1N051 Vre -- End Of Course Practice Exam #2

73 Questions | Total Attempts: 444

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1N051 Vre -- End Of Course Practice Exam #2

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    When completing the career development course, how much time is given to complete each volume?
    • A. 

      15 days

    • B. 

      30 days

    • C. 

      3 months

    • D. 

      12 months

  • 2. 
    What Air Force Instruction can you reference to determine trainee responsibilities?
    • A. 

      AFI 36-2201 Vol 1

    • B. 

      AFI 36-2101 Vol3

    • C. 

      AFI 36-2201 Vol 3

    • D. 

      AFI 36-2101 Vol 1

  • 3. 
    What Air Force Instruction is referred to as the "little, brown book," and gives information on the enlisted tier responsibilities?
    • A. 

      AFI 36-2903

    • B. 

      AFI 36-2201

    • C. 

      AFI 36-2618

    • D. 

      AFI 36-2101

  • 4. 
    Commanders will not presecute a target without _______.
    • A. 

      Imagery

    • B. 

      Intelligence

    • C. 

      Correlated SIGINT and GEOINT

    • D. 

      A nine-line report with locations within a 10 meter square

  • 5. 
    The purpose of critical thinking is to ask yourself questions in order to ensure your conclusions have all of the following EXCEPT _______.
    • A. 

      Clarity

    • B. 

      Precision

    • C. 

      Substance

    • D. 

      Relevance

  • 6. 
    Name one of the most common methods for conducting intelligence analysis used for identifying connections of known information between objects.
    • A. 

      Collaborative tools

    • B. 

      Open source

    • C. 

      Falconview

    • D. 

      Link Charts

  • 7. 
    Who is inherently responsible for base force protection (FP)?
    • A. 

      Commanders

    • B. 

      Antiterroism officer

    • C. 

      All military members

    • D. 

      Force protection manager

  • 8. 
    The applications of active and passive defense measures, employed across the legally-defined ground dimension of the operational environment, to mitigate potential risks, and defeat adversary threats to Air Force operations is known as what?
    • A. 

      Force protection

    • B. 

      Integrated defense

    • C. 

      Agile combat support

    • D. 

      Installation security plans

  • 9. 
    What do the objectives of integrated defense provide for the conduct of integrated defense?
    • A. 

      Resources

    • B. 

      A central focus

    • C. 

      Conditions for success

    • D. 

      Objectives and guidance

  • 10. 
    What is the area outside the base perimeter from which the base may be vulnerable from standoff threats?
    • A. 

      BZS

    • B. 

      AOI

    • C. 

      BSZ

    • D. 

      BDOC

  • 11. 
    What agency is the Air Force's main focal point for CI activities?
    • A. 

      FBI

    • B. 

      NGA

    • C. 

      NCIS

    • D. 

      AFOSI

  • 12. 
    Which threat comes from assigned personnel, host-country nationals, third country nationals, or other persons assigned to or transiting the AOR?
    • A. 

      Unconventional

    • B. 

      Psychological

    • C. 

      Criminal

    • D. 

      Insider

  • 13. 
    Which type of attack targets Air Force personnel and infrastructure through psychological operations, propaganda, electronic attacks, and network attacks?
    • A. 

      Standoff

    • B. 

      Terrorist

    • C. 

      Penetration

    • D. 

      Information operations

  • 14. 
    Which type of attack utilizes suicide bombers and civilian airliners as weapons?
    • A. 

      Standoff

    • B. 

      Terrorist

    • C. 

      Penetration

    • D. 

      Information operations

  • 15. 
    Identifications of needs for intelligence regarding all aspects of the operational environment starts with which phase of the intelligence process?
    • A. 

      Analysis and production

    • B. 

      Evaluation and feedback

    • C. 

      Planning and direction

    • D. 

      Collection

  • 16. 
    "What is the current location of the adversary SA-20 battery" is an example of what?
    • A. 

      Commander information requirement.

    • B. 

      Essential elements of information

    • C. 

      Priority intelligence requirement

    • D. 

      Standing requirement

  • 17. 
    What is the intelligence annex of a CONPLAN or OPLAN?
    • A. 

      Annex A

    • B. 

      Annex B

    • C. 

      Annex C

    • D. 

      Annex D

  • 18. 
    At what level of collection are the national agencies involved?
    • A. 

      Theater

    • B. 

      Overall

    • C. 

      Strategic

    • D. 

      Operational

  • 19. 
    What determines the success of a retasking mission for collection?
    • A. 

      The ISR Process

    • B. 

      The collection manager

    • C. 

      The tasking organization

    • D. 

      The Asset's Capabilities

  • 20. 
    What collection method is conducted openly and may be acknowledged by and attributed to its sponsor?
    • A. 

      Clandestine

    • B. 

      Discreet

    • C. 

      Covert

    • D. 

      Overt

  • 21. 
    What phrase in the ISR process comes after the collection phrase?
    • A. 

      Planning & Direction

    • B. 

      Analaysis & Production

    • C. 

      Processing and exploitation

    • D. 

      Dissemination and integration

  • 22. 
    What is the best guide to the reliability of a source of information?
    • A. 

      Education

    • B. 

      Motivation

    • C. 

      Intelligence

    • D. 

      Past performance

  • 23. 
    During  ________________ information is received, collated, and entered into appropriate databases by the analysis.
    • A. 

      Analysis

    • B. 

      Evaluation

    • C. 

      Integration

    • D. 

      Interpretation

  • 24. 
    Intelligence production must be ____________ and _______________ to provide non-duplicative, all-source intelligence products to the requestor.
    • A. 

      Coordinated & directed

    • B. 

      Planned and analyzed

    • C. 

      Planned and accurate

    • D. 

      Effective and timely

  • 25. 
    What two steps in the analysis and production ohased attempt to determine the truthfulness of the information?
    • A. 

      Evaluation and analysis

    • B. 

      Analysis and integration

    • C. 

      Integration and evalutation

    • D. 

      Interpretation and analysis

  • 26. 
    In which step of the Analysis and Production Ohase is information considered finished intelligence?
    • A. 

      Interpretation

    • B. 

      Integration

    • C. 

      Evaluations

    • D. 

      Collection

  • 27. 
    Why does the military still utilize hardcorpy dissemination methods?
    • A. 

      Allied and coalition forces do not hav the ability to utilize the same system architecture.

    • B. 

      It increases the likelihood that users will get the intelligence at remote locations.

    • C. 

      Some charts are not available in softcopy format

    • D. 

      It is easier to disseminate.

  • 28. 
    What is the primary vehicle for integrating intelligence and operations?
    • A. 

      Integrations software

    • B. 

      Priority intelligence report

    • C. 

      Common operational picture

    • D. 

      Global command and control system

  • 29. 
    Who evaluates the quality of intelligence products?
    • A. 

      Intelligence personnel and consumers at all levels

    • B. 

      Senior intelligence officers

    • C. 

      Intelligence personnel

    • D. 

      Commanders

  • 30. 
    When performing your duties with intelligence collection and reporting, what is one reason you should perform training for aircrew?
    • A. 

      To form a bond with your coworkers

    • B. 

      To ensure the aircrew are receiving training

    • C. 

      Because aircrew are a valuable source of perishable intelligence and training the aircrew what to report can ensure they report important intelligence

    • D. 

      Because when you train the aircrew, you are ensuring they will find valuable information on every mission and be able to report that intelligence back to you

  • 31. 
    Which prosign would be utilized when intelligence is received that our forces have made initial enemy contact?
    • A. 

      PP

    • B. 

      RR

    • C. 

      YY

    • D. 

      ZZ

  • 32. 
    Which type of intelligence data includes information on the number of aircraft on a specific mission?
    • A. 

      Strike data

    • B. 

      Operational data

    • C. 

      Enemy air reaction data

    • D. 

      Surface-to-air missile data

  • 33. 
    What type of reporting is difficult for aircrew due to small size of weapons utilized?
    • A. 

      AAA engagements

    • B. 

      SAM engagements

    • C. 

      Naval engagements

    • D. 

      Air-to-air engagements

  • 34. 
    How many steps are involved in mission reporting?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 35. 
    Which of the following should be reported by aircrew for both AAA and SAM sightings?
    • A. 

      RWR warnings received

    • B. 

      Type of missile utilized

    • C. 

      Type of fire utilized

    • D. 

      Fire coordination

  • 36. 
    Where can you find the process for submitting a MISREP?
    • A. 

      ATO

    • B. 

      SPINS

    • C. 

      SITREP

    • D. 

      Command directives

  • 37. 
    Which of the following is NOT a required administrative data set for a MISREP?
    • A. 

      MSNID

    • B. 

      TARWI

    • C. 

      FLTDTAIL

    • D. 

      Classification

  • 38. 
    What initial report would be submitted if an aircrew passes an INFLTREP regarding a column of tanks advancing toward our forward line of troops?
    • A. 

      IIR

    • B. 

      INTREP

    • C. 

      INTSUM

    • D. 

      INTFLTREP

  • 39. 
    Identify the report that is similar to an INTSUM, but contains more refined analytical information.
    • A. 

      INTSUM

    • B. 

      INTREP

    • C. 

      SITREP

    • D. 

      DISUM

  • 40. 
    This traditional ISR asset was originally designed as a maritime patrol and anti-submarine aircraft.
    • A. 

      RC-135 COBRA BALL

    • B. 

      RC-12 GUARDRAIL

    • C. 

      MR Mk1P Nimrod

    • D. 

      Tornado GR1A

  • 41. 
    What non-traditional ISR asset was purchased to fill the void left behind from the retirement of the TARPS system?
    • A. 

      WSV

    • B. 

      TARS

    • C. 

      SHARP

    • D. 

      ATARS

  • 42. 
    This model is a tool used to characterize the sort of processes that typically happen in a collection cycle for a given sensor.
    • A. 

      Tasking, collection, processing, evaluation, and dissemination (TCPED).

    • B. 

      Tasking, collection, processing, exploitation, and dissemination (TCPED).

    • C. 

      Tasking, communication, processing, evaluation, and dissemination (TCPED).

    • D. 

      Tasking, communication, processing, exploitation, and dissemination (TCPED).

  • 43. 
    This processs of the TCPED model refers to the mission planning and execution of operations.
    • A. 

      Tasking

    • B. 

      Collection

    • C. 

      Processing

    • D. 

      Exploitation

  • 44. 
    This weapon system is the operational-level command and control center that provides the Commander Air Force Forces with the capability to direct and supervise the activities of assigned forces.
    • A. 

      Air operations and space center

    • B. 

      Air and space operations center

    • C. 

      Air operations division

    • D. 

      Air operations system

  • 45. 
    The primary products of this division include the air tasking order (ATO), airspace control order (ACO) and joint integrated prioritized target list (JIPTL).
    • A. 

      Intelligence, surveillance, reconnaissance division

    • B. 

      Combat operations division

    • C. 

      Combat plans division

    • D. 

      Air mobility division

  • 46. 
    This ISRD team conducts dynamic intelligence preparation of the operational environment and provides the context for understanding the adversary's intentions.
    • A. 

      ISR operations team

    • B. 

      Combat intelligence team

    • C. 

      Targets/tactical assessment team

    • D. 

      Analysis, correlation and fusion team

  • 47. 
    Which team within the air mobility division coordinates closely with the rescue coordination cell?
    • A. 

      Airlift control team

    • B. 

      Air mobility control team

    • C. 

      Air refueling control team

    • D. 

      Aeromedical evacuation control team

  • 48. 
    What team is the focal point for the ISRD for implementing, coordinating and maintaining PED support from agencies outside the AOC?
    • A. 

      The planning team

    • B. 

      The coordination team

    • C. 

      The PED management team

    • D. 

      The planning and coordination team

  • 49. 
    Which of the following phases are NOT part of the mission planning cycle?
    • A. 

      ATO planning

    • B. 

      Execution phase

    • C. 

      Receive the ATO

    • D. 

      Mission planning phase

  • 50. 
    Which charts will normally depict the target areas for mission planning?
    • A. 

      GNC

    • B. 

      ONC

    • C. 

      TPC

    • D. 

      JOG

  • 51. 
    In the third phase of the air tasking cycle, what provides the basis for weaponeering assessment activities?
    • A. 

      MAAP

    • B. 

      JIPTL

    • C. 

      ATO

    • D. 

      ACO

  • 52. 
    Which of the following is correct, given the following set of an ATO? MSNACFT/2/ACTYP:F-16C/TEXAN01/A1/111/22222/33333//.
    • A. 

      There will be two A1 aircraft flying a mission with the call sign TEXAN01

    • B. 

      The call sign of the refueling aircraft is TEXAN01

    • C. 

      The aircraft assigned to this mission are F-16Cs

    • D. 

      There will be four aircraft flying this mission

  • 53. 
    What is used to get the aircraft to specific areas for mission accomplishment, and do not have altitude restrictions?
    • A. 

      MRR

    • B. 

      BDZ

    • C. 

      ATR

    • D. 

      ROZ

  • 54. 
    Who is the office of primary responsibility for the section of the SPINS that provides guidance to subordinate and supporting commanders of the JFACCs overall C2 battle plan.
    • A. 

      C2 Planning

    • B. 

      Strategy division

    • C. 

      Judge advocate general

    • D. 

      Electronic warfare coordination cell

  • 55. 
    What is the purpose of the first step in the IPOE process?
    • A. 

      To define the intelligence problem by identifying the specific aspects of the environment, the activities within it, and the space where they exist.

    • B. 

      To determine the adversary's COGs, capabilities, doctrinal principles and TTPs

    • C. 

      To determine how the battlespace affects adversary and friendly operations.

    • D. 

      To produce a graphical representation of the AO or AOI

  • 56. 
    What does a thorough pre-conflict analysis alleviate when it can be accomplished?
    • A. 

      Size problems

    • B. 

      Organizational problems

    • C. 

      Time constraint problems

    • D. 

      Disinterest with material problems

  • 57. 
    Usually the areospace environment is divided into two sub-dimensions. What are they?
    • A. 

      Air and land

    • B. 

      Air and space

    • C. 

      Space and information

    • D. 

      Information and surface

  • 58. 
    What is classified as the area of concern including the area of influence, areas adjacent thereto, and extending into enemy territory to the objectives of current or planned operations?
    • A. 

      Area of responsibility (AOR)

    • B. 

      Information environment

    • C. 

      Aerospace environment

    • D. 

      Area of interest (AOI)

  • 59. 
    What is the purpose of the second step in the IPOE process?
    • A. 

      To define the intelligence problem by identifying the specific aspects of the environment, the activities within it, and the space where they exist

    • B. 

      To determine the adversary's COGs, capabilities, doctrinal principles and TTPs

    • C. 

      To determine how the battlespace affects adversary and friendly operations

    • D. 

      To produce a graphical representation of the AO or AOI

  • 60. 
    Which dimension of the physical environment is not constrained by physical boundries?
    • A. 

      Air

    • B. 

      Land

    • C. 

      Space

    • D. 

      Information

  • 61. 
    Which of the following is probably the most important human dimension characteristic to consider?
    • A. 

      Political

    • B. 

      Economic

    • C. 

      Infrastructure

    • D. 

      Socio-cultural

  • 62. 
    Which of the following is NOT an example of broad COAs?
    • A. 

      Human COA (political, religious, economic, environmental)

    • B. 

      Place COA (attack, deny, launch additional assets)

    • C. 

      Information COA (attack, defend, gain or exploit)

    • D. 

      Air COA (attack, defend, disperese, evade, harden)

  • 63. 
    Which of the following is NOT one of the three elements that intelligence threat models consist of?
    • A. 

      Doctrinal templates

    • B. 

      Description of preferred TTPs

    • C. 

      Determine adversary reactions

    • D. 

      Identification of HVT and HPTs

  • 64. 
    In which step of the IPOE process will you determine the current adversary situation?
    • A. 

      Evaluate the adversary

    • B. 

      Determine the operational environment

    • C. 

      Determine the adversary courses of action

    • D. 

      Determine the operational environment effects

  • 65. 
    Upon arrival at your first duty location, what is the first step in the UGT requirements?
    • A. 

      Complete duty position tasks

    • B. 

      Enrollment and completion of CDCs

    • C. 

      Complete all core tasks in the CFETP

    • D. 

      Unit IQT

  • 66. 
    To become a 1N091, you must do the following:
    • A. 

      Hold the rank of SMSgt

    • B. 

      Be a graduate of SNCO Academy in-residence

    • C. 

      Have supervisor and commander approval

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 67. 
    What determines the succes of a retasking mission for collection?
    • A. 

      The ISR process

    • B. 

      The collection manager

    • C. 

      The tasking organization

    • D. 

      The capabilities of the asset

  • 68. 
    Which visible light concept refers to the bending of a ray of light?
    • A. 

      Refraction

    • B. 

      Dispersion

    • C. 

      Diffraction

    • D. 

      Transmission

  • 69. 
    What provides the necessary information for mid and long range planning?
    • A. 

      Spot Requirement

    • B. 

      Standig Requirement

    • C. 

      Critical Requirement

    • D. 

      Priority Intelligence Requirement

  • 70. 
    Which report is a formatted report that summarized, amplifies, and clarifies information previously reported in other intelligence reports?
    • A. 

      DISUM

    • B. 

      INTREP

    • C. 

      INTSUM

    • D. 

      Commander's SITREP

  • 71. 
    What division within the AOC concentrates on long-range planning of air, space and information operations?
    • A. 

      Combat Plans

    • B. 

      Combat Operations

    • C. 

      Air Mobility Division

    • D. 

      Strategy Division

  • 72. 
    When discussing Thermal Contrast what is Positive Contrast?
    • A. 

      Target has less IR energy than its contrasting background

    • B. 

      Target has more IR energy than its contrasting background

    • C. 

      The temperature difference between target and background

    • D. 

      Target has the same IR enegy than its contrasting background

  • 73. 
    RADAR is an acronym for _____________.
    • A. 

      Radio detection and reflection

    • B. 

      Radio deflections and reflection

    • C. 

      Radio detection and ranging

    • D. 

      Radar detection and ranging