Mfe - 2A651 Vol 5 Unit Review
Questions and Answers
- 1.
After reviewing the aircraft/engine forms, where should you begin troubleshooting?
- A.
Discuss problem with other journeymen in the shop.
- B.
Check each part of every system.
- C.
Examine the most complex unit.
- D.
Observe gauge indications.
Correct Answer
D. Observe gauge indications.Explanation
When troubleshooting aircraft/engine issues, it is important to begin by observing gauge indications. This allows you to gather initial information about the performance of different systems and identify any abnormalities or deviations from normal operating conditions. By observing gauge indications, you can narrow down the potential areas of concern and prioritize troubleshooting efforts accordingly. This approach helps in identifying the root cause of the problem more efficiently and effectively.Rate this question:
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- 2.
All of the options listed below are proper troubleshooting practices except
- A.
Checking the applicable trouble areas.
- B.
Understanding the function of each engine unit.
- C.
Performing easy checks, then going to more difficult checks.
- D.
Inspecting other areas after isolating the trouble between points.
Correct Answer
D. Inspecting other areas after isolating the trouble between points.Explanation
This question asks for the option that is NOT a proper troubleshooting practice. The correct answer is "inspecting other areas after isolating the trouble between points." This is not a proper troubleshooting practice because once the trouble has been isolated between specific points, it is important to focus on those points and not waste time inspecting other areas that are unrelated to the issue. This can help save time and effort in finding and resolving the problem efficiently.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Aircraft power plant and engine intermediate maintenance technical orders (TO) contain information on troubleshooting. This information is presented in the form of
- A.
Fix-it diagrams.
- B.
Power plant charts.
- C.
Mechanical drawings.
- D.
Troubleshooting charts.
Correct Answer
D. Troubleshooting charts.Explanation
Aircraft power plant and engine intermediate maintenance technical orders (TO) contain troubleshooting information in the form of troubleshooting charts. These charts provide step-by-step instructions to identify and resolve issues with the power plant and engine systems. By following the troubleshooting charts, maintenance personnel can systematically diagnose and fix problems, ensuring the proper functioning of the aircraft's power plant and engine.Rate this question:
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- 4.
To become an expert troubleshooter, you must
- A.
Be a 7-level.
- B.
Have at least 5 years experience.
- C.
Attend college courses in troubleshooting techniques.
- D.
Understand the function of each unit within each system.
Correct Answer
D. Understand the function of each unit within each system.Explanation
To become an expert troubleshooter, it is important to understand the function of each unit within each system. This knowledge allows troubleshooters to identify and diagnose problems effectively. While being a 7-level, having at least 5 years of experience, and attending college courses in troubleshooting techniques may contribute to becoming an expert troubleshooter, understanding the function of each unit within each system is the most crucial factor. This understanding enables troubleshooters to have a comprehensive understanding of how systems work and how each unit contributes to their overall functioning.Rate this question:
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- 5.
The F100-PW–220 engine monitoring system component that acquires fault data from the digital electronic engine control (DEEC) and logs the faults with the time of their occurrence is the
- A.
Data collection unit (DCU).
- B.
Ground station unit (GSU).
- C.
Engine analyzer unit (EAU).
- D.
Engine diagnostic unit (EDU).
Correct Answer
D. Engine diagnostic unit (EDU).Explanation
The engine diagnostic unit (EDU) is the component of the F100-PW–220 engine monitoring system that acquires fault data from the digital electronic engine control (DEEC) and logs the faults with the time of their occurrence. It is responsible for diagnosing any issues or faults in the engine and keeping a record of them. The data collection unit (DCU), ground station unit (GSU), and engine analyzer unit (EAU) are not specifically mentioned as performing this function in the given information.Rate this question:
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- 6.
An understanding of the operating principles of engine instruments will help you decide
- A.
If an engine should be removed from an aircraft.
- B.
If the engine should be sent to the test cell.
- C.
The meanings of the instrument readings.
- D.
What tools are required for maintenance.
Correct Answer
C. The meanings of the instrument readings.Explanation
An understanding of the operating principles of engine instruments is important in order to interpret the readings provided by these instruments. By knowing the meanings of the instrument readings, one can determine the current status and performance of the engine. This knowledge is crucial in making decisions regarding the engine, such as whether it should be removed from the aircraft or sent to the test cell for further examination. Additionally, understanding the instrument readings helps in identifying any potential issues or abnormalities in the engine's operation, allowing for timely maintenance and repairs.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Most engine monitoring gauges and instruments require some type of
- A.
Electrical valve to the indicator.
- B.
Metal tubing for electron flow.
- C.
Radio frequency transmitter.
- D.
Transmitter and indicator.
Correct Answer
D. Transmitter and indicator.Explanation
Most engine monitoring gauges and instruments require a transmitter and indicator because the transmitter is responsible for converting the physical measurements of the engine into electrical signals, which are then transmitted to the indicator. The indicator, in turn, interprets these signals and displays the relevant information to the operator. This setup allows for accurate monitoring and measurement of various engine parameters, such as temperature, pressure, and speed.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Which jet engine temperature is not measured?
- A.
Exhaust gas.
- B.
Turbine inlet.
- C.
Combustion inlet.
- D.
Fan turbine inlet.
Correct Answer
C. Combustion inlet.Explanation
The temperature of the combustion inlet is not measured in a jet engine. The exhaust gas temperature, turbine inlet temperature, and fan turbine inlet temperature are all important measurements in monitoring the performance and efficiency of the engine. However, the combustion inlet temperature is not typically measured as it is not as critical for engine operation and monitoring.Rate this question:
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- 9.
A typical jet engine exhaust gas temperature (EGT) indicating system contains thermocouples, leads, an indicator, and
- A.
Resistor.
- B.
Turbine inlet.
- C.
Control valve.
- D.
Exhaust duct.
Correct Answer
A. Resistor.Explanation
A typical jet engine exhaust gas temperature (EGT) indicating system contains thermocouples, leads, an indicator, and a resistor. The resistor is an important component in the system as it helps to regulate and control the flow of electrical current. It plays a crucial role in converting the temperature measurements from the thermocouples into a readable form on the indicator. Without the resistor, the system would not be able to accurately measure and display the exhaust gas temperature.Rate this question:
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- 10.
The engine fuel-flow indicating system of most jet powered aircraft contains a fuel-flow
- A.
Transmitter and a float valve.
- B.
Control valve and a float valve.
- C.
Transmitter and a fuel-flow indicator.
- D.
Control valve and a fuel-flow transcriber.
Correct Answer
C. Transmitter and a fuel-flow indicator.Explanation
The engine fuel-flow indicating system of most jet powered aircraft contains a transmitter and a fuel-flow indicator. The transmitter is responsible for measuring the fuel flow and sending the information to the fuel-flow indicator, which displays the fuel flow rate to the pilot. This allows the pilot to monitor the amount of fuel being consumed by the engine and make any necessary adjustments.Rate this question:
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- 11.
The fuel system component of a jet engine that operates by using a water wheel concept is the
- A.
Fuel-flow generator.
- B.
Fuel-flow indicator.
- C.
Fuel-flow transmitter.
- D.
Fuel remaining counter.
Correct Answer
C. Fuel-flow transmitter.Explanation
A fuel-flow transmitter is a component of a jet engine's fuel system that operates using a water wheel concept. It measures the flow rate of fuel and transmits this information to the engine control system. This allows for accurate monitoring and control of the fuel flow, ensuring optimal performance and efficiency of the engine. The other options, such as fuel-flow generator, fuel-flow indicator, and fuel remaining counter, do not involve the concept of a water wheel and are not directly related to measuring and transmitting fuel flow information.Rate this question:
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- 12.
The fuel-flow indicator indicates the rate of fuel-flow as
- A.
Pounds per hour.
- B.
Gallons per hour.
- C.
Pounds per minute.
- D.
Gallons per second.
Correct Answer
A. Pounds per hour.Explanation
The fuel-flow indicator is used to measure the rate at which fuel is flowing. In aviation, fuel is typically measured in pounds rather than gallons because the weight of the fuel affects the aircraft's performance. Therefore, the fuel-flow indicator is calibrated to display the rate of fuel-flow in pounds per hour, allowing pilots to monitor and manage their fuel consumption accurately.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Two units that work together to indicate that the oil system is operating correctly are the oil pressure
- A.
Transmitter and indicator.
- B.
Relief valve and indicator.
- C.
Relief valve and transmitter.
- D.
Synchronous unit and indicator.
Correct Answer
A. Transmitter and indicator.Explanation
The oil pressure transmitter and indicator are two units that work together to indicate the correct operation of the oil system. The transmitter measures the oil pressure and sends the signal to the indicator, which displays the pressure reading. This allows the operator to monitor the oil pressure and ensure that it is within the desired range for proper functioning of the system.Rate this question:
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- 14.
The oil pressure indicator receives an electrical signal from the
- A.
Gyro.
- B.
Transmitter.
- C.
Hydraulic unit.
- D.
Synchronous unit.
Correct Answer
B. Transmitter.Explanation
The correct answer is "transmitter" because the oil pressure indicator receives an electrical signal from the transmitter. The transmitter is responsible for converting the oil pressure into an electrical signal that can be interpreted by the indicator.Rate this question:
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- 15.
The two primary units of the tachometer indicating system are the tachometer generator and tachometer
- A.
Indicator.
- B.
Fuse panel.
- C.
Transformer.
- D.
Thermocouple.
Correct Answer
A. Indicator.Explanation
The tachometer indicating system consists of two primary units: the tachometer generator and the tachometer indicator. The tachometer generator is responsible for generating the electrical signals based on the rotational speed of the engine, while the tachometer indicator is the device that displays the actual RPM (revolutions per minute) reading to the user. Therefore, the correct answer is "indicator."Rate this question:
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- 16.
The N2 tachometer generator is usually driven from the tachometer drive located on the
- A.
Engine accessory section.
- B.
Engine turbine section.
- C.
Combustion case.
- D.
Fuel control.
Correct Answer
A. Engine accessory section.Explanation
The N2 tachometer generator is typically connected to the tachometer drive located on the engine accessory section. This section of the engine houses various components such as the generator, starter, oil pump, and fuel pump. The tachometer drive is responsible for transmitting the rotational speed of the engine to the tachometer generator, which then converts it into an electrical signal for display on the cockpit instrument panel. Therefore, the engine accessory section is the correct location for the N2 tachometer drive.Rate this question:
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- 17.
The tachometer indicator is
- A.
An electric direct-drive type instrument.
- B.
An electric-magnetic-drag-type instrument.
- C.
A mechanical direct-drive-type instrument.
- D.
A mechanical-magnetic-drag-type instrument.
Correct Answer
B. An electric-magnetic-drag-type instrument.Explanation
The correct answer is "an electric-magnetic-drag-type instrument." This means that the tachometer indicator is an instrument that uses both electric and magnetic forces to measure and display the speed of a rotating object. The drag-type refers to the way the instrument operates, using the drag force generated by the rotation of the object to measure its speed.Rate this question:
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- 18.
The exhaust nozzle position indicating system found on engines with afterburners is important because it
- A.
Helps the pilot determine engine power.
- B.
Helps the pilot determine fuel consumption.
- C.
Gives the pilot indications of electrical failures.
- D.
Aids the pilot in selection of proper altitude levels.
Correct Answer
A. Helps the pilot determine engine power.Explanation
The exhaust nozzle position indicating system is important because it helps the pilot determine engine power. By indicating the position of the exhaust nozzle, the system provides information about the thrust being produced by the engine. This allows the pilot to monitor and adjust the engine power accordingly, ensuring optimal performance during flight.Rate this question:
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- 19.
On engines with afterburners, the position of the exhaust nozzle is converted into an electrical signal by a
- A.
Rheostat.
- B.
Rectifier.
- C.
Transducer.
- D.
Transformer.
Correct Answer
C. Transducer.Explanation
A transducer is a device that converts one form of energy into another. In this context, the position of the exhaust nozzle on engines with afterburners is converted into an electrical signal by a transducer. This means that the transducer is able to convert the physical position of the nozzle into an electrical signal that can be measured or used for control purposes.Rate this question:
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- 20.
One type of overheat detector unit used on aircraft engines consists of a hollow stainlesssteel tube that covers
- A.
One gold contact.
- B.
Two silver contacts.
- C.
Three bronze contacts.
- D.
Four copper contacts.
Correct Answer
B. Two silver contacts.Explanation
The correct answer is two silver contacts. This type of overheat detector unit uses a hollow stainless steel tube that covers two silver contacts. When the temperature exceeds a certain threshold, the metal expands and causes the contacts to touch, completing an electrical circuit and triggering an overheat warning.Rate this question:
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- 21.
What is used to indicate the amount of thrust a dual-compressor engine is producing?
- A.
Engine pressure ratio (EPR).
- B.
Exhaust gas temperature (EGT).
- C.
Revolutions per minute (RPM).
- D.
Turbine inlet temperature (TIT).
Correct Answer
A. Engine pressure ratio (EPR).Explanation
The engine pressure ratio (EPR) is used to indicate the amount of thrust a dual-compressor engine is producing. EPR is a ratio of the total pressure at the engine inlet to the total pressure at the engine exhaust. It provides a measure of the engine's performance and the amount of thrust it is generating. By monitoring the EPR, pilots and engineers can ensure that the engine is operating within its optimal range and producing the desired amount of thrust.Rate this question:
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- 22.
The pressures used in the operation of the engine pressure ratio (EPR) system are the
- A.
Engine inlet total pressure and exhaust total pressure.
- B.
Exhaust total pressure and turbine inlet total pressure.
- C.
Inlet total pressure and compressor discharge total pressure.
- D.
Compressor discharge total pressure and turbine inlet total pressure.
Correct Answer
A. Engine inlet total pressure and exhaust total pressure.Explanation
The engine pressure ratio (EPR) system in an engine requires the use of the engine inlet total pressure and exhaust total pressure. These two pressures are crucial for determining the overall performance and efficiency of the engine. The engine inlet total pressure represents the pressure at the entrance of the engine, while the exhaust total pressure represents the pressure at the exit of the engine. By measuring and comparing these two pressures, the EPR system can accurately assess the engine's performance and make necessary adjustments to optimize its operation.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Inlet pressure (Pt2) is transmitted from its sensing point
- A.
Electrically.
- B.
Mechanically.
- C.
Hydraulically.
- D.
Through tubing.
Correct Answer
D. Through tubing.Explanation
The correct answer is through tubing. This means that the inlet pressure is transmitted from its sensing point to another location using tubing as a medium. This method allows for the pressure to be measured or monitored remotely, without the need for direct electrical, mechanical, or hydraulic connections. Tubing provides a convenient and efficient way to transmit pressure signals over distances, making it a common choice in many industrial and engineering applications.Rate this question:
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- 24.
The direct oil pressure gauge on a test cell is connected to an engine oil pressure line. This configuration will indicate oil pressure without using wiring, indicator, or
- A.
Engine transformer.
- B.
Aircraft transformer.
- C.
Engine transmitter.
- D.
Aircraft transmitter.
Correct Answer
D. Aircraft transmitter.Explanation
The direct oil pressure gauge on a test cell is connected to an aircraft transmitter. This means that the oil pressure in the engine is being transmitted to the gauge through the transmitter, without the need for any wiring, indicator, or engine transformer. The use of an aircraft transmitter allows for accurate measurement of the oil pressure in the engine without the need for additional components.Rate this question:
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- 25.
The test cell exhaust gas temperature (EGT) selector allows selection of
- A.
The EGT parameter for transit speeds.
- B.
Accuracy check switch during adjustment.
- C.
The EGT indicator to be read in digital or analog.
- D.
Individual thermocouple inputs or an average of these inputs.
Correct Answer
D. Individual thermocouple inputs or an average of these inputs.Explanation
The test cell exhaust gas temperature (EGT) selector allows for the selection of either individual thermocouple inputs or an average of these inputs. This means that the EGT indicator can display the temperature readings from each individual thermocouple, or it can display the average temperature from all the thermocouples. This allows for flexibility in monitoring and analyzing the EGT parameter based on the specific needs or requirements of the situation.Rate this question:
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- 26.
When properly adjusted, the accuracy of the test cell N1 and N2 speed indicator will be within
- A.
1 RPM
- B.
2 RPM
- C.
3 RPM
- D.
4 RPM
Correct Answer
B. 2 RPMExplanation
The accuracy of the test cell N1 and N2 speed indicator will be within 2 RPM when properly adjusted. This means that the readings on the speed indicator will be within a range of plus or minus 2 RPM from the actual speed of the test cell. It is important to properly adjust the speed indicator to ensure accurate readings and reliable data.Rate this question:
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- 27.
The test cell IC temperature indicator displays temperatures in degrees Fahrenheit, with a range of
- A.
–100 to +1,000°.
- B.
–75 to +1,400°.
- C.
–50 to +1,600°.
- D.
–25 to +1,800°.
Correct Answer
C. –50 to +1,600°.Explanation
The correct answer is –50 to +1,600° because it is the only range that includes both negative and positive temperatures, and it also has the widest range of temperatures compared to the other options. This range allows for a greater flexibility in measuring temperature, accommodating both extremely cold and extremely hot temperatures.Rate this question:
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- 28.
What type of vibration causes unnecessary engine removals and unwarranted repairs?
- A.
Forced.
- B.
Transient.
- C.
Unbalanced.
- D.
Externally excited.
Correct Answer
D. Externally excited.Explanation
Externally excited vibrations refer to vibrations that are caused by external factors, such as wind, road conditions, or other nearby machinery. These vibrations can cause unnecessary engine removals and unwarranted repairs because they are not inherent to the engine itself and can be difficult to diagnose and fix. These vibrations can lead to damage and wear on engine components, resulting in the need for repairs or even engine removal.Rate this question:
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- 29.
What kind of engine vibration does not persist, but comes and goes?
- A.
Forced.
- B.
Transient.
- C.
Resonance.
- D.
Externally excited.
Correct Answer
B. Transient.Explanation
Transient engine vibration refers to vibrations that occur intermittently or momentarily and then disappear. These vibrations are not continuous but rather occur in short bursts or episodes. They may be caused by temporary disturbances or changes in the engine's operating conditions. Unlike forced vibrations that are continuous and persist throughout the engine's operation, transient vibrations are temporary and come and go.Rate this question:
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- 30.
During vibration analysis, frequency is usually measured in
- A.
Mils.
- B.
Phase lags.
- C.
Cycles per second.
- D.
Phases per second.
Correct Answer
C. Cycles per second.Explanation
During vibration analysis, frequency is typically measured in cycles per second. This unit of measurement is commonly known as Hertz (Hz). It represents the number of oscillations or vibrations that occur in one second. Measuring frequency in cycles per second allows engineers and analysts to accurately quantify the rate at which a system or object is vibrating. This information is crucial for diagnosing and troubleshooting vibration-related issues in various industries such as manufacturing, aerospace, and automotive.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Forces acting to create vibration in a jet engine present a highly complex pattern. This is because the main rotor
- A.
Is a rigid rotor system.
- B.
Is both a rigid and flexible system.
- C.
Functions as a flexible rotor system.
- D.
Acts as an unmeasurable rotation system.
Correct Answer
C. Functions as a flexible rotor system.Explanation
The forces acting to create vibration in a jet engine are highly complex because the main rotor functions as a flexible rotor system. This means that the main rotor is not completely rigid and can deform or flex under certain conditions. This flexibility allows the rotor to absorb and dampen vibrations, reducing the overall vibration levels in the engine. Therefore, the main rotor being a flexible system contributes to the complexity of the vibration pattern in a jet engine.Rate this question:
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- 32.
During vibration analysis, why is it necessary to measure all parameters to identify a vibration source?
- A.
The compressor rotor is a freely rotating mass.
- B.
The main rotor functions as an inflexible system.
- C.
A change in mechanical condition will not be detected.
- D.
Displacement may be the same in two completely different problems.
Correct Answer
D. Displacement may be the same in two completely different problems.Explanation
In vibration analysis, measuring all parameters is necessary to identify a vibration source because displacement alone may not provide enough information. Displacement can be the same in two different problems, so by only measuring displacement, it would be difficult to differentiate between the two sources of vibration. By measuring all parameters, such as velocity, acceleration, and frequency, a more comprehensive understanding of the vibration can be obtained, allowing for accurate identification of the vibration source.Rate this question:
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- 33.
The two types of transducers used to measure vibration are
- A.
Velocity and phase accelerometer.
- B.
Velocity and displacement accelerometer.
- C.
Velocity and piezoelectric accelerometer.
- D.
Piezoelectric accelerometer and phase lag transducer.
Correct Answer
C. Velocity and piezoelectric accelerometer.Explanation
The correct answer is velocity and piezoelectric accelerometer. Velocity and piezoelectric accelerometers are two types of transducers commonly used to measure vibration. A velocity accelerometer measures the rate of change of velocity of an object, while a piezoelectric accelerometer uses the piezoelectric effect to convert mechanical vibrations into electrical signals. These two types of transducers are often used together to accurately measure and analyze vibrations in various applications.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Which type of vibration transducer is made up of certain ceramic compounds and natural crystals?
- A.
Velocity.
- B.
Phase log.
- C.
Displacement accelerometer.
- D.
Piezoelectric accelerometer.
Correct Answer
D. Piezoelectric accelerometer.Explanation
A piezoelectric accelerometer is made up of certain ceramic compounds and natural crystals. These materials have the property of generating an electrical charge when subjected to mechanical stress or vibration. The generated charge is then converted into a proportional voltage signal, which can be measured and analyzed to determine the vibration levels. Therefore, a piezoelectric accelerometer is the correct answer for a transducer made up of these materials.Rate this question:
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- 35.
The filter selector switch on the vibration analyzer is used to
- A.
Provide an exact revolutions per minute (RPM) indication.
- B.
Indicate the amplitude of the overall vibration.
- C.
Display the frequency of the overall engine.
- D.
Allow selection of the necessary filter.
Correct Answer
D. Allow selection of the necessary filter.Explanation
The filter selector switch on the vibration analyzer allows the user to choose the appropriate filter for analyzing the vibration data. Different filters can be used to focus on specific frequencies or to remove unwanted noise from the signal. By selecting the necessary filter, the user can ensure that the vibration analysis is accurate and relevant to the specific application or problem being addressed.Rate this question:
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- 36.
What is used to support the fan and low pressure turbine?
- A.
Blades.
- B.
Bearings.
- C.
Brackets.
- D.
Bushings.
Correct Answer
B. Bearings.Explanation
Bearings are used to support the fan and low pressure turbine. Bearings are mechanical components that reduce friction between moving parts, allowing them to rotate smoothly. In this case, the bearings support the fan and low pressure turbine, ensuring their proper functioning and reducing wear and tear on the components. Blades, brackets, and bushings are not specifically designed for supporting these components.Rate this question:
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- 37.
What procedure is used to ensure the fan and low pressure turbine are correctly balanced?
- A.
Engine trim.
- B.
Fan rotor trim balance.
- C.
Low-pressure turbine rotor trim balance.
- D.
High-pressure turbine rotor trim balance.
Correct Answer
B. Fan rotor trim balance.Explanation
Fan rotor trim balance is the procedure used to ensure that the fan and low-pressure turbine are correctly balanced. This involves adjusting the weight distribution of the fan rotor blades to minimize any vibrations or uneven forces during operation. By achieving balance, the fan and low-pressure turbine can operate smoothly and efficiently, reducing the risk of damage and improving overall performance.Rate this question:
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- 38.
The carbon seal tester simulates the effects of
- A.
Turbine gas flow through the carbon seal.
- B.
Having no air pressure on the carbon seal.
- C.
Compressor airflow through the carbon seal.
- D.
Ambient (outside) pressure on the carbon seal.
Correct Answer
C. Compressor airflow through the carbon seal.Explanation
The correct answer is compressor airflow through the carbon seal. This means that the carbon seal tester is designed to replicate the conditions of airflow that occur when the compressor is in operation. By simulating this airflow, the tester can assess the performance and durability of the carbon seal under realistic conditions. This is important because the carbon seal plays a critical role in preventing gas leakage and maintaining the efficiency of the compressor.Rate this question:
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- 39.
The engine remote trimmer enables you to adjust the
- A.
Fuel enrichment valve without being under the engine.
- B.
Fuel flow transmitter while under the engine.
- C.
Fuel control without being under the engine.
- D.
Fuel pump while under the engine.
Correct Answer
C. Fuel control without being under the engine.Explanation
The engine remote trimmer allows for the adjustment of the fuel control without needing to be physically under the engine. This means that the fuel control can be adjusted from a remote location, providing convenience and ease of access for maintenance and adjustments.Rate this question:
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- 40.
When connected to the engine, which piece of F100-PW–100 engine test equipment becomes an engine electronic control (EEC)?
- A.
Supervisory control system (SCS) test set.
- B.
Mach number (Mn) simulator test set.
- C.
Engine start system (ESS) tester.
- D.
Remote trimmer.
Correct Answer
A. Supervisory control system (SCS) test set.Explanation
When connected to the engine, the Supervisory control system (SCS) test set becomes an engine electronic control (EEC). This test set is responsible for monitoring and controlling the engine's performance, including parameters such as fuel flow, engine temperature, and thrust. It communicates with the engine's electronic control unit (ECU) to ensure optimal engine operation and safety. By connecting the SCS test set to the engine, it takes on the role of the EEC, allowing technicians to test and troubleshoot the engine's electronic control system.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Which piece of test equipment is used to troubleshoot a jet fuel starter (JFS) problem on an F–16 aircraft?
- A.
Supervisory control system (SCS) test set.
- B.
Mach number (Mn) simulator test set.
- C.
Engine start system (ESS) tester.
- D.
Remote trimmer.
Correct Answer
C. Engine start system (ESS) tester.Explanation
The Engine start system (ESS) tester is the correct answer because it is specifically designed to troubleshoot problems with the jet fuel starter (JFS) on an F-16 aircraft. This test equipment is used to diagnose and test the functionality of the engine start system, which includes the JFS. The ESS tester allows technicians to simulate various conditions and monitor the performance of the JFS, helping them identify and resolve any issues that may be affecting its operation. The other options mentioned are not directly related to troubleshooting JFS problems on an F-16 aircraft.Rate this question:
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- 42.
You can find written instructions for safe flight line vehicle operations in
- A.
AFI 36–2903.
- B.
AFOSH STD 91–100.
- C.
The flight line job guide (JG).
- D.
The intermediate maintenance TO.
Correct Answer
B. AFOSH STD 91–100.Explanation
AFOSH STD 91-100 is the correct answer because it is a standard that provides written instructions for safe flight line vehicle operations. AFI 36-2903 is the Air Force Instruction for Dress and Personal Appearance of Air Force Personnel, which is unrelated to flight line vehicle operations. The flight line job guide (JG) and the intermediate maintenance TO (Technical Order) may contain some information relevant to safe operations, but AFOSH STD 91-100 specifically focuses on this topic.Rate this question:
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- 43.
The term trim means to adjust the engine systems for optimum performance per the limits in the technical order (TO). There are two methods used to trim an engine. They are
- A.
Hydraulic and mechanical.
- B.
Hydraulic and electronic.
- C.
Manual and electronic.
- D.
Manual and mechanical.
Correct Answer
C. Manual and electronic.Explanation
The term trim refers to adjusting the engine systems for optimal performance within the limits specified in the technical order (TO). There are two methods used for trim, which are manual and electronic. This means that both manual adjustments and electronic controls are utilized to achieve the desired engine performance.Rate this question:
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- 44.
The pressure gauges used for an oil system pressure checks are connected at the
- A.
Inlet side of the oil pump and the vent system.
- B.
Output side of the main oil pump and the vent system.
- C.
Scavenge pump and the inlet side of oil pressure pump.
- D.
Bearing jets and the output side of the oil scavenge pump.
Correct Answer
B. Output side of the main oil pump and the vent system.Explanation
The correct answer is the output side of the main oil pump and the vent system. This is because the pressure gauges need to be connected at the point where the oil is being pumped out of the main oil pump, as this will give an accurate reading of the pressure in the oil system. Additionally, connecting the gauges at the vent system allows for any excess pressure to be released, ensuring that the system does not become over pressurized.Rate this question:
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- 45.
When checking the turbine section, you do not measure
- A.
Fan turbine inlet temperature (FTIT).
- B.
Turbine inlet temperature (TIT).
- C.
Exhaust gas temperature (EGT).
- D.
Intake gas temperature (IGT).
Correct Answer
D. Intake gas temperature (IGT).Explanation
When checking the turbine section, the intake gas temperature (IGT) is not measured. The turbine section is primarily concerned with the combustion process and the flow of exhaust gases. The fan turbine inlet temperature (FTIT), turbine inlet temperature (TIT), and exhaust gas temperature (EGT) are all important measurements in assessing the performance and efficiency of the turbine section. However, the intake gas temperature (IGT) is not directly relevant to this evaluation.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Which F–16 operational check allows you to start the jet fuel starter (JFS) without advancing the throttle to idle or supplying fuel to the aircraft engine?
- A.
Dry motoring.
- B.
Wet motoring.
- C.
Bleed schedule.
- D.
Interface operational.
Correct Answer
A. Dry motoring.Explanation
Dry motoring is the correct answer because it refers to the operational check that allows you to start the jet fuel starter (JFS) without advancing the throttle to idle or supplying fuel to the aircraft engine. This check is performed to ensure that the JFS is functioning properly and can start the engine without the need for additional fuel or throttle input.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Prior to starting the engine when doing an anti-ice valve operational check on an F–16C/D, place the anti-ice engine switch to
- A.
ON
- B.
OFF
- C.
START
- D.
MANUAL
Correct Answer
B. OFFExplanation
The anti-ice engine switch should be placed in the "OFF" position prior to starting the engine when doing an anti-ice valve operational check on an F-16C/D. This is because the purpose of the operational check is to ensure that the anti-ice valve is functioning properly. By placing the switch in the "OFF" position, it allows for a controlled test of the valve without the anti-ice system being activated.Rate this question:
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- 48.
How many primary air silencers are there on aircraft noise suppressors to help reduce turbine whine?
- A.
2
- B.
4
- C.
6
- D.
8
Correct Answer
A. 2Explanation
There are two primary air silencers on aircraft noise suppressors to help reduce turbine whine.Rate this question:
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- 49.
Where are the primary silencers positioned on an aircraft noise suppressor?
- A.
Near the bleed area.
- B.
To the rear exhaust area.
- C.
Against the aircraft fuselage.
- D.
Forward of the bleed exhaust area.
Correct Answer
C. Against the aircraft fuselage.Explanation
The primary silencers on an aircraft noise suppressor are positioned against the aircraft fuselage. This placement allows them to effectively reduce noise by absorbing and dissipating sound waves as they pass through the fuselage. Placing the silencers against the fuselage also helps to prevent noise leakage and ensures that the majority of the noise is contained within the aircraft.Rate this question:
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- 50.
To how many minutes should engine operation in afterburner be limited when the engine is operated in the aircraft noise suppressor?
- A.
2
- B.
3
- C.
4
- D.
5
Correct Answer
D. 5Explanation
In the aircraft noise suppressor, the engine operation in afterburner should be limited to 5 minutes. This implies that afterburner usage should not exceed this time limit in order to reduce noise levels produced by the engine during operation.Rate this question:
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