2a552 CDC's

125 Questions | Total Attempts: 1058

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2a552 Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    1. (001) What are the Air Force core values?
    • A. 

      Integrity, service before self, and quality

    • B. 

      Integrity, service before self, and excellence

    • C. 

      Honesty, service before self, and professionalism

    • D. 

      Integrity, service to customer, and excellence

  • 2. 
    (001) Careerism and self-interest can do the most damage when displayed by the
    • A. 

      Worker

    • B. 

      Leader.

    • C. 

      Student

    • D. 

      Trainer.

  • 3. 
    (002) When people are taught the right way to do something, they’re also being taught the
    • A. 

      Quickest way.

    • B. 

      Only way.

    • C. 

      Safe way.

    • D. 

      Short cuts to take.

  • 4. 
    As part of the training.
    • A. 

      As part of the training.

    • B. 

      As the same as the training.

    • C. 

      As a separate item from the training.

    • D. 

      Do not treat it as part of the training.

  • 5. 
    (002) If you see people who outrank you walking around with tools in their pockets or using equipment improperly, you should
    • A. 

      Write them a letter of counseling.

    • B. 

      Give them refresher training.

    • C. 

      Do nothing, they out rank you.

    • D. 

      Alert them to the potential hazards.

  • 6. 
    A major cause of accidents is
    • A. 

      Haste.

    • B. 

      Laziness

    • C. 

      Horseplay

    • D. 

      Inexperience.

  • 7. 
    (003) Which item may be worn when performing maintenance on electrical equipment or aircraft electrical systems?
    • A. 

      Rings

    • B. 

      Dog tags.

    • C. 

      Wristwatches.

    • D. 

      Plastic rim glasses.

  • 8. 
    (003) If the load is too heavy or bulky for two people to carry safely, what should you do?
    • A. 

      Attempt to lift it anyway.

    • B. 

      Use a hand truck or forklift.

    • C. 

      Get as many people as you can to help.

    • D. 

      Slide the load across the floor, instead of lifting it.

  • 9. 
    (004) Which symptom is not a sign of fuel vapor inhalation?
    • A. 

      Dizziness.

    • B. 

      Headaches

    • C. 

      Emotional irritability.

    • D. 

      Muscular incoordination.

  • 10. 
    (004) When using compressed air for cleaning, use a diffuser nozzle and make sure the pressure does not exceed how many pounds per square inch (psi)?
    • A. 

      15

    • B. 

      30

    • C. 

      45

    • D. 

      60

  • 11. 
    (004) You use compressed air to clean clothing when
    • A. 

      The air pressure is regulated and a diffuser nozzle is used.

    • B. 

      The air pressure is regulated to 45 pounds per square inch (psi).

    • C. 

      Using air regulated to 30 psi.

    • D. 

      It is not on the body.

  • 12. 
    (004) What are the grounding procedures for hand-operated hydraulic servicing carts during servicing operations?
    • A. 

      Do not need to ground.

    • B. 

      Ramp to hydraulic servicing cart.

    • C. 

      Hydraulic servicing cart to ramp.

    • D. 

      Hydraulic servicing cart to ramp, then cart to aircraft.

  • 13. 
    (005) During engine runup, all unnecessary personnel and equipment will be kept clear at least what distance from the rotary wing aircraft?
    • A. 

      75 feet.

    • B. 

      150 feet.

    • C. 

      A distance equal to its length.

    • D. 

      A distance equal to its rotor disk.

  • 14. 
    (005) Exercise caution when approaching the plane of rotation of the main rotor blades, especially during engine runup and shut down, because the rotor blades tend to
    • A. 

      Flap at increased speeds.

    • B. 

      Flap at decreased speeds.

    • C. 

      Droop at increased speeds.

    • D. 

      Droop at decreased speeds.

  • 15. 
    (005) Radiation hazards vary based on the
    • A. 

      Input power and amount of training.

    • B. 

      Strength of emission and input power.

    • C. 

      Time of exposure and amount of training.

    • D. 

      Strength of emission and time of exposure.

  • 16. 
    (005) What is normally a safe distance to the front and sides of the intake duct when a jet engine is operating?
    • A. 

      5 feet.

    • B. 

      15 feet.

    • C. 

      25 feet.

    • D. 

      50 feet.

  • 17. 
    (006) Which object would cause an aircraft to be considered “explosives-loaded”?
    • A. 

      Flares.

    • B. 

      Survival kit.

    • C. 

      Pyrotechnics rescue kit.

    • D. 

      Fire-extinguisher cartridges.

  • 18. 
    (006) What precaution must be observed before moving an explosives-loaded aircraft into a hangar?
    • A. 

      Install shorting plugs and clips.

    • B. 

      Install mechanical safetying devices.

    • C. 

      Remove all ammunition and explosives.

    • D. 

      Position all fire control switches to SAFE or OFF.

  • 19. 
    (007) The proper positioning of fire extinguishers is determined by
    • A. 

      Distance criteria.

    • B. 

      Maintenance criteria.

    • C. 

      The type of fire extinguisher.

    • D. 

      The availability of fire extinguishers.

  • 20. 
    (007) When possible, from where should you fight a fire?
    • A. 

      Does not matter.

    • B. 

      The upwind side.

    • C. 

      With a side wind.

    • D. 

      The downwind side.

  • 21. 
    (007) A fire occurring in paints, cooking oil, grease, and petroleum products is a class
    • A. 

      A.

    • B. 

      B.

    • C. 

      C.

    • D. 

      D.

  • 22. 
    (007) A fire occurring in electrical equipment is a class
    • A. 

      A.

    • B. 

      B.

    • C. 

      C.

    • D. 

      D.

  • 23. 
    (007) A fire occurring in combustible metals such as magnesium, potassium, zinc sodium, and etc., is a
    • A. 

      A.

    • B. 

      B.

    • C. 

      C.

    • D. 

      D.

  • 24. 
    (008) Which type of auxiliary publication augments directive-type publications issued by higher headquarters?
    • A. 

      Supplement.

    • B. 

      Change sheet.

    • C. 

      Staff summary sheet.

    • D. 

      Operating instruction.

  • 25. 
    (008) Which visual aid gives examples of international aircraft marshaling signals?
    • A. 

      Air Force visual aid (AFVA) 35–2.

    • B. 

      AFVA 60–11.

    • C. 

      AFVA 70–1.

    • D. 

      AFVA 127–101.

  • 26. 
    (008) Which publication contains official and professional information on matters related to defense policies and programs of interest?
    • A. 

      Bulletins.

    • B. 

      Pamphlets.

    • C. 

      Staff digests.

    • D. 

      Supplements.

  • 27. 
    (009) Which type of technical order (TO) files normally are established and maintained by Air Force bases and activities?
    • A. 

      Distribution.

    • B. 

      Expanded.

    • C. 

      Limited.

    • D. 

      Shop.

  • 28. 
    (009) Technical orders (TO) are filed and updated in accordance with
    • A. 

      TO 00–5–1-WA–1, AF Technical Order System.

    • B. 

      TO 00–5–18-WA–1, USAF Technical Order Numbering System.

    • C. 

      TO 00–20–1-WA–1, Aerospace Equipment Maintenance Inspection, Documentation, Policies and Procedures.

    • D. 

      TO 00–20–2-WA–1, Maintenance Data Management.

  • 29. 
    (009) In a general technical order (TO), which part of the number identifies an individual TO?
    • A. 

      First.

    • B. 

      Second.

    • C. 

      Third.

    • D. 

      Fourth.

  • 30. 
    (010) Which technical order (TO) establishes functional-check-flight requirements for the HH– 60G helicopter?
    • A. 

      TO 1H–1(H)G–01.

    • B. 

      TO 1H–1(H)G–17.

    • C. 

      TO 1H–1(H)G–2–1.

    • D. 

      TO 1H–1(H)G–6.

  • 31. 
    (011) Which technical order (TO) gives instructions for time compliance technical orders (TCTO)?
    • A. 

      TO 00–1–2, Technical Order System.

    • B. 

      TO 00–5–15-WA–1, Air Force Time Compliance Technical Order System.

    • C. 

      TO 00–20–1, Aerospace Equipment Maintenance Inspection, Documentation, Policies, and Procedures.

    • D. 

      TO 00–20–5-WA–1, Technical System.

  • 32. 
    (011) An urgent action time compliance technical order (TCTO) must be completed within one to
    • A. 

      5 days.

    • B. 

      10 days.

    • C. 

      15 days.

    • D. 

      20 days.

  • 33. 
    (011) What time compliance technical order (TCTO) is issued for a deficiency that constitutes a hazard through prolonged continued usage?
    • A. 

      Emergency action.

    • B. 

      Immediate action.

    • C. 

      Routine action.

    • D. 

      Urgent action.

  • 34. 
    (011) Which device or publication enables you to accomplish scheduled inspections on aircraft efficiently?
    • A. 

      Checklists.

    • B. 

      Inspection workcards.

    • C. 

      Structural repair manual.

    • D. 

      Inspection sequence charts.

  • 35. 
    (011) How soon should you submit a technical order (TO) deficiency report if you discover an error in the TO that involves flight safety that would result in serious injury?
    • A. 

      Immediately.

    • B. 

      Within 30 days.

    • C. 

      At the next TO revision.

    • D. 

      Within one to five days or before the next flight.

  • 36. 
    (012) Which level of maintenance performs off-equipment maintenance for the direct support of using organizations?
    • A. 

      Phased.

    • B. 

      Sectional.

    • C. 

      Intermediate.

    • D. 

      Organizational.

  • 37. 
    (013) Who uses the Maintenance Information System (MIS) to identify and track Repeat/Recur discrepancy trends, and documents the discrepancies accordingly on Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form/IMT 781A, after an aircraft flight is completed?
    • A. 

      Section noncommissioned officer in charge (NCOIC).

    • B. 

      Dedicated crew chief.

    • C. 

      Maintenance superintendent.

    • D. 

      Aircrew and Maintenance Debrief Section.

  • 38. 
    (014) What must units develop to insure crashed, damaged, or disabled aircraft recovery (CDDAR) coverage after duty hours?
    • A. 

      CDDAR duty roster.

    • B. 

      Emergency recall or mobilization rosters.

    • C. 

      On call beeper program.

    • D. 

      A permanent CDDAR crew that works during non duty hours.

  • 39. 
    (014) Who appoints the crashed, damaged, or disabled aircraft recovery (CDDAR) Team Chief?
    • A. 

      Wing Commander (WG/CC).

    • B. 

      Production Superintendant (pro super).

    • C. 

      Maintenance Group Commander (MXG/CC).

    • D. 

      Flight Chief.

  • 40. 
    (015) During the fix phase of an aircraft inspection, besides performing maintenance found during the look phase, what other maintenance is performed?
    • A. 

      Scheduled inspections.

    • B. 

      Preplanned maintenance.

    • C. 

      Unscheduled maintenance.

    • D. 

      Lubrication of the helicopter.

  • 41. 
    (016) Who establishes the requirements for the development of a 3-level, career development course (CDC), and exportable training courses?
    • A. 

      The career field.

    • B. 

      Wing commanders.

    • C. 

      Training development.

    • D. 

      Numbered Air Force commanders.

  • 42. 
    (017) Which individual or activity determines the inspection method used to inspect aircraft?
    • A. 

      Branch chief.

    • B. 

      Chief of maintenance.

    • C. 

      Inspection team chief.

    • D. 

      Local or major command (MAJCOM).

  • 43. 
    (017) How many authorized inspection concepts are used by the Air Force?
    • A. 

      Two.

    • B. 

      Three.

    • C. 

      Four.

    • D. 

      Five.

  • 44. 
    (018) When an H–60 is scheduled to fly after being idle for 48 hours, what type of inspection should you perform?
    • A. 

      Pre-flight.

    • B. 

      Thru-flight.

    • C. 

      Basic post-flight.

    • D. 

      Hourly post-flight.

  • 45. 
    (018) When an aircraft lands following the last flight of a flying period, what type of inspection should you perform?
    • A. 

      Pre-flight.

    • B. 

      Thru-flight.

    • C. 

      Basic post-flight.

    • D. 

      Hourly post-flight.

  • 46. 
    (018) What type of inspection is performed when a newly assigned aircraft arrives on station?
    • A. 

      Acceptance

    • B. 

      Periodic.

    • C. 

      Pre-flight.

    • D. 

      Special.

  • 47. 
    (019) Which form is the source document for logging flight activity for individuals?
    • A. 

      Air Force (AF) Form 95, Historical Data.

    • B. 

      AF Form 126, Flight Data Document.

    • C. 

      Air Force technical order (AFTO) Form 781, AFORMS (Air Force Operations Resource Management System) Aircrew/Mission Flight Data Document.

    • D. 

      AFTO Form 781F, Aerospace Vehicle Flight Report and Maintenance Document.

  • 48. 
    (019) Which form is used to record aircraft time, engine data, and includes operating times?
    • A. 

      Air Force technical order (AFTO) Form 781, AFORMS (Air Force Operations Resource Management System) Aircrew/Mission Flight Data Document.

    • B. 

      AFTO Form 781A, Maintenance Discrepancy and Work Document.

    • C. 

      AFTO Form 781F, Aerospace Vehicle Flight Report and Maintenance Document.

    • D. 

      AFTO Form 781J, Aerospace Vehicle-Engine (operating time, cycle, and oil added) Flight Document.

  • 49. 
    (019) Who is responsible for maintaining the binder of Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) 781- series forms?
    • A. 

      Crew chief.

    • B. 

      Flight chief.

    • C. 

      Flight engineer.

    • D. 

      Maintenance expediter.

  • 50. 
    (019) The technical orders (TO) that authorize the use of abbreviations for use in Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) 781-series forms are listed in
    • A. 

      TO 00–05–1-WA–1, AF Technical Order System.

    • B. 

      TO 00–10–1, Maintenance Inspection.

    • C. 

      TO 00–15–1, Policies, and Procedures.

    • D. 

      TO 00–20–1-WA–1, Aerospace Equipment Maintenance Inspection, Documentation, Policies, and Procedures.

  • 51. 
    (019) Which symbol represents an unknown condition and a more serious condition may exist?
    • A. 

      Red X.

    • B. 

      Red W.

    • C. 

      Red dash.

    • D. 

      Red diagonal.

  • 52. 
    (020) Which Air Force form is used to show physical presence or absence of aircraft –21 equipment?
    • A. 

      Air Force (AF) Form 126, Transfer/Shipping List.

    • B. 

      Department of Defense (DD) Form 1149, Requisition and Invoice/Shipping Document.

    • C. 

      AF Form 2691, Aircraft/Missile Equipment Property Record.

    • D. 

      AF Form 2721, Property Record.

  • 53. 
    (020) Which Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) form serves as a permanent history of significant actions for an aircraft?
    • A. 

      AFTO Form 95, Significant Historical Data.

    • B. 

      AFTO Form 110, Significant Data.

    • C. 

      AFTO Form 210, Actions.

    • D. 

      AFTO Form 350, Reparable Item Processing Tag.

  • 54. 
    (021) The maintenance data documentation (MDD) system provides a mechanism for
    • A. 

      Calling, saving, and reviewing base-level data.

    • B. 

      Calling, storing, and retrieving base-level data.

    • C. 

      Collecting, saving, and reviewing base-level data.

    • D. 

      Collecting, storing, and retrieving base-level data.

  • 55. 
    (021) Which is not an intended user for maintenance data documentation (MDD) data?
    • A. 

      United States Air Force (USAF) manpower.

    • B. 

      Major commands (MAJCOM).

    • C. 

      The base where the data is collected.

    • D. 

      Worldwide Data Collection Center (WDCC).

  • 56. 
    (022) Individual Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) identification (ID) passwords should be changed whenever compromise is suspected or not more than every
    • A. 

      30 days.

    • B. 

      60 days.

    • C. 

      90 days.

    • D. 

      120 days.

  • 57. 
    (023) Critical items are generally small numbers of items that cause the largest number of
    • A. 

      Mission delays.

    • B. 

      On-time takeoffs.

    • C. 

      Not mission capable supply (NMCS) conditions.

    • D. 

      Partial mission capable supply (PMCS) conditions.

  • 58. 
    (023) Critical items may be designated by the local chief
    • A. 

      Of staff.

    • B. 

      Of supply.

    • C. 

      Enlisted manager.

    • D. 

      Enlisted advisor.

  • 59. 
    (023) Which expendability, recoverability, reparability codes (ERRC) are considered repair asset codes?
    • A. 

      XD only.

    • B. 

      XD and XB.

    • C. 

      XF only.

    • D. 

      XD or XF.

  • 60. 
    (023) Which form is used for internal control of a repair cycle asset item?
    • A. 

      Air Force technical order (AFTO) Form 346, Processing Tag.

    • B. 

      AFTO Form 350, Reparable Item Processing Tag.

    • C. 

      Department of Defense (DD) Form 1348–1, DIFM Notice.

    • D. 

      DD Form 1348–6, Department of Defense (DOD) Single Line Item Requisition System Document.

  • 61. 
    (023) To verify the Daily Document Register (D04), a requesting organization or shop should retain what Air Force (AF) Form
    • A. 

      1150, Turn-in Request.

    • B. 

      1297, Temporary Issue Receipt.

    • C. 

      2005, Issue/Turn-in Request.

    • D. 

      2413, Supply control log.

  • 62. 
    (024) Within how many hours is a submission of a Category I deficiency report required?
    • A. 

      12.

    • B. 

      24.

    • C. 

      36.

    • D. 

      48.

  • 63. 
    (024) What are the three classifications of defects for material and equipment?
    • A. 

      Critical, major, and minor.

    • B. 

      Report, track, and follow-up.

    • C. 

      Initial, routine, emergency.

    • D. 

      Quality, material, and warranty.

  • 64. 
    (024) What preferred method uses Microsoft Access to draft and submit deficiency reports?
    • A. 

      Deficiency Report Entry And Mail Submitter (DREAMS) 1.

    • B. 

      DREAMS II.

    • C. 

      Standard Form 368, Product Quality Deficiency Report, and the DREAMS.

    • D. 

      Deficiency Reporting and Investigative System (DRIS).

  • 65. 
    (025) A commander assures that property is receiving proper care and is being properly safeguarded by
    • A. 

      Inspecting the property on issue.

    • B. 

      Inspecting the property on turn-in.

    • C. 

      Making frequent visits to base activities.

    • D. 

      Obtaining written reports from supervisors.

  • 66. 
    (025) Which type of responsibility is assumed by an individual who has acquired physical possession of government property?
    • A. 

      Command.

    • B. 

      Personal.

    • C. 

      Custodial.

    • D. 

      Supervisory.

  • 67. 
    (026) When using a 12-inch torque wrench handle with a 3-inch extension to torque a flight control bolt to 120 inch-pounds, what is the proper torque setting?
    • A. 

      54 inch-pounds.

    • B. 

      73 inch-pounds.

    • C. 

      96 inch-pounds.

    • D. 

      144 inch-pounds.

  • 68. 
    (026) When setting your torque wrench prior to torquing a self-locking nut for a tail drive shaft clamp, you must figure out the
    • A. 

      Bolt friction torque, and add it to the required torque value.

    • B. 

      Nut friction torque, and add it to the required torque value.

    • C. 

      Bolt friction torque, and subtract it from the torque value.

    • D. 

      Nut friction torque, and subtract it from the torque value.

  • 69. 
    (026) The proper way to store a torque wrench is with the
    • A. 

      Handle at the lowest setting.

    • B. 

      Handle at the highest setting.

    • C. 

      Locking mechanism in the ON position.

    • D. 

      Locking mechanism in the OFF position.

  • 70. 
    (026) The C–8-type tensiometer is capable of measuring cable tension from
    • A. 

      10 to 200 pounds with an accuracy of 80 percent.

    • B. 

      20 to 400 pounds with an accuracy of 80 percent.

    • C. 

      10 to 200 pounds with an accuracy of 95 percent.

    • D. 

      20 to 400 pounds with an accuracy of 95 percent.

  • 71. 
    (026) Which special tool is used to measure the flight control surfaces in degrees of travel?
    • A. 

      Rig pin kit.

    • B. 

      Tensiometer.

    • C. 

      Torque wrench.

    • D. 

      Propeller protractor.

  • 72. 
    (026) What happens when the battery voltage on the digital protractor drops below 7 volts?
    • A. 

      Nothing.

    • B. 

      The liquid crystal display (LCD) blinks.

    • C. 

      The LCD displays “LOW BAT”.

    • D. 

      The protractor automatically shuts down.

  • 73. 
    (027) How many threads must be showing through a self-locking nut for maximum locking effect?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 74. 
    (027) Left-hand threads on a turnbuckle can be identified by the
    • A. 

      Knurl beside the fork.

    • B. 

      Groove by the cable eye.

    • C. 

      Knurl beside the pin eye.

    • D. 

      Groove on the end of the barrel.

  • 75. 
    (027) When securing widely spaced bolts by the double-twist safetying method, how many bolts may be wired in a series?
    • A. 

      3

    • B. 

      4

    • C. 

      5

    • D. 

      6

  • 76. 
    (027) How many turns per inch are allowed on .020 gauge safety wire?
    • A. 

      9–12.

    • B. 

      7–12.

    • C. 

      7–10.

    • D. 

      12–20.

  • 77. 
    (028) What is the purpose of Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 245, Industrial/Support Equipment Record (Continuous Sheet)?
    • A. 

      Documents off-equipment maintenance.

    • B. 

      A continuance sheet for AFTO Form 244, Industrial/Support Equipment Record.

    • C. 

      The support equipment training document.

    • D. 

      The inspection checklist for support equipment.

  • 78. 
    (028) What Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) roster shows a documented record of your certified powered support equipment qualifications?
    • A. 

      Training roster.

    • B. 

      Proficiency roster.

    • C. 

      Qualification roster.

    • D. 

      Special certification roster.

  • 79. 
    (029) On a piece of powered support equipment that is operationally ready, but not required for use, a service inspection should be accomplished every
    • A. 

      Day.

    • B. 

      7 days.

    • C. 

      15 days.

    • D. 

      30 days.

  • 80. 
    (030) Which optional feature can be installed on the –86 to provide 28.5 volts direct current (VDC)?
    • A. 

      Inverter.

    • B. 

      Converter.

    • C. 

      Regulator.

    • D. 

      Transformer rectifier.

  • 81. 
    (030) On the –86 generator control panel, the indication of a clogged air filter is a
    • A. 

      Red air service indicator flag.

    • B. 

      Red air service indicator light.

    • C. 

      Yellow air service indicator flag.

    • D. 

      Yellow air service indicator light.

  • 82. 
    (031) What is another name for engine wash cart?
    • A. 

      Hobart.

    • B. 

      Soap/water cart.

    • C. 

      Spray unit cart.

    • D. 

      Corrosion control cart.

  • 83. 
    (031) On the engine wash cart, the mixer assembly produces a water to soap ratio of
    • A. 

      1:2.

    • B. 

      1:4.

    • C. 

      2:1.

    • D. 

      4:1.

  • 84. 
    (032) When you start the first hydraulic high-pressure pump motor on the A/M27T–2A hydraulic test stand, approximately how many seconds must you wait before you proceed to the next system so that the motor can go into the “run” configuration?
    • A. 

      3–4.

    • B. 

      5–10.

    • C. 

      13–18.

    • D. 

      20–30.

  • 85. 
    (032) With the motor running on the A/M27T–2A hydraulic test stand, which valve should you press to relieve any air that was trapped in the system from the fill and bleed operation?
    • A. 

      Fill.

    • B. 

      Bleed.

    • C. 

      Relief.

    • D. 

      Air pressure.

  • 86. 
    (033) What is the maximum output of the MC–2A air compressor?
    • A. 

      200 pounds per square inch (psi).

    • B. 

      500 psi.

    • C. 

      1,500 psi.

    • D. 

      2,000 psi.

  • 87. 
    (034) Up to how many feet can the MA–3 ground air conditioner unit be self-propelled using battery power?
    • A. 

      50

    • B. 

      100

    • C. 

      200

    • D. 

      250

  • 88. 
    (035) What must be replaced on the nitrogen cart after dehydrating 16 cylinders of gas?
    • A. 

      Air filter.

    • B. 

      Safety valve.

    • C. 

      Pressure gage.

    • D. 

      Purifier cartridge.

  • 89. 
    (035) What is the purpose of the cellophane wrap on the separation membranes on the Self Generating Nitrogen Servicing Cart (SGNSC)?
    • A. 

      Packing material that must be removed.

    • B. 

      Packing material that must not be removed.

    • C. 

      Necessary for proper function and nitrogen production.

    • D. 

      Necessary for proper function and not used for nitrogen production.

  • 90. 
    (035) The hydraulic relief valves on the hydraulic filler and pressurization unit are set at what maximum and minimum levels to relieve the low and high pressure systems from excessive pressure?
    • A. 

      50 pounds per square inch (psi) (low); 1,500 psi (high).

    • B. 

      100 psi (low); 2,500 psi (high).

    • C. 

      100 psi (low); 3,300 psi (high).

    • D. 

      500 psi (low; 3,500 psi (high).

  • 91. 
    • A. 

      5.

    • B. 

      10.

    • C. 

      15.

    • D. 

      20.

  • 92. 
    (036) What is the maximum weight, in pounds, allowed on the B–5 maintenance stand?
    • A. 

      400.

    • B. 

      600.

    • C. 

      800.

    • D. 

      1,200.

  • 93. 
    (036) What is the maximum height, in feet, of the B–7 stand?
    • A. 

      7.

    • B. 

      10.

    • C. 

      16.

    • D. 

      20.

  • 94. 
    (037) Prior to lowering jacks and helicopter, you must check
    • A. 

      And remove all obstructions.

    • B. 

      Electrical power switches.

    • C. 

      Fluid level in jacks.

    • D. 

      Wind velocity.

  • 95. 
    (037) What is the maximum lifting capacity, in pounds, of the J–1 hoist?
    • A. 

      2,000.

    • B. 

      3,000

    • C. 

      4,000.

    • D. 

      5,000.

  • 96. 
    (038) The usual way of counteracting torque in a single-rotor helicopter is to
    • A. 

      Use an anti-torque main rotor.

    • B. 

      Use an anti-torque tail rotor.

    • C. 

      Increase the collective.

    • D. 

      Increase the pitch.

  • 97. 
    (039) A pilot would use autorotation
    • A. 

      To ensure a smooth landing in windy weather.

    • B. 

      To counteract ground resonance during landing.

    • C. 

      During an emergency landing with an engine failure.

    • D. 

      During emergency in-flight operation of the tail rotor.

  • 98. 
    (039) To correct for the dissymmetry of lift, the helicopter uses
    • A. 

      A tail rotor.

    • B. 

      A flapping hinge.

    • C. 

      Trim tabs on the tail rotor.

    • D. 

      Decreasing gyroscopic precession.

  • 99. 
    (039) Which helicopter flight characteristic usually develops during takeoff or landing and when the helicopter/tiltrotor is 87 to 95 percent airborne?
    • A. 

      Auto rotation.

    • B. 

      Ground resonance.

    • C. 

      Dissymmetry of lift.

    • D. 

      Gyroscopic precession.

  • 100. 
    (039) What is incorporated into the cyclic system to prevent gyroscopic precession?
    • A. 

      Dampers.

    • B. 

      Offset linkage.

    • C. 

      Flapping hinge.

    • D. 

      Horizontal stabilizers.

  • 101. 
    (040) Which aircraft design allows for stronger and lighter structure?
    • A. 

      Truss.

    • B. 

      Modified truss.

    • C. 

      Modified truss.

    • D. 

      Semi-monocoque.

  • 102. 
    (041) An aircraft weight and balance update is required
    • A. 

      Monthly.

    • B. 

      Semiannually.

    • C. 

      When a component weighing five pounds or more is removed or installed.

    • D. 

      When a component weighing ten pounds or more is removed or installed.

  • 103. 
    (042) The fuel servicing point is identified by a black
    • A. 

      Circle.

    • B. 

      Square.

    • C. 

      Diamond.

    • D. 

      Four-pointed star.

  • 104. 
    (043) What form of corrosion occurs from the combined effects of abrasion and wear and corrosion at the interface of two contacting surfaces?
    • A. 

      Intergranular.

    • B. 

      Exfoliation.

    • C. 

      Fretting.

    • D. 

      Pitting.

  • 105. 
    (044) Which of these is not part of corrosion prevention?
    • A. 

      Cleaning.

    • B. 

      Painting.

    • C. 

      Removing rust.

    • D. 

      Inspecting and early detection.

  • 106. 
    (045) You should not clean exterior plastic surfaces with
    • A. 

      Cheesecloth.

    • B. 

      Flannel cloth.

    • C. 

      Soft cotton cloth.

    • D. 

      Diaper type cloth.

  • 107. 
    (045) What method of cleaning aircraft can damage/deteriorate sealants, paint coatings, elastomers; disbond adhesives, and craze plastics?
    • A. 

      Portable spray pump.

    • B. 

      Universal wash unit.

    • C. 

      Steam cleaning.

    • D. 

      Hand washing.

  • 108. 
    (045) When washing the engines and the outside air temperature is between 5 degrees Fahrenheit (°F) and 40°F, what should the percentage ratio mix of methanol or isopropyl alcohol in the water solution be?
    • A. 

      60% water and 40% methanol or isopropyl alcohol.

    • B. 

      50% water and 50% methanol or isopropyl alcohol.

    • C. 

      25% water and 75% methanol or isopropyl alcohol.

    • D. 

      20% water and 80% methanol or isopropyl alcohol.

  • 109. 
    (046) Lubrication charts showing what type of lubricant to use on aircraft components can be found in
    • A. 

      Technical order (TO) 35D–1–2.

    • B. 

      Technical order (TO) 42B–1–7.

    • C. 

      The applicable –6 aircraft technical order (TO).

    • D. 

      The applicable –2–1 aircraft technical order (TO) or interactive electronic technical manual (IETM) for the CV–22.

  • 110. 
    (046) Lubrications that are stored in containers larger than 1 quart must first be
    • A. 

      Shelf-inspected before use.

    • B. 

      Properly sealed after use.

    • C. 

      Discarded after use.

    • D. 

      Filtered before use.

  • 111. 
    (047) All of the following are publications that apply to aircraft towing except
    • A. 

      –2–1 Checklist for the aircraft being towed.

    • B. 

      Air Force instruction (AFI) 11–218, Aircraft Operations and Movement on the Ground.

    • C. 

      AFI 21–101, Aircraft and Equipment Maintenance Management.

    • D. 

      Air Force occupational safety and health (AFOSH) Standard 91–100, Aircraft Flightline— Ground Operations and Activities.

  • 112. 
    (047) What is the minimum number of tow crewmembers necessary for a normal towing operation?
    • A. 

      Two.

    • B. 

      Three.

    • C. 

      Four.

    • D. 

      Five.

  • 113. 
    (047) To lessen the danger of a tripod jack pivoting while it supports helicopter, you should
    • A. 

      Attach ropes to the helicopter and jack.

    • B. 

      Attach ropes to the helicopter and the ground only.

    • C. 

      Make sure two legs of the tripod jack are parallel to the fuselage centerline.

    • D. 

      Make sure two legs of the tripod jack are perpendicular to the fuselage

  • 114. 
    (048) Who should remove the safety devices on live ammunition prior to launching an aircraft?
    • A. 

      Qualified weapons personnel.

    • B. 

      Production supervisor.

    • C. 

      Air crewmembers.

    • D. 

      Flight chiefs.

  • 115. 
    (048) What is the proper sequence to ground an aircraft after flight?
    • A. 

      Ground to aircraft.

    • B. 

      Aircraft to ground.

    • C. 

      Ground you, then aircraft.

    • D. 

      Earth to you, aircraft to ground.

  • 116. 
    Pertaining to navy shipboard personnel, what color jersey does a safety officer wear?
    • A. 

      Blue

    • B. 

      White.

    • C. 

      Brown.

    • D. 

      Yellow

  • 117. 
    (050) When refueling, what is the minimum safe distance between aircraft?
    • A. 

      20 feet.

    • B. 

      30 feet.

    • C. 

      40 feet.

    • D. 

      50 feet.

  • 118. 
    (051) Before you move the aircraft into a fuel cell, you must first
    • A. 

      Purge and dry the tanks.

    • B. 

      Remove all fire bottle squibs.

    • C. 

      Ensure all tanks are full, except the faulty one.

    • D. 

      Ground the fuel tank to the helicopter structure.

  • 119. 
    (052) To stay in constant contact with the aircrew during ground operations, you should
    • A. 

      Use hand signals.

    • B. 

      Use the aircraft intercom system.

    • C. 

      Maintain radio contact with the control tower.

    • D. 

      Maintain radio contact with maintenance control.

  • 120. 
    (053) Which troubleshooting aid is designed to promote understanding of the system?
    • A. 

      Zones.

    • B. 

      Schematic.

    • C. 

      Wiring diagram.

    • D. 

      Reference designation index.

  • 121. 
    (201) How are engine nacelles on the CV–22 Osprey positioned so it can be controlled as a conventional fixed wing aircraft?
    • A. 

      Horizontally.

    • B. 

      Vertically

    • C. 

      Forward.

    • D. 

      Aft.

  • 122. 
    (201) The component that can be rotated 90° to facilitate towing, parking, and jacking in a reduced space environment is the
    • A. 

      Twin vertical stabilizers.

    • B. 

      Turret mounted wing.

    • C. 

      Proprotors blades.

    • D. 

      Nacelles.

  • 123. 
    (201) What role system kit provides a means for rapidly inserting personnel into areas in which the aircraft is unable to land?
    • A. 

      FAST ROPE.

    • B. 

      ASCENSION.

    • C. 

      RAPPELLING.

    • D. 

      RAPID DEPLOYMENT.

  • 124. 
    (202) The three fuselage interface/splice areas within the four structural systems are the
    • A. 

      Mid-to-forward fuselage; aft-to-mid fuselage, and empennage-to-aft fuselage.

    • B. 

      Forward-to-mid fuselage; aft-to-mid fuselage, and aft fuselage-to-empennage.

    • C. 

      Forward-to-mid fuselage; mid-to-aft fuselage, and empennage-to-aft fuselage.

    • D. 

      Forward-to-mid fuselage; mid-to-aft fuselage, and aft fuselage-to-empennage.

  • 125. 
    (202) The E3s that the exterior access panels are designed to protect the aircraft from are
    • A. 

      EMI.

    • B. 

      HPMR.

    • C. 

      NEMP.

    • D. 

      All of the above.