2a051p Volume 1

95 Questions | Total Attempts: 35

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Volume Quizzes & Trivia

Must score 90% three times to proceed with interview process.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Your duty in maintenance is to ensure:
    • A. 

      Wing maintenance meets quality assurance standards.

    • B. 

      Assigned aircraft and equipment meet mission needs.

    • C. 

      You take appropriate shortcuts to expedite repair time

    • D. 

      Aircraft repair is contracted to the appropriate agency.

  • 2. 
    Which level of maintenance is performed directly on aerospace vehicles or support equipment at the flight line level?
    • A. 

      Depot

    • B. 

      Intermediate

    • C. 

      Organizational

    • D. 

      Developmental

  • 3. 
    Who is responsible for managing the wing's quality assurance programs?
    • A. 

      Avionics flight chief

    • B. 

      Quality assurance section chief

    • C. 

      MXG commander

    • D. 

      AMXS Commander

  • 4. 
    Quality maintenance is the responsibility of maintenance technicians, supervisors, and commanders who work in concert with:
    • A. 

      Maintenance training

    • B. 

      Quality assurance

    • C. 

      Resources

    • D. 

      Egress

  • 5. 
    Which UJC is used to order a part for a piece of AGE?
    • A. 

      AA

    • B. 

      AG

    • C. 

      AR

    • D. 

      AZ

  • 6. 
    What does the mark-for field on the AF Form 2005 identify?
    • A. 

      End item

    • B. 

      One-time requests

    • C. 

      Major command (MAJCOM)

    • D. 

      SRD Code

  • 7. 
    The responsibility for preparing a draft DR rests with the:
    • A. 

      Single manager

    • B. 

      Originator

    • C. 

      Personnel in the support point

    • D. 

      Personnel in QA

  • 8. 
    Processing of a warranty action is at the discretion of the:
    • A. 

      Element chief

    • B. 

      Squadron commander

    • C. 

      Personnel in the local contracting office

    • D. 

      Personnel in the local QA office

  • 9. 
    Which inspection is designed to reduce the time an A/C is out of commision for any given inspection?
    • A. 

      Major

    • B. 

      Phase

    • C. 

      Preflight

    • D. 

      Hourly postflight

  • 10. 
    Acceptance inspections are performed when:
    • A. 

      Equpiment is being transferred

    • B. 

      Newly acquired equipment arrives

    • C. 

      It is stated in the applicable technical order

    • D. 

      90 days have passed since the last phased inspection

  • 11. 
    The program depot maintenance inspection concept applies to
    • A. 

      Transport A/C

    • B. 

      Strategic A/C

    • C. 

      Tactical A/C

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 12. 
    Which statement is not true concerning lubrication of your test stations?
    • A. 

      Prevents failure due to wear

    • B. 

      Prevents the accumulation of dust and dirt

    • C. 

      Reduces the friction between 2 sliding surfaces

    • D. 

      Is done less frequently than cleaning and corrosion control

  • 13. 
    The instructions for processing warranty items are contained in TO:
    • A. 

      00-42B-5-2

    • B. 

      00-35D-54

    • C. 

      00-25-234

    • D. 

      00-20-7

  • 14. 
    What is created when a requirement is placed on supply and insufficient assets are on hand to satisfy the request?
    • A. 

      Memo

    • B. 

      Due-in

    • C. 

      Due-out

    • D. 

      Due-out release

  • 15. 
    Which flight is part of a maintenance squadron?
    • A. 

      Test, measurement, and diagnostic equipment

    • B. 

      Maintenance operations and programs

    • C. 

      Quality assurance

    • D. 

      Resources

  • 16. 
    Who is responsible to the squadron commander for maintenance production?
    • A. 

      MXG Commander

    • B. 

      Maintenance flight chief

    • C. 

      Maintenance supervisor

    • D. 

      Avionics flight chief

  • 17. 
    Depot-level maintenance is performed when equipment:
    • A. 

      Is under warranty

    • B. 

      Is assigned to transient a/c

    • C. 

      Is deployed to a remote location

    • D. 

      Cannot be repaired at the other levels

  • 18. 
    What are two basic types of maintenance?
    • A. 

      Back shop and flight line

    • B. 

      Scheduled and unscheduled

    • C. 

      On-equipment and off-equipment

    • D. 

      Depot-level and intermediate level

  • 19. 
    When you are performing maintenance , you must place emphasis on which factor(s)?
    • A. 

      Quality and thorough documentation

    • B. 

      Expedience and cost efficiency

    • C. 

      Safety, quality, and timeliness

    • D. 

      Safety only

  • 20. 
    Which level of maintenance involves repairing or replacing component parts in the back shop?
    • A. 

      Depot

    • B. 

      Intermediate

    • C. 

      Organizational

    • D. 

      Developmental

  • 21. 
    The first-line manager and supervisor of maintenance porduction is the
    • A. 

      Section chief

    • B. 

      Flight commander

    • C. 

      Squadron commander

    • D. 

      Maintenance superintendent

  • 22. 
    What AFMAN prescribes policies and procedures for AF participation in the DOD Precious Metals Recovery Program?
    • A. 

      24-206

    • B. 

      24-202

    • C. 

      23-161

    • D. 

      23-110

  • 23. 
    Which inspection is a combination of the hourly postflight and/or basic postflight inspections and periodic inspection requirements?
    • A. 

      Minor

    • B. 

      Major

    • C. 

      Phase

    • D. 

      Periodic

  • 24. 
    (010) The two best ways to prevent corrosion in a test station or LRU are a. cleaning and scouring. b. painting and cleaning. c. painting and lubricating. d. cleaning and lubricating.
    • A. 

      Cleaning and scouring

    • B. 

      Painting and cleaning

    • C. 

      Painting and lubricating

    • D. 

      Cleaning and lubricating

  • 25. 
    Which inspection is performed before resuming flying activity after the aircraft has been inactive for a specified period of time?
    • A. 

      Phased

    • B. 

      Preflight

    • C. 

      End-of-runway

    • D. 

      Basic post flight

  • 26. 
    The primary focus of the maintenance effort should be
    • A. 

      Corrective maintenance

    • B. 

      Preventive maintenance

    • C. 

      Maximum sorties flown

    • D. 

      Thorough documentation

  • 27. 
    Depot- level maintenance is performed when equipment
    • A. 

      Is under warranty

    • B. 

      Is assigned to transient aircraft

    • C. 

      Is deployed to a remote location

    • D. 

      Cannot be repaired at the other levels

  • 28. 
    Who is responsible for ensuring compliance with the wing environmental protection agency program?
    • A. 

      Wing commander

    • B. 

      Squadron commander

    • C. 

      Propulsion flight chief

    • D. 

      Maintenance superintendent

  • 29. 
    Who is responsible to the maintenance supervisor for the leadership, supervision, and training of assigne personnel?
    • A. 

      Shift leader

    • B. 

      Section chief

    • C. 

      Flight commander/chief

    • D. 

      Maintenance superintendant

  • 30. 
    Although supply customers may cancel an obligated memo due out at any time, when is the customer not granted credit for the quantity canceled?
    • A. 

      When the due out is under due-in from maintenance (DIFM) control and part of the quantity is needed.

    • B. 

      When the due-out is under DIFM control and the entire quantity is no longer neeeded

    • C. 

      If the due out had an expend-ability, recoverability, repairability code (ERRC) of XF.

    • D. 

      If the due-out was obligated in a prior fiscal year (FY)

  • 31. 
    Which inspection includes a review of the forms for current status, a visual inspection of the equipment for defects, and adequate servicing?
    • A. 

      Special

    • B. 

      Operator

    • C. 

      Acceptance

    • D. 

      Periodic and scheduled lubrication

  • 32. 
    Air force policy directives are orders of the..
    • A. 

      Commander in chief

    • B. 

      Squadron commander

    • C. 

      Joint services committee

    • D. 

      Secretary of the air force

  • 33. 
    Which type of publication is used by a unit to standardize local maintenance or safety procedures when they are not specified in an air force instruction supplement?
    • A. 

      Dfaf

    • B. 

      Adfaf

    • C. 

      Afdf

    • D. 

      Adfafd

  • 34. 
    Which is a publication of compiled information, arranged in a systematic order?
    • A. 

      Pamphlet

    • B. 

      Directory

    • C. 

      Handbook

    • D. 

      Visual aid

  • 35. 
    What type of publication is a graphical illustration that may be permanent or temporary?
    • A. 

      Bulletin

    • B. 

      Pamphlet

    • C. 

      Visual aid

    • D. 

      Recurring publication

  • 36. 
    Which type of technical order (TO) is an excerpt from one or more basic TOs, and organizes or simplifies instructions?
    • A. 

      Index

    • B. 

      General

    • C. 

      Abbreviated

    • D. 

      Time compliance

  • 37. 
    What type of technical order update is issued when only small parts of the TO are affected?
    • A. 

      Change

    • B. 

      Revision

    • C. 

      Rescission

    • D. 

      Supplement

  • 38. 
    Which type of technical order supplement is printed on green paper and printed only on one side?
    • A. 

      Safety

    • B. 

      Interim

    • C. 

      TO page

    • D. 

      Time compliance

  • 39. 
    What type of technical order update is issued when changed material affects more than 80 percent of the text?
    • A. 

      Change

    • B. 

      Revision

    • C. 

      Rescission

    • D. 

      Supplement

  • 40. 
    What identifier at the beginning of a TO number indicates that it is a methods and procedures technical order?
    • A. 

      00

    • B. 

      0A

    • C. 

      A0

    • D. 

      AA

  • 41. 
    What type of time compliance (TCTO) is used to correct conditions that could result in a fatal or serious injury to personnel, or extensive damage or destruction to valuable property?
    • A. 

      Immediate action

    • B. 

      Routine action

    • C. 

      Interim action

    • D. 

      Urgent action

  • 42. 
    In addition to printing the words "immediate action" in red, how is an immediate action time compliance technical order (TCTO) identified on the first page?
    • A. 

      Red diagonals (/) at only the top and bottum of the page

    • B. 

      Red diagonals (/) around the entire border of the page

    • C. 

      Red Xs at only the top and bottum of the page

    • D. 

      Red Xs around the entire border of the page

  • 43. 
    In addition to printing the words "urgent action" in red, what is used to identify an urgent action time compliance technical order (TCTO) on the first page?
    • A. 

      Red Xs only

    • B. 

      Red diagonals only

    • C. 

      Red Xs alternately spaced with red diagonals

    • D. 

      Red Xs alternately spaced with circled red Xs

  • 44. 
    An AF form 614, charge out record, used to
    • A. 

      Report a technical order (TO) deficiency

    • B. 

      Sign out tools from a consolidated tool kit

    • C. 

      Account for classified items at the end of the shift

    • D. 

      Remove a TO from its storage location

  • 45. 
    In what part of a technical order (TO) do you find warnings and cautions defined?
    • A. 

      Glossary

    • B. 

      Safety matrix

    • C. 

      Safety summary

    • D. 

      Table of contents

  • 46. 
    Which column in an illustrated parts breakdown table indicates how many of each part are needed to completely put a section together?
    • A. 

      Description

    • B. 

      Part number

    • C. 

      Units per assembly

    • D. 

      Figure and index number

  • 47. 
    What must you do if you discover a condition requiring a technical order (TO) change?
    • A. 

      Notify your section chief

    • B. 

      Condemn the existing TO

    • C. 

      Submit a recommended change

    • D. 

      File a report with the quality assurance branch

  • 48. 
    The responsibility to ensure your recommended change is valid and warrants submittal rests with you
    • A. 

      Supervisor

    • B. 

      Commander

    • C. 

      Section chief

    • D. 

      Quality assurance inspector

  • 49. 
    Technical order (TO) deficiencies such as word omissions and typographical errors that do not cause any misinterpretation that would affect mission accomplishment may be submitted as
    • A. 

      A minor correction

    • B. 

      A routine recommendation

    • C. 

      An urgent recommendation

    • D. 

      An emergency recommmendation

  • 50. 
    Which statement is true concerning all AF computer software?
    • A. 

      It is managed as automatic test equipment

    • B. 

      It is designated and managed as computer program configuration items (CPCI)

    • C. 

      Software computer program identification number (CPIN) compendiums are revised twice yearly

    • D. 

      Numerical index and requirments tables provide the consolidated index of USAF embedded computer system software whithin each major command.

  • 51. 
    How many major types of computer manuals are there
    • A. 

      Two

    • B. 

      Three

    • C. 

      Four

    • D. 

      Five

  • 52. 
    Which publication is consolidated index of embedded computer system  (ECS) software within the Air Force?
    • A. 

      Computer program identification (CPIN) compendium

    • B. 

      Command and control systems

    • C. 

      Computer reference manual

    • D. 

      Technical order index

  • 53. 
    The computer program indetification number (CPIN) compendium 80-0-2 cross references CPINS and
    • A. 

      Stock numbers

    • B. 

      Technical orders

    • C. 

      Commercial manuals

    • D. 

      Equipment part numbers

  • 54. 
    Which CPIN field identifies the category and major function of the system or subsystem that the computer program configuration item (CPCI) was designed to operate, test, or support?
    • A. 

      First

    • B. 

      Second

    • C. 

      Third

    • D. 

      Fourth

  • 55. 
    What information does the third field position of a CPIN compendium number indicate?
    • A. 

      Major system and subsystem

    • B. 

      Revision, baseline, and version

    • C. 

      Type of software and sequence number

    • D. 

      Supplemental information to use with program

  • 56. 
    CPIN compendium entries that appear with the word PENDING (instead of a date) indicate that
    • A. 

      New software is under development

    • B. 

      Baseline software has been replaced by a revision

    • C. 

      New software has been completed and is awaiting CPIN assignment

    • D. 

      Baseline software has been revised and is awaiting CPIN assignment

  • 57. 
    Alpha code B in a computer program identification number (CPIN) compendium indicates what level of test software?
    • A. 

      Base

    • B. 

      Field

    • C. 

      Depot

    • D. 

      Intermediate

  • 58. 
    The major functions of the maintenance data documentation (MDD) system are
    • A. 

      Collection and analysis of maintenance information

    • B. 

      Collection and retrieval of maintenance information

    • C. 

      Collection, storage, and analysis of maintenance information

    • D. 

      Collection, storage, and retrieval of maintenance information

  • 59. 
    What technical order governs the maintenance data documentation (MDD) process divides the documentation of the production data into how many categories?
    • A. 

      Two

    • B. 

      Three

    • C. 

      Four

    • D. 

      Five

  • 60. 
    MDD process divides the documentation of production data into how many categories?
    • A. 

      Two

    • B. 

      Three

    • C. 

      Four

    • D. 

      Five

  • 61. 
    Which MDD code provides a means to tie together all maintenance actions taken relating to specific job?
    • A. 

      Identification number

    • B. 

      Job control number

    • C. 

      Maintenance code

    • D. 

      Work unit code

  • 62. 
    Which five-character MDD code is used to identify the sytem or subsystem that requires maintenance?
    • A. 

      Identification number

    • B. 

      Job control number

    • C. 

      Maintenance code

    • D. 

      Work unit code

  • 63. 
    What form is used to document maintenance data documentation (MDD) information for the units that do not have access to IMDS?
    • A. 

      95

    • B. 

      244

    • C. 

      349

    • D. 

      350

  • 64. 
    What AFTO form is used to provide an interface between on and off equipment documentation?
    • A. 

      95

    • B. 

      244

    • C. 

      349

    • D. 

      350

  • 65. 
    What equipment status symbol indicates that an operational check is due?
    • A. 

      X

    • B. 

      Dash

    • C. 

      Diagonal slash

    • D. 

      X in a circle

  • 66. 
    The equipment status symbol used to indicate that a scheduled inspection is overdue is the red...
    • A. 

      X

    • B. 

      Dash

    • C. 

      Diagonal slash

    • D. 

      X in a circle

  • 67. 
    The four basic integrated maintenance data system (IMDS) subsystems commonly used by shop personnel are..
    • A. 

      Data collection, maintenance events, inquires, and automated test equipment reporting system (ATERS)

    • B. 

      Time compliance technical orders (TCTO), personnel, training, and inquiries.

    • C. 

      Data collection, maintenance events, personnel, and ATERS

    • D. 

      Maintenance events, hours, personnel, and training

  • 68. 
    Which IMDS subsystem provides management products to aid the user in forecasting inspection requirments?
    • A. 

      Inquiries

    • B. 

      Data collection

    • C. 

      Maintenance events

    • D. 

      Automated test equipment reporting system

  • 69. 
    Long term difficulties (i.e., supply shortages, ineffective contracts, and insufficient inventories) are the result of...
    • A. 

      Unsafe maintenance practices

    • B. 

      Poor maintenance supervisors

    • C. 

      Lack of operations and maintenance funds

    • D. 

      Bad information provided to the IMDS system

  • 70. 
    Which type of maintenance is unpredictable, but requires prompt attention?
    • A. 

      Deferred

    • B. 

      Scheduled

    • C. 

      Indirect labor

    • D. 

      Unscheduled

  • 71. 
    Which type pf maintenance is predictable and planned on a long or short term schedule?
    • A. 

      Deferred

    • B. 

      Scheduled

    • C. 

      Indirect labor

    • D. 

      Unscheduled

  • 72. 
    Which IMDS screen might your production supervisor use at the beginning of a shift to assign jobs to personnel?
    • A. 

      Screen 54, event maintenance

    • B. 

      Screen 122, maintenance snapshot inquiry

    • C. 

      Screen 380, documented maintenance inquiry

    • D. 

      Screen 907, job data documentation utilities

  • 73. 
    Which IMDS screen is used to conduct online inquiry requests dealing with JDD?
    • A. 

      Screen 53

    • B. 

      Screen 099

    • C. 

      Screen 380

    • D. 

      Screen 907

  • 74. 
    What AF Form is used to document safety, fire protection, and health traing unless otherwise specified?
    • A. 

      22

    • B. 

      55

    • C. 

      988

    • D. 

      1000

  • 75. 
    The Air Force Occupation and Environmental Safety, Fire Protection, and Health (AFOSH) Standard (STD) that covers controlling of exposure to airborne chemical concentrations nearly all Air Force personnel may be exposed to throughout their careers is
    • A. 

      48-8

    • B. 

      48-9

    • C. 

      48-10

    • D. 

      48-139

  • 76. 
    The Laser Radiation Protection Program is covered by Air Force Occupation and Environmental Safety, Fire Protection, and Health (AFOSH) Standard (STD)
    • A. 

      48-8

    • B. 

      48-9

    • C. 

      48-10

    • D. 

      48-139

  • 77. 
    While using power tools, what safey guidline should you follow to ensure maximum benefits from the tools and to reduce the chances of seriouw injury?
    • A. 

      Minimize light in the work area to reduce glare

    • B. 

      Inspect all portable power tools before using them

    • C. 

      Clear jammed power tool without disconnecting it from the power source

    • D. 

      Use damaged power cord only when necessary to accomplish the mission

  • 78. 
    What is the recommended color coding for an electrical safety board?
    • A. 

      Dark green background with white letters and border

    • B. 

      White background with dark green letters and border

    • C. 

      Dark green background with red letters and border

    • D. 

      White background with red letters and border

  • 79. 
    what should you do with a compressed gas cylinder containing 25 pounds per square inch (psi) or less?
    • A. 

      Mark the cylinder with the letters "MT", close the valve, and secure the protective cap

    • B. 

      Place an unserviceable tag on the cylinder and move it away from the other cylinders

    • C. 

      Open the valve and secure the cylinder valve protective cap

    • D. 

      Open the valve and move it away from the other cylinders

  • 80. 
    As part of the RFR safety program, who must ensure required warning signs and safety devices are in place and functional prior to beginning work?
    • A. 

      Individual

    • B. 

      Supervisor

    • C. 

      Squadron safety officer

    • D. 

      Bioenvironmental engineer (BEE)

  • 81. 
    The purpose of hearing protection is to reduce "at the ear" noise exposure to less than..
    • A. 

      80 (dB)

    • B. 

      85 dB

    • C. 

      90 dB

    • D. 

      95 dB

  • 82. 
    When extremely high noise levels are present and earmuffs do not reduce the noise to an acceptable level, you should use
    • A. 

      Custom molded earplugs

    • B. 

      Earmuffs and earplugs

    • C. 

      Two pairs of earplugs

    • D. 

      Premolded earplugs

  • 83. 
    What is a responsibility of the radiation safety officer (RSO)?
    • A. 

      Get a permit authorizing the materials

    • B. 

      Adhere to the as low as reasonably possible principle

    • C. 

      Set up a program to ensure all personnel that may come in contact with radioactive materials get training

    • D. 

      Check the receipt, storage, distribution, use, transfer, and disposal of radioactive materials for compliance with approved rules.

  • 84. 
    Lever operated hoists must only be used in
    • A. 

      A direct pull

    • B. 

      An indirect pull

    • C. 

      A dead-end point

    • D. 

      A no-load condition

  • 85. 
    When may the rated load of a hoist be exceeded?
    • A. 

      Never

    • B. 

      No more than once a month

    • C. 

      During authorized proof tests

    • D. 

      When maintenance requirements dictate

  • 86. 
    What is the basis for lazard hazard classification?
    • A. 

      The possibility of eye and skin exposure to hazardous levels of laser radiation associated with the operation of laser devices during maintenance.

    • B. 

      The ability of the primary laser beam or reflected primary laser beam to cause biological damage to the eye or skin during intended use

    • C. 

      The minimum laser radiation required to cause biological damage to eye or skin during operation and maintenance.

    • D. 

      The classification relates specifically to hazardous laser radiation and to associated hazards during maintenance

  • 87. 
    All laser protective eye wear must be cleary labeled with the
    • A. 

      Optical density and laser class for which protection is provided

    • B. 

      Ocular exposure and laser class for which protection is provided

    • C. 

      Optical density and wavelength for which protection is provided

    • D. 

      Ocular exposure and wavelength for which protection is provided

  • 88. 
    Who is your primary point of contact when you have security questions  or require guidance?
    • A. 

      Supervisor

    • B. 

      Commander

    • C. 

      Security manager

    • D. 

      Quality assurance

  • 89. 
    A visit request can remain valid for how long?
    • A. 

      1 year

    • B. 

      2 years

    • C. 

      90 days

    • D. 

      180 days

  • 90. 
    What should you do if you inadvertently e-mail classified informaiton over an unclassified system?
    • A. 

      Notify you security manager immediately

    • B. 

      Call the recipients to ensure it is deleted

    • C. 

      Delete it from your "sent mail" and reboot your computer

    • D. 

      Notify your computer manager to re-format the hard drive

  • 91. 
    SF Forn 702, Security Container Checklist, is annotated
    • A. 

      At the beginning and end of the duty day

    • B. 

      Only during the end of day security check

    • C. 

      During annual security container inspections

    • D. 

      Whenever the container is opened and closed

  • 92. 
    What are the three classification levels?
    • A. 

      Classified, secret, and top secret

    • B. 

      Secret, top secret, and eyes only

    • C. 

      Confidential, secret, and top secret

    • D. 

      Classified, top secret, and eyes only

  • 93. 
    Which is the correct portion marking for a paragraph containing secret information?
    • A. 

      (S)

    • B. 

      (CS)

    • C. 

      (SEC)

    • D. 

      "secret"

  • 94. 
    How often must commanders designate a classified material "clean out day?"
    • A. 

      Monthly

    • B. 

      Every 180 days

    • C. 

      Annually

    • D. 

      Every 10 years

  • 95. 
    What is your best resource to determine the degree of protection necessary to safeguard classified information for a specific system?
    • A. 

      Unit security manager

    • B. 

      System technical order (TO)

    • C. 

      Illustrated parts breakdown

    • D. 

      Security classification guide