic.

    • D. 

      Manual and mechanical.

  • 44. 
    The pressure gauges used for an oil system pressure checks are connected at the
    • A. 

      Inlet side of the oil pump and the vent system.

    • B. 

      Output side of the main oil pump and the vent system.

    • C. 

      Scavenge pump and the inlet side of oil pressure pump.

    • D. 

      Bearing jets and the output side of the oil scavenge pump.

  • 45. 
    When checking the turbine section, you do not measure
    • A. 

      Fan turbine inlet temperature (FTIT).

    • B. 

      Turbine inlet temperature (TIT).

    • C. 

      Exhaust gas temperature (EGT).

    • D. 

      Intake gas temperature (IGT).

  • 46. 
    Which F–16 operational check allows you to start the jet fuel starter (JFS) without advancing the throttle to idle or supplying fuel to the aircraft engine?
    • A. 

      Dry motoring.

    • B. 

      Wet motoring.

    • C. 

      Bleed schedule.

    • D. 

      Interface operational.

  • 47. 
    Prior to starting the engine when doing an anti-ice valve operational check on an F–16C/D, place the anti-ice engine switch to
    • A. 

      ON

    • B. 

      OFF

    • C. 

      START

    • D. 

      MANUAL

  • 48. 
    How many primary air silencers are there on aircraft noise suppressors to help reduce turbine whine?
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      4

    • C. 

      6

    • D. 

      8

  • 49. 
    Where are the primary silencers positioned on an aircraft noise suppressor?
    • A. 

      Near the bleed area.

    • B. 

      To the rear exhaust area.

    • C. 

      Against the aircraft fuselage.

    • D. 

      Forward of the bleed exhaust area.

  • 50. 
    To how many minutes should engine operation in afterburner be limited when the engine is operated in the aircraft noise suppressor?
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      4

    • D. 

      5

  • 51. 
    The hush house exhaust deflector is constructed of
    • A. 

      Flexible soft metal filled with noise reduction material.

    • B. 

      Cylinder type tubing filled with noise reduction material.

    • C. 

      Panels and air cooling ports filled with noise reduction material.

    • D. 

      Small panel modules filled with noise reduction material.

  • 52. 
    Before moving an aircraft into the hush house, you must inspect the aircraft
    • A. 

      Red streamers.

    • B. 

      And its forms.

    • C. 

      Flight station.

    • D. 

      Forms.

  • 53. 
    After running an engine in augmentation in the hush house, the augmentor tube is cooled by running the engine at idle for a period of
    • A. 

      1 minute.

    • B. 

      3 minutes.

    • C. 

      6 minutes.

    • D. 

      9 minutes.

  • 54. 
    During an inspection of the hush house you are not required to check the
    • A. 

      Engine being tested.

    • B. 

      Concrete deterioration.

    • C. 

      Fire suppression system.

    • D. 

      Engine tie-down assemblies.

  • 55. 
    In addition to determining the condition of a repaired or overhauled engine, you also test engines
    • A. 

      For training practice.

    • B. 

      In aircraft that have been washed.

    • C. 

      That have severe foreign object damage (FOD) damage.

    • D. 

      That have been involved in an incident or a mishap.

  • 56. 
    When testing a TF34 engine at test cell, which test is performed to ensure all operating limits and schedules from idle to maximum power are within limits?
    • A. 

      Break-in run.

    • B. 

      Transient check.

    • C. 

      Vibration survey.

    • D. 

      Max power engine trim.

  • 57. 
    Which testing engine is equipped with a quick engine change (QEC) kit?
    • A. 

      TF39–1C.

    • B. 

      F110-GE–129.

    • C. 

      F100-PW–220.

    • D. 

      F100-PW–229.

  • 58. 
    The two types of test cells currently used in the Air Force are
    • A. 

      Fixed and portable.

    • B. 

      Single and combined.

    • C. 

      Permanent and temporary.

    • D. 

      Functional and progressive.

  • 59. 
    A portable test cell is not equipped with a
    • A. 

      Control cab.

    • B. 

      Thrust trailer.

    • C. 

      Miscellaneous equipment kit.

    • D. 

      Hydraulically operated pylon mount cradle.

  • 60. 
    Which test cell noise suppressors use water to cool the exhaust gases?
    • A. 

      Fixed.

    • B. 

      Portable.

    • C. 

      Both fixed and portable.

    • D. 

      None.

  • 61. 
    Engines are mounted in the fixed test cell on a thrust stand or are suspended
    • A. 

      From cargo straps.

    • B. 

      From a cradle mount.

    • C. 

      From a tailhook adapter.

    • D. 

      On the model 4100 trailer.

  • 62. 
    In the fixed test cell, air for the engine intake comes through baffles located on the
    • A. 

      Floor of the test cell.

    • B. 

      Ceiling of the test cell.

    • C. 

      Side walls of the test cell.

    • D. 

      Front doors of the test cell.

  • 63. 
    The vertical baffles in the exhaust stack of the fixed test cell are designed to remove
    • A. 

      Low-volume sound.

    • B. 

      High-volume sound.

    • C. 

      Low-frequency sound.

    • D. 

      High-frequency sound.

  • 64. 
    The portable test cell is not equipped with a
    • A. 

      Fuel trailer.

    • B. 

      Thrust trailer.

    • C. 

      Control cab trailer.

    • D. 

      Model 3000 trailer.

  • 65. 
    On the portable test cell, the swivel pads at the bottom of the leveling jacks on the engine thrust trailer provide for all of the following except
    • A. 

      Leveling the engine being tested.

    • B. 

      Removal of the wheel and tire assemblies.

    • C. 

      Support the thrust trailer at a high of 80 inches.

    • D. 

      Adjustment for rail compatibility with engine transportation trailers.

  • 66. 
    The vibration pickups on the portable test cell are cooled by
    • A. 

      Engine oil.

    • B. 

      The atmosphere.

    • C. 

      Hydraulic fluid.

    • D. 

      The pneumatic system.

  • 67. 
    The noise suppressor at a portable test cell is not equipped with
    • A. 

      A fuel trailer.

    • B. 

      An exhaust muffler.

    • C. 

      Two air intake mufflers.

    • D. 

      A water tank semitrailer.

  • 68. 
    When an engine arrives for a test run at the test cell, it must
    • A. 

      Only need replacement of minor parts.

    • B. 

      Be operable with all known discrepancies corrected.

    • C. 

      Have the fuel line disconnected from the pump inlet.

    • D. 

      Be in need of only minor bits and pieces to be torqued.

  • 69. 
    Which of these is not considered a cause of foreign object damage (FOD)?
    • A. 

      Formation of ice.

    • B. 

      Ingestion of rocks.

    • C. 

      Ingestion of bolts.

    • D. 

      Failure of internal parts.

  • 70. 
    Which engine area should be checked for foreign object damage (FOD) prior to operation on the test cell facility?
    • A. 

      Fuel control.

    • B. 

      Turbine area.

    • C. 

      Inlet to the oil pump.

    • D. 

      Inlet to the fuel pump.

  • 71. 
    When making general entries on the test cell engine log sheet, what should you do with the engine model and serial number?
    • A. 

      Type these items.

    • B. 

      Check past records.

    • C. 

      Enter these only after test is complete.

    • D. 

      Verify these numbers on the engine data plate.

  • 72. 
    To prevent damage to the load cells when you are transferring an engine to the test stand,
    • A. 

      Secure the upper and lower rails.

    • B. 

      Adjust the engine snubber.

    • C. 

      Install the load cell shims.

    • D. 

      Install lockbolts.

  • 73. 
    Where would you begin your investigation of an engine with a possible oil consumption problem?
    • A. 

      Inspect the compressor thrust-bearing.

    • B. 

      Talk with the oil analysis program manager.

    • C. 

      Review AFTO Form 244, Industrial/Support Equipment Record.

    • D. 

      Review AFTO Form 781H, Aerospace Vehicle Flight Status and Maintenance.

  • 74. 
    If an engine stalls or surges during a test cell run, you should investigate the
    • A. 

      Ignition exciter.

    • B. 

      Oil pressure pump.

    • C. 

      Thrust reverser pump.

    • D. 

      Variable stator vanes.

  • 75. 
    You can get information such as temperature and barometric pressure from equipment at the test cell site or from
    • A. 

      The control tower.

    • B. 

      Information on the radio.

    • C. 

      The local weather station.

    • D. 

      Your immediate supervisor.

  • 76. 
    Responsibility for the proper preventive maintenance of a test cell facility rests with the
    • A. 

      Individuals assigned.

    • B. 

      Civil engineer squadron

    • C. 

      Equipment maintenance squadron.

    • D. 

      Aerospace ground equipment (AGE) flight.

  • 77. 
    What information is used as an aid in test facility inspections?
    • A. 

      Test cell run procedures.

    • B. 

      Unit serial number listings.

    • C. 

      Monthly requirements listings.

    • D. 

      Periodic inspection checklists.

  • 78. 
    During an inspection, compressor blade defects that are within limits are
    • A. 

      Recorded on the AFTO Form 44.

    • B. 

      Left alone.

    • C. 

      Replaced.

    • D. 

      Blended.

  • 79. 
    Defects (such as cracks) that appear on the combustion chamber are aggravated by
    • A. 

      Thermal cycles.

    • B. 

      Low cycle fatigue.

    • C. 

      Borescope inspections.

    • D. 

      Combustion chamber removal.

  • 80. 
    Defects (such as cracks) found during combustion chamber borescope inspections
    • A. 

      Are continually monitored as long as they are within limits.

    • B. 

      Require engine removal, even if they are within limits.

    • C. 

      Require welding, even if they are within limits.

    • D. 

      Are unacceptable; you must replace the part.

  • 81. 
    On a disassembled engine, a visual inspection of the combustion chamber is preferred over borescope inspection because
    • A. 

      The limits for a visual inspection are not as tight as those for a borescope inspection.

    • B. 

      The borescope may not always be available.

    • C. 

      Removal of the combustion chamber is quicker.

    • D. 

      You could spot defects that have been missed with the borescope

  • 82. 
    Through extensive testing, engine manufacturers determine how long a particular part should last. This is known as the
    • A. 

      Anticipated failure rate.

    • B. 

      Guaranteed date.

    • C. 

      Drop dead date.

    • D. 

      Service life.

  • 83. 
    Using the wrong cleaning agent on a jet engine part
    • A. 

      Has no effect.

    • B. 

      Could destroy it.

    • C. 

      Only causes minor etching.

    • D. 

      Is acceptable as long as the part comes clean.

  • 84. 
    To borescope the high-pressure turbine (HPT) rotor blades, rotate the rear compressor by using the core engine rotating device on the
    • A. 

      Variable nozzle.

    • B. 

      Accessory gearbox.

    • C. 

      Low pressure compressor.

    • D. 

      Borescope light guide cable.

  • 85. 
    Which one is not an inspection phase?
    • A. 

      Fix.

    • B. 

      Look.

    • C. 

      Preinspection.

    • D. 

      Home station check (HSC).

  • 86. 
    During what inspection phase are operational checks made according to the technical order (TO)?
    • A. 

      Fix.

    • B. 

      Look.

    • C. 

      Preinspection.

    • D. 

      Post-inspection.

  • 87. 
    A basic post-flight inspection (BPO) is done
    • A. 

      With the thruflight inspection.

    • B. 

      After the first flight of the day.

    • C. 

      With the end-of-runway inspection.

    • D. 

      After the last flight of the flying period.

  • 88. 
    What inspection is done on aircraft parts that require infrequent inspections?
    • A. 

      Periodic (PE).

    • B. 

      Basic post-flight (BPO).

    • C. 

      Hourly post-flight.

    • D. 

      Home station check (HSC).

  • 89. 
    The home station check (HSC) inspection is a combination of the basic post-flight (BPO) and
    • A. 

      Thruflight.

    • B. 

      Phased items.

    • C. 

      Periodic items.

    • D. 

      Hourly post-flight items.

  • 90. 
    Which inspection is conducted by maintenance personnel after an occurrence of a specific or unusual condition?
    • A. 

      Special.

    • B. 

      Calendar.

    • C. 

      Acceptance.

    • D. 

      Time replacement item.

  • 91. 
    A cold compressor stall that occurs at low revolutions per minute (RPM) and is accompanied by a slight overtemperature is called
    • A. 

      An incipient.

    • B. 

      A thermal.

    • C. 

      A partial.

    • D. 

      A mild.

  • 92. 
    Careless operation of the throttle during emergency system operation could cause a compressor stall due to
    • A. 

      A restricted air inlet.

    • B. 

      Rapid throttle movement.

    • C. 

      A restricted turbine nozzle.

    • D. 

      Malfunctioning variable geometry system.

  • 93. 
    Compressor section failure from a chain reaction due to blade-to-blade and blade-to-vane interference is known as
    • A. 

      Circumferential force.

    • B. 

      Centrifugal force.

    • C. 

      Centripetal force.

    • D. 

      Centrifuge force.

  • 94. 
    What section of a compressor blade is most likely to fail?
    • A. 

      Near the blade tip.

    • B. 

      Near the blade root.

    • C. 

      At the trailing edge.

    • D. 

      At the leading edge.

  • 95. 
    What is the probable cause of compressor rotor shift?
    • A. 

      Rotor out of round.

    • B. 

      Roller bearing failure.

    • C. 

      Thrust bearing failure.

    • D. 

      Incipient compressor stall.

  • 96. 
    If the turbine nozzles are burned out uniformly around the whole annulus from an overtemperature condition, this is known as a
    • A. 

      Mild stall condition with normal cooling airflow.

    • B. 

      Severe stall condition with normal cooling airflow.

    • C. 

      Mild stall condition with disrupted cooling airflow.

    • D. 

      Severe stall condition with disrupted cooling airflow.

  • 97. 
    Turbine rotor blade failure usually occurs near the
    • A. 

      Midspan of the blade.

    • B. 

      Platform of the blade.

    • C. 

      Root of the blade.

    • D. 

      Tip of the blade.

  • 98. 
    Turbine blade fatigue failure does not result from
    • A. 

      Nicks.

    • B. 

      Dents.

    • C. 

      Blends.

    • D. 

      Scratches.

  • 99. 
    Which characteristic is the most common cause of bearing failure?
    • A. 

      Transient vibration.

    • B. 

      Partial loss of lubrication.

    • C. 

      Complete loss of lubrication.

    • D. 

      Stall condition overtemperature.

  • 100. 
    Bearing failure from moisture, lack of protective oils, improper handling, or improper storage could cause
    • A. 

      Corrosion pitting.

    • B. 

      Fatigue pitting.

    • C. 

      Brinelling.

    • D. 

      Skidding.