1.
Which publication prescribes a uniform system for classifying, safeguarding, and declassifying national security information?
Correct Answer
B. EO 13526
Explanation
EO 13526, also known as Executive Order 13526, is the correct answer. This executive order was issued by the President of the United States and it prescribes a uniform system for classifying, safeguarding, and declassifying national security information. It establishes the standards and procedures that government agencies must follow when handling sensitive information to ensure its proper protection and disclosure.
2.
Which AF publication explains how to manage & protect unclassified controlled information?
Correct Answer
C. AFI 31-401
Explanation
AFI 31-401 is the correct answer because it is the Air Force publication that specifically addresses the management and protection of unclassified controlled information. This publication provides guidance and procedures for handling and safeguarding this type of information to ensure its confidentiality, integrity, and availability. It outlines the responsibilities of personnel and provides instructions for marking, storing, transmitting, and disposing of unclassified controlled information in accordance with established security protocols.
3.
What type of damage can be expected to occur if Top Secret information is disclosed without authorization?
Correct Answer
D. Exceptionally grave damage
Explanation
If Top Secret information is disclosed without authorization, exceptionally grave damage can be expected to occur. This means that the consequences of such disclosure would be extremely severe and potentially irreparable. The unauthorized disclosure of Top Secret information can compromise national security, endanger lives, and have far-reaching implications for government agencies or organizations involved. It can lead to the loss of critical intelligence, compromise ongoing operations, and potentially expose sensitive sources and methods. The term "exceptionally grave damage" emphasizes the severity and magnitude of the potential harm that can result from unauthorized disclosure of Top Secret information.
4.
What type of damage can be expected to occur if Confidential information is disclosed without authorization?
Correct Answer
A. Damage
Explanation
If confidential information is disclosed without authorization, damage can be expected to occur. This could include financial loss, reputational damage, legal consequences, and compromised security. Unauthorized disclosure of confidential information can lead to various negative impacts on individuals, organizations, and even national security. It is crucial to protect confidential information to prevent any potential harm and maintain trust and integrity.
5.
What is the purpose of caveats?
Correct Answer
C. To provide additional warnings to restrict the distribution of classified material
Explanation
Caveats serve the purpose of providing additional warnings to restrict the distribution of classified material. They are used to caution individuals who have access to classified information about any specific restrictions or limitations on its dissemination. By including caveats, the originator of the material can ensure that it is only shared with authorized individuals and prevent any unauthorized distribution or access.
6.
Which caveat is used to identify classifie information that may NOT be released in any form to a foreign national without the orginator's permission?
Correct Answer
D. NOFORN
Explanation
The caveat used to identify classified information that may not be released to a foreign national without the originator's permission is "NOFORN." This means that the information is not authorized for release to foreign nationals under any circumstances.
7.
How would you protect the information contained in unclassified inspector general reports?
Correct Answer
B. FOUO
Explanation
FOUO stands for "For Official Use Only." This designation is used to protect sensitive but unclassified information that, if disclosed, could potentially harm national security or the interests of the government. FOUO information is not classified, but it requires special handling and protection to prevent unauthorized access or disclosure. It is typically marked with a FOUO label or stamp and should only be shared with individuals who have a need to know the information for official purposes. By designating unclassified inspector general reports as FOUO, the information contained within them can be safeguarded appropriately.
8.
What must you do when creating new material that derives its classification from information already classified?
Correct Answer
A. Respect the original classification decision
Explanation
When creating new material that derives its classification from information already classified, it is important to respect the original classification decision. This means that the new material should be classified in the same way as the original information, without making any changes or assumptions about its classification. By respecting the original classification decision, the integrity and consistency of the classification system can be maintained, ensuring that sensitive information is properly protected and handled.
9.
What overall classification would you give to an otherwise unclassified document that contained foreign or NATO restricted information?
Correct Answer
C. Confidential
Explanation
An otherwise unclassified document that contains foreign or NATO restricted information would be classified as Confidential. This classification indicates that the information is sensitive and should be protected from unauthorized disclosure. While it is not as high as Top Secret, Confidential classification still requires proper handling and safeguards to prevent potential harm to national security or international relations.
10.
Which of the following security marking rules must be adhered to on a document or product?
Correct Answer
A. Security markings are larger than the text
Explanation
Security markings are larger than the text in order to make them more prominent and easily noticeable. This helps to ensure that the markings are easily identifiable and can be seen by individuals handling the document or product. By making the security markings larger, it also helps to deter unauthorized access or tampering as it becomes more difficult to alter or remove the markings without detection.
11.
Size doesn't matter, as long as security markings are red text. Which standard form (SF) would you apply to computer media that is Top Secret?
Correct Answer
A. SF 706
Explanation
The correct answer is SF 706. This standard form would be applied to computer media that is Top Secret. The size of the media does not matter; what matters is that the security markings are in red text.
12.
Which standard form would you apply to computer media that is Secret?
Correct Answer
B. SF 707
13.
Which standard form would you apply to computer media that is confidential?
Correct Answer
B. SF 708
Explanation
SF 708 is the correct answer because it is the standard form that is specifically designed for computer media that is confidential. The other standard forms listed (SF 707, SF 710, and SF 711) are not specifically tailored for confidential computer media.
14.
Which standard form would you apply to computer media that is unclassified?
Correct Answer
D. SF 710
Explanation
The correct answer is SF 710 because SF 710 is the standard form that is used for computer media that is unclassified. This form is used to document the destruction or transfer of unclassified computer media, ensuring that proper procedures are followed and the media is handled securely. SF 707, SF 708, and SF 709 are not applicable to computer media that is unclassified.
15.
Which additional standard form is applied to a classified computer already labeled with a red SF 707?
Correct Answer
D. SF 711
Explanation
The additional standard form applied to a classified computer already labeled with a red SF 707 is SF 711.
16.
How can Top Secret material be transferred?
Correct Answer
C. By escort, courier, or transmitted over electronic means
Explanation
Top Secret material can be transferred by escort, courier, or transmitted over electronic means. This means that a designated person can physically accompany the material during its transfer, or it can be securely transmitted through electronic channels such as encrypted emails or secure file transfer protocols. This ensures that the material remains confidential and protected from unauthorized access or interception.
17.
How can Secret material be transfered?
Correct Answer
B. By US registered mail or by methods used to transfer Top Secret
Explanation
The correct answer is "by US registered mail or by methods used to transfer Top Secret." This means that secret material can be transferred either through US registered mail or through methods that are typically used to transfer top-secret information. This suggests that these methods are secure and trusted for the transfer of sensitive material.
18.
How can confidential material be transferred?
Correct Answer
A. By the same methods as secret and top secret
Explanation
Confidential material can be transferred by the same methods as secret and top secret because these methods ensure a high level of security and confidentiality. These methods may include secure electronic transfers, courier services, or registered mail. By using these methods, the confidential material can be protected from unauthorized access and ensure that it reaches the intended recipient securely.
19.
What is the minimum length of time an Air Force form 310 is kept in a file?
Correct Answer
B. 2yr
Explanation
An Air Force form 310 is required to be kept in a file for a minimum of 2 years. This indicates that the form contains important information that needs to be retained for a certain period of time. It is likely that the form contains data that may be necessary for reference or auditing purposes within the Air Force.
20.
What is the purpose of an AF form 144?
Correct Answer
A. Identifies all people given access to the top secret information that it is attached to
Explanation
The purpose of an AF form 144 is to identify all people who have been granted access to the top secret information that it is attached to. This form serves as a record of individuals who have been authorized to view and handle sensitive information, ensuring that only authorized personnel have access to classified materials. By documenting the individuals given access, the form helps to maintain security and accountability in handling top secret information.
21.
What are the three general criteria that must be met before you can allow a person access to classified information
Correct Answer
C. Security clearance equal to or higher than the material, need to know, and NdA
Explanation
The three general criteria that must be met before allowing a person access to classified information are: having a security clearance equal to or higher than the material, having a need to know the information, and signing a nondisclosure agreement (NdA). These criteria ensure that only individuals who have the necessary clearance, a legitimate reason to access the information, and a commitment to keeping it confidential are granted access to classified information.
22.
If classified material is stored in a safe, when must the combination of the safe be changed?
Correct Answer
D. When someone with access to the combo no longer requires access to the material
Explanation
The combination of the safe must be changed when someone with access to the combo no longer requires access to the material. This ensures that only authorized personnel have knowledge of the combination and can access the classified material. Changing the combination in this scenario helps maintain the security and confidentiality of the stored information.
23.
What standard form is used to record the end of day security check?
Correct Answer
B. SF 701
Explanation
The standard form used to record the end of day security check is SF 701.
24.
Where can you find guidance for the proper storage requirements for sensitive compartmented information?
Correct Answer
C. AFMAN 14-304
Explanation
AFMAN 14-304 is the correct answer because it is a publication that provides guidance on the proper storage requirements for sensitive compartmented information. This publication is specific to the Air Force and outlines the procedures and protocols that must be followed to ensure the secure storage of classified information. It covers topics such as physical security measures, access controls, and storage container requirements. By referring to AFMAN 14-304, individuals can ensure that they are following the proper procedures for storing sensitive compartmented information.
25.
When a safe or container is taken out of service, the built in combo will be reset to?
Correct Answer
D. 50-25-50
Explanation
When a safe or container is taken out of service, the built-in combo will be reset to 50-25-50.
26.
What is the risk level for office work?
Correct Answer
A. Safe Air Force activity
Explanation
The risk level for office work is categorized as "Safe Air Force activity." This implies that office work is considered to have a low level of risk associated with it in the Air Force. This may be because office work typically involves tasks that are not physically demanding or hazardous, such as administrative work, paperwork, and computer-based tasks. It suggests that individuals engaged in office work are less likely to encounter dangerous situations or potential harm compared to other activities within the Air Force.
27.
Why should you NOT use AF publications stored on local computer hard drives?
Correct Answer
B. The publication may not be current
Explanation
Using AF publications stored on local computer hard drives is not recommended because the publication may not be current. This means that the information contained in the publication may be outdated or no longer accurate, which can lead to incorrect decisions or actions being taken. It is important to have access to the most up-to-date information to ensure that operations are carried out effectively and in accordance with current guidelines and regulations.
28.
What is defined as, "the clearly defined, decisive, and attainable goals towards which every operation should be directed."
Correct Answer
A. Objective
Explanation
The term "objective" refers to the clearly defined, decisive, and attainable goals towards which every operation should be directed. It is the desired outcome or result that an organization or individual aims to achieve. Objectives provide direction and focus for actions and decisions, helping to ensure that efforts are aligned with a specific goal. In the context of this question, "objective" is the best fit as it accurately describes the concept of having clearly defined and attainable goals for every operation.
29.
What is defined as, "a duty assigned to an individual or unit."
Correct Answer
B. Mission
Explanation
A mission is defined as a duty assigned to an individual or unit. It refers to a specific task or objective that needs to be accomplished. A mission outlines the purpose and goals that need to be achieved, providing a clear direction and focus for the individual or unit. It often involves a specific timeframe and resources required to complete the assigned duty.
30.
What is defined as, "a concise expression of the purpose of the operation and the desired end state."
Correct Answer
C. Commander's intent
Explanation
Commander's intent is defined as "a concise expression of the purpose of the operation and the desired end state." This means that it provides a clear and concise statement of what the operation aims to achieve and the desired outcome. It helps to guide and align the actions of subordinates by communicating the commander's vision and objectives. The commander's intent serves as a reference point for decision-making and provides a framework for subordinate units to understand and execute their tasks effectively.
31.
What level of war is described as " the level of war at which a nation determines national strategic objectives."
Correct Answer
C. Strategic
Explanation
The level of war described as "the level of war at which a nation determines national strategic objectives" is known as the strategic level. This level involves the highest level of decision-making and involves setting long-term goals and objectives for a nation's military and overall strategy. It focuses on the big picture and considers factors such as national security, political objectives, and overall national interests. At the strategic level, decisions are made to guide the overall direction of a nation's military actions and shape the outcome of a conflict.
32.
What are the two types of joint operation plannning?
Correct Answer
A. Contingency and crisis action
Explanation
The correct answer is contingency and crisis action because joint operation planning involves preparing for potential contingencies and responding to crisis situations. Contingency planning focuses on developing strategies and actions to address possible future events or scenarios, while crisis action planning involves rapidly responding to unforeseen emergencies or urgent situations. Both types of planning are essential for effective military operations and ensuring readiness to handle a range of potential challenges.
33.
What DoD wide management information process is used for planning and executing force deployments and is also used to determine the best COA?
Correct Answer
D. Joint operations planning and execution system (JOPES)
Explanation
The correct answer is joint operations planning and execution system (JOPES). JOPES is a DoD wide management information process that is used for planning and executing force deployments. It is also used to determine the best course of action (COA). JOPES helps in coordinating and synchronizing military operations, providing a common operating picture, and facilitating the planning and execution of joint operations. It is an essential tool for military planners and commanders to effectively plan and execute force deployments and operations.
34.
Which type of military operations requires geospatial information?
Correct Answer
A. All military operations
Explanation
Geospatial information is essential for all military operations as it provides crucial data about the geographical features, terrain, and infrastructure of an area. This information helps in planning and executing various military strategies, including tactical air operations, tactical ground operations, and close air support (CAS) operations. By utilizing geospatial information, military forces can effectively navigate through unfamiliar territories, identify potential threats, and make informed decisions to achieve their objectives. Therefore, all military operations require geospatial information to enhance situational awareness and ensure successful mission outcomes.
35.
Which type of order is a crisis action planning directive?
Correct Answer
C. Warning
Explanation
A crisis action planning directive is a type of order that serves as a "Warning." This type of directive is typically issued in response to an imminent crisis or emergency situation. It alerts individuals or organizations to take immediate action and implement pre-determined plans to mitigate the impact of the crisis. The purpose of a warning order is to provide clear instructions and guidelines for executing crisis response plans effectively.
36.
Which type of order is used to prepare forces to deploy?
Correct Answer
D. Deployment
Explanation
Deployment is the correct answer because it refers to the type of order that is used to prepare forces for deployment. When military forces need to be sent to a specific location or area, a deployment order is issued to ensure that all necessary preparations are made. This includes organizing transportation, gathering supplies, and coordinating logistics. By selecting the deployment option, the forces are being prepared and organized for their deployment to a specific location.
37.
Which type of order is issued that direct the deployment and/or employment of forces?
Correct Answer
A. Execute
Explanation
The correct answer is "Execute." In military operations, an execute order is issued to direct the deployment and/or employment of forces. This order provides specific instructions and guidance on how and when to execute a mission or operation. It ensures that the forces are deployed and utilized effectively and efficiently to achieve the desired objectives.
38.
Whithin the air tasking cycle, what document captures the operational guidance of the Join Force Air Component Commander (JFACC) for a particular day?
Correct Answer
C. Air operations directive (AOD)
Explanation
The Air Operations Directive (AOD) captures the operational guidance of the Joint Force Air Component Commander (JFACC) for a particular day within the air tasking cycle. It provides specific instructions and objectives for air operations, including target priorities, desired effects, and coordination with other components. The AOD helps to ensure that all air assets are effectively employed and synchronized to achieve the overall mission objectives. The other options, such as the Air Tasking Order (ATO), Post Mission Summary (PMS), and Reconnaissance, Surveillance, and Targeting Annex (RSTA), do not specifically capture the JFACC's operational guidance for a particular day.
39.
Which document lists the number of sorties, refueling tracks, and communication frequencies?
Correct Answer
A. ATO
Explanation
The ATO (Air Tasking Order) is a document that lists the number of sorties (missions), refueling tracks (locations for aerial refueling), and communication frequencies (channels for communication) for a specific operation or mission. It provides detailed instructions and information for the execution of air operations, including tasking, coordination, and allocation of resources. The ATO is a crucial document for effective planning and execution of military air operations.
40.
What does an OPLAN identify as needed information for successful execution of Chairman Joint Chief of Staff (CJCS) requirments?
Correct Answer
D. Forces and supplies required to execute the commander's intent
Explanation
An OPLAN identifies the forces and supplies required to execute the commander's intent. This means that the plan outlines the specific resources and personnel that are needed in order to carry out the objectives and goals set by the commander. By identifying these forces and supplies, the OPLAN ensures that the necessary resources are available for the successful execution of the CJCS requirements.
41.
What does the Joint Force Air Component Commander use to integrate and coordinate joint air and space operations?
Correct Answer
A. Joint air operations plan (JAOP)
Explanation
The Joint Force Air Component Commander uses the joint air operations plan (JAOP) to integrate and coordinate joint air and space operations. This plan provides a comprehensive framework for conducting air operations, including the allocation of resources, objectives, and tasks for all participating units. It ensures that all elements of the joint force work together effectively and efficiently to achieve mission success. The JAOP serves as a guiding document for the commander, providing a blueprint for the execution of air and space operations.
42.
What is the concept of employment?
Correct Answer
C. The verbal or graphic statement of a commander's assumption or intent in regard to an operation
Explanation
The concept of employment refers to the verbal or graphic statement made by a commander regarding their assumption or intent for a specific operation. This statement outlines how the operation should be carried out and provides guidance to subordinate commanders. It helps in ensuring that everyone involved in the operation understands the commander's vision and can work towards achieving the desired objectives.
43.
Which type of authority/responsibility can be defined as "non-transferable command authority with direction over all aspects of military operations"?
Correct Answer
B. Combatant command (COCOM)
Explanation
Combatant command (COCOM) can be defined as "non-transferable command authority with direction over all aspects of military operations." This means that COCOM has the highest level of authority and responsibility in military operations, with control over all aspects of the mission. COCOM is responsible for planning, coordinating, and executing military operations within a specified area of responsibility. It has the power to make decisions and give orders that cannot be transferred to other authorities. Therefore, COCOM fits the description given in the question.
44.
Which type of authority/responsibility can be defined as "transferable command authority that may be exercised by commanders at any echelon at or below the level of combatant command"?
Correct Answer
C. OPCON
Explanation
OPCON, or Operational Control, can be defined as transferable command authority that may be exercised by commanders at any echelon at or below the level of combatant command. This means that commanders have the authority to direct and control the tactical employment of assigned or attached forces in order to accomplish the mission. OPCON allows commanders to make decisions and issue orders within their assigned area of responsibility, while still operating under the overall guidance and direction of higher command.
45.
Which type of authority/responsibility can be defined as "direction or exercise of authority over subordinate or other organization in respect to administration and support"?
Correct Answer
A. ADCON
Explanation
ADCON stands for Administration and Support. This type of authority/responsibility involves the direction or exercise of authority over subordinates or other organizations in respect to administration and support. ADCON focuses on the management and logistical aspects of an organization, ensuring that resources are properly allocated and administrative tasks are carried out effectively. This authority/responsibility is crucial for the smooth functioning and support of the organization.
46.
Which type of authority is the detailed and local direction and control of movements or maneuver necessary to accomplish missions or tasks assigned?
Correct Answer
D. TACON
Explanation
TACON, or Tactical Control, refers to the detailed and local direction and control of movements or maneuvers necessary to accomplish missions or tasks assigned. This type of authority allows for specific tactical decisions to be made at a lower level, providing more flexibility and adaptability in the field. TACON is typically delegated by a higher-level command to a subordinate unit or commander, allowing them to exercise control and make decisions within their designated area of responsibility.
47.
Which war fighting strategy is the result of an ad hoc arrangement between two or more nations for common action?
Correct Answer
C. Coalition
Explanation
Alliance - is a formal arrangement
48.
What do intelligence products identify during major operations and campaigns that assists commanders in planning friendly force employment?
Correct Answer
D. Enemy capabilities and centers of gravity (COG)
Explanation
Intelligence products during major operations and campaigns identify enemy capabilities and centers of gravity (COG) that assist commanders in planning friendly force employment. By understanding the enemy's capabilities, commanders can devise appropriate strategies and tactics to counter them effectively. Identifying centers of gravity helps in identifying key elements that if targeted or disrupted, can significantly weaken the enemy's overall strength. This information enables commanders to make informed decisions and allocate resources efficiently to achieve mission success.
49.
What electronic data porition of a plan contains detailed requirements, capabilities, and movement data that supports Air Force deployments?
Correct Answer
C. Time phased force deployment data (TPFDD)
Explanation
The time phased force deployment data (TPFDD) portion of a plan contains detailed requirements, capabilities, and movement data that supports Air Force deployments. This data includes information about the forces, equipment, and supplies needed for a deployment, as well as the timeline for their movement. It helps to ensure that all necessary resources are available at the right time and place during a deployment. The TPFDD is an essential component of planning and executing Air Force operations.
50.
What system provides exploitation support for AF imagery intelligence squadrons?
Correct Answer
B. Imagergy exploitation support system (IESS)
Explanation
The correct answer is "imagergy exploitation support system (IESS)". IESS is a system that provides exploitation support for AF imagery intelligence squadrons. It is specifically designed to assist in the analysis and interpretation of imagery intelligence data, allowing for the extraction of valuable information and insights. This system helps in enhancing the effectiveness and efficiency of imagery analysis, enabling the squadrons to make informed decisions and contribute to the overall mission success.