2011 Cqt- Practice Test

51 Questions
Practice Test Quizzes & Trivia

Version 1. This test has 51 questions from the CQT drawn at random for you to practice.

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    With the accumulator charged to 3000 psi, how many parking brake applications do you have?
    • A. 

      Approximately three braking applications

    • B. 

      Approximately four braking applications

    • C. 

      One brake application

    • D. 

      Two brake applications

  • 2. 
    Is the anti-skid available when using the emergency brake?
    • A. 

      Yes

    • B. 

      No

  • 3. 
    The tiller provides ___ degrees of nosewheel steering either side of center.
    • A. 

      40

    • B. 

      50

    • C. 

      60

    • D. 

      70

  • 4. 
    Where does the normal braking system receive its hydraulic power from?
    • A. 

      #1 Hydraulic System

    • B. 

      #2 Hydraulic System

    • C. 

      PTU

    • D. 

      #3 Hydraulic System

  • 5. 
    The rudder pedals provide approximately ___ degrees of nosewheel steering either side of center with the nosewheel steering turned on.
    • A. 

      3 degrees

    • B. 

      7 degrees

    • C. 

      10 degrees

    • D. 

      12 degrees

  • 6. 
    Must the gear lever lock release button be held down when making a gear selection?
    • A. 

      Yes

    • B. 

      No

  • 7. 
    A LDG GEAR INOP caution light indicates a failure associated with what valve?
    • A. 

      PSEU

    • B. 

      Solenoid Sequence Valve

    • C. 

      Landing Gear Valve

    • D. 

      PTU Valve

  • 8. 
    The solenoid sequence valve gets its signal to open or close the gear doors from the PSEU.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 9. 
    How long do the anti-skid lights stay on when testing is performed on the ground?
    • A. 

      3 seconds

    • B. 

      6 seconds

    • C. 

      10 seconds

    • D. 

      As long as you hold the switch

  • 10. 
    Which component monitors the position of the uplocks, downlocks, and gear door positions?
    • A. 

      PTU

    • B. 

      Solenoid Sequence Valve

    • C. 

      PSEU

    • D. 

      WOW Sensor

  • 11. 
    Where does the emergency parking brake receive its hydraulic pressure from?
    • A. 

      #1 Hydraulic system

    • B. 

      #2 Hydraulic system

    • C. 

      PTU

    • D. 

      #1 Standby Pump

  • 12. 
    When will the landing gear warning horn sound?
    • A. 

      Autofeather not armed, flaps >15, power levers not at take-off, and the gear not down and locked

    • B. 

      Airspeed < 130 kts, gear not down and locked, autofeather not armed

    • C. 

      Airspeed < 130 kts, power levers near flight idle, gear not down and locked

    • D. 

      A & C

  • 13. 
    When can the landing gear warning horn be muted?
    • A. 

      Autofeather not armed, flaps >15, power levers not at take-off, and the gear not down and locked

    • B. 

      Airspeed < 130 kts, gear not down and locked, autofeather not armed

    • C. 

      Airspeed < 130 kts, power levers near flight idle, gear not down and locked

    • D. 

      Airspeed < 130 kts, one power lever near flight idle, gear not down and locked

  • 14. 
    With anti-skid on and operating, at what point are the brakes available after touchdown?
    • A. 

      2.5 seconds after touchdown

    • B. 

      35 kts wheel spin up

    • C. 

      Immediately

    • D. 

      A & B

  • 15. 
    The LDG GEAR INOP caution light requires an alternated gear extension?
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 16. 
    During an alternate gear extension, if the landing gear fails to free-fall to the down and lockedposition the main and nose gear can be manually pumped down.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 17. 
    How many degrees will the nose wheel free-caster left or right of center?
    • A. 

      70

    • B. 

      80

    • C. 

      90

    • D. 

      120

  • 18. 
    Which gear doors remain open after a normal extension?
    • A. 

      Forward nose gear doors & aft main gear doors

    • B. 

      Forward nose gear doors & forward main gear doors

    • C. 

      Aft nose gear doors & forward main gear doors

    • D. 

      Aft nose gear doors & aft forward gear doors

  • 19. 
    For the propeller synchrophase system, which prop is the master and which is the slave?
    • A. 

      #2 Master - #1 Slave

    • B. 

      Both are Slave to the NWS ECU

    • C. 

      It depends on which is started first

    • D. 

      #1 Master - #2 Slave

  • 20. 
    At what prop RPM will the over-speed governor PNEUMATICALLY control the prop?
    • A. 

      1236

    • B. 

      1336

    • C. 

      1308

    • D. 

      1208

  • 21. 
    At what prop RPM will the over-speed governor HYDRAULICALLY control the prop?
    • A. 

      1236

    • B. 

      1336

    • C. 

      1308

    • D. 

      1208

  • 22. 
    Max prop rpm in reverse is?
    • A. 

      1350

    • B. 

      1200

    • C. 

      1212

    • D. 

      1250

  • 23. 
    What are the major components of the Propeller Reduction Gearbox section of the PW-120Aengine?
    • A. 

      Overspeed Governor, PCL, Main Hydraulic Pump, AC Generator

    • B. 

      Overspeed Governor, PCU, Main Hydraulic Pump, AC Generator

    • C. 

      Overspeed Governor, PCU, Standby Hydraulic Pump, AC Generator

    • D. 

      Overspeed Governor, PCU, Main Hydraulic Pump, DC Generator

  • 24. 
    Which of the following describe the Beta Backup System?
    • A. 

      Provides protection against the prop entering Ground Beta range unintentionally due to a PCU malfunction.

    • B. 

      Provides protection against the prop entering Flight Beta range unintentionally due to a PCU malfunction.

    • C. 

      Provides protection against the prop entering an overspeed condition due to a PCU malfunction.

    • D. 

      Provides protection against the prop entering an overspeed condition due to a ECU malfunction.

  • 25. 
    When do the prop Ground Range lights illuminate?
    • A. 

      Whenever the power levers are selected below the flight idle gate and the blade angle decreases to 15.5 degrees or less.

    • B. 

      Whenever the power levers are selected below the flight idle gate and the blade angle decreases to 16.5 degrees or less.

    • C. 

      Whenever the power levers are selected below the flight idle gate and the blade angle decreases to 17.5 degrees or less.

    • D. 

      Whenever the power levers are selected below the flight idle gate and the blade angle decreases to 18.5 degrees or less.

  • 26. 
    Which is TRUE concerning the Accessory Gearbox section of the engine?
    • A. 

      The Accessory Gearbox is located underneath the engine and is driven by the Low Pressure Compressor.

    • B. 

      The Accessory Gearbox is located underneath the engine and is driven by the High Pressure Compressor.

    • C. 

      The Accessory Gearbox is located on top of the engine and is driven by the High Pressure Compressor.

    • D. 

      The Accessory Gearbox is located on top of the engine and is driven by the Low Pressure Compressor.

  • 27. 
    Which is FALSE concerning the major components of the Accessory Gearbox section of theengine?
    • A. 

      Services provided by the Accessory Gearbox include the Oil Pump, High Pressure Fuel Pump, and the DC Starter Generator.

    • B. 

      Services provided by the Accessory Gearbox include the Oil Pump, Low Pressure Fuel Pump, and the DC Starter Generator.

    • C. 

      Services provided by the Accessory Gearbox include the Oil Pump, High Pressure Fuel Pump, and the AC Starter Generator.

    • D. 

      Both B and C

  • 28. 
    Once armed, what triggers an Autofeather? (on the 100’s)
    • A. 

      When one engine’s torque falls below 20% for three seconds while the other engine’s torque is greater than 50%.

    • B. 

      When one engine’s torque falls below 22% for three seconds while the other engine’s torque is greater than 50%.

    • C. 

      When one engine’s torque falls below 22% for three seconds while the other engine’s torque is greater than 60%.

    • D. 

      When one engine’s torque falls below 20% for three seconds while the other engine’s torque is greater than 52%.

  • 29. 
    Once the Aux Feathering Pump is selected to Feather, how long will it run?
    • A. 

      18 seconds

    • B. 

      15 seconds

    • C. 

      25 seconds

    • D. 

      Until the prop feathers

  • 30. 
    Once the Aux Feathering Pump is selected to Unfeather, how long will it run?
    • A. 

      18 seconds

    • B. 

      15 seconds

    • C. 

      25 seconds

    • D. 

      Until the propeller Unfeathers

  • 31. 
    Is automatic Power Uptrim available if the Autofeather is disarmed?
    • A. 

      Yes

    • B. 

      No

  • 32. 
    Will the Alternate Feather/Unfeather system work if the engines are not running?
    • A. 

      Yes, for one cycle

    • B. 

      Yes, for two cycles

    • C. 

      No

    • D. 

      Yes, for three cycles

  • 33. 
    The props should be within how many rpm before activating the Synchrophase System?
    • A. 

      30

    • B. 

      40

    • C. 

      10

    • D. 

      20

  • 34. 
    The Synchrophase System uses the #1 prop as the Master and the #2 prop as the Slave?
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 35. 
    What indication would you have if an ECU has failed on a PW120A?
    • A. 

      Manual indication on the ECU Mode Switchlight and a power uptrim.

    • B. 

      Manual indication on the ECU Mode Switchlight and a power loss.

    • C. 

      Master Warning Light and Engine Manual Warning Light and a power loss.

    • D. 

      Master Caution Light and Engine Manual Caution Light and a power loss.

  • 36. 
    Is Power Uptrim available if the Autofeather System is disarmed?
    • A. 

      Yes

    • B. 

      No

  • 37. 
    If there is an engine failure after takeoff with the Autofeather selected and armed, how much willthe good engine’s torque be uptrimmed?
    • A. 

      Approximately 15%

    • B. 

      Approximately 20%

    • C. 

      Approximately 10%

    • D. 

      Approximately 25%

  • 38. 
    If electrical power is removed from an engine instrument (i.e. Torque, ITT, etc.), what will thegauge indicate?
    • A. 

      Pointer frozen, LCD blank

    • B. 

      Pointer frozen, LCD frozen

    • C. 

      Pointer to zero, LCD frozen

    • D. 

      Pointer to zero, LCD blank

  • 39. 
    What do the Condition Levers control?
    • A. 

      Manual prop feathering and unfeathering

    • B. 

      Prop rpm in the foward thrust range

    • C. 

      Fuel on/off control for engine start and shutdown

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 40. 
    What kind of protection is provided for High Pressure Compressor Rotor overspeed?
    • A. 

      Seperate overspeed circuits in each PCU

    • B. 

      Seperate overspeed circuits in each HMU

    • C. 

      Seperate overspeed circuits in each ECU

    • D. 

      Seperate overspeed circuits in each PSEU

  • 41. 
    What cockpit caution or advisory lights would be illuminated if an ECU fails or is not operating?
    • A. 

      Master Warning Light, Engine Manual Warning Light

    • B. 

      Master Warning Light, Engine Manual Caution Light

    • C. 

      Master Caution Light, Engine Manual Warning Light

    • D. 

      Master Caution Light, Engine Manual Caution Light

  • 42. 
    Why is the ECU Rating Selector placed at TOP for takeoff?
    • A. 

      It gives the engines Takeoff Power

    • B. 

      It provides Fail/Fixed mode

    • C. 

      It insures only a small amount of rollback with a Torque Motor Failure

    • D. 

      Both B and C

  • 43. 
    While on takeoff, a non-critical input of the ECU will cause an engine rollback.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 44. 
    What main functions do the Power Levers control?
    • A. 

      Engine speed (power) in the forward thrust range

    • B. 

      Propeller blade angle in Discing through Reverse range

    • C. 

      Fuel on/off control for engine start and shutdown

    • D. 

      Both a & b

  • 45. 
    During Quiet Taxi mode the ECU will maintain prop RPM at?
    • A. 

      875

    • B. 

      785

    • C. 

      575

    • D. 

      578

  • 46. 
    Power Uptrim on a PW120A will boost output power to?
    • A. 

      1800 shp

    • B. 

      2140 shp

    • C. 

      2380 shp

    • D. 

      2000 shp

  • 47. 
    Upon Nh overspeed, the ECU overspeed circuits revert the ECU to manual mode engineoperation.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 48. 
    At what Nh speed does the ECU activate overspeed protection?
    • A. 

      100%

    • B. 

      101%

    • C. 

      102%

    • D. 

      103%

  • 49. 
    Engine ignition is automatically activated when?
    • A. 

      Engine starting

    • B. 

      Single engine operation

    • C. 

      Flaps extended

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 50. 
    In ECU Manual Mode you have Np underspeed and Nh overspeed protection.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 51. 
    Once an Nh overspeed has occured, can you select the ECU back on?
    • A. 

      Yes

    • B. 

      No