1N051 -- End Of Course Practice Exam #1
Please review all of the questions before you choose an answer. If applicable, choose all answers that will apply to complete the question. At the end of the quiz, please relay your score to TSgt Smith so that your OJT record can reflect the score that you received. If you have any questions during your quiz, please continue until you have completed the exam, and we can discuss any questions or comments that you may had about previous questions. Good luck on your exam.
- 1.
The enlisted force structure consists of how many tiers?
- A.
2
- B.
3
- C.
4
- D.
5
Correct Answer
B. 3 -
- 2.
Which AFI will provide an in-depth look at the Air Force Training Program?
- A.
AFI 36-2201
- B.
AFI 36-2202
- C.
AFI 36-2203
- D.
AFI 36-2204
Correct Answer
A. AFI 36-2201 -
- 3.
When do you receive your 3-skill level?
- A.
Immediately upon graduation of BMT
- B.
Immediately upon entry into technical training
- C.
Immediately upon graduation of technical training
- D.
Immediately upon arrival at your first duty station
Correct Answer
C. Immediately upon graduation of technical training -
- 4.
When do you begin the process of upgrading to the 5-skill level?
- A.
Upon graduation from technical training
- B.
Upon arrival at your first duty station
- C.
Upon attaining the rank of A1C
- D.
Upon completion of approved career development courses
Correct Answer
B. Upon arrival at your first duty station -
- 5.
How long do trainees enrolled in CDCs have to complete each volume of the course?
- A.
15 days
- B.
15 duty days
- C.
30 days
- D.
30 duty days
Correct Answer
C. 30 days -
- 6.
Training managers can request an extension of how many days to complete a CDC volume?
- A.
15 days
- B.
15 duty days
- C.
30 days
- D.
30 duty days
Correct Answer
C. 30 days -
- 7.
Even with extensions, what is the maximum allowable time a trainee is afforded to complete their CDCs?
- A.
9 months
- B.
10 months
- C.
11 months
- D.
12 months
Correct Answer
D. 12 months -
- 8.
In addition to completing your CDCs, what items must be signed off in your CFETP before you can be upgraded?
- A.
All core and duty position tasks
- B.
All core and wartime tasks
- C.
All wartime tasks
- D.
All core tasks
Correct Answer
A. All core and duty position tasks -
- 9.
What is the minimum amount of time required for 5-Skill level upgrade training for trainees NOT in RETRAINING status?
- A.
9 months
- B.
10 months
- C.
11 months
- D.
12 months
Correct Answer
D. 12 months -
- 10.
What is the minimum amount of time required for 5-Skill level upgrade training for trainees in RETRAINING status?
- A.
9 months
- B.
10 months
- C.
11 months
- D.
12 months
Correct Answer
A. 9 months -
- 11.
The final steps to achieve a 5-skill level include an upgrade recommendation and approval by _________ and ________.
- A.
Your rater and commander
- B.
Your flight chief and commander
- C.
Your supervisor and commander
- D.
Your trainer and commander
Correct Answer
C. Your supervisor and commander -
- 12.
To become a 7-Level, a trainee must be at least what rank?
- A.
SrA
- B.
SSgt
- C.
TSgt
- D.
MSgt
Correct Answer
B. SSgt -
- 13.
When can upgrade training for a trainee's 7-Level begin?
- A.
As a SrA
- B.
As a SrA with a promotion line number for SSgt
- C.
As a SSgt
- D.
As a SSgt with a promotion line to TSgt
Correct Answer
B. As a SrA with a promotion line number for SSgt -
- 14.
What is the minimum upgrade training time for a trainee, while in RETRAINING STATUS, as a 7-Skill Level?
- A.
6 months
- B.
9 months
- C.
12 months
- D.
15 months
Correct Answer
A. 6 months -
- 15.
What is the minimum upgrade training time for a trainee, NOT in RETRAINING STATUS, as a 7-Skill Level?
- A.
6 months
- B.
9 months
- C.
12 months
- D.
15 months
Correct Answer
C. 12 months -
- 16.
What are the first 2 requirements for being awarded the 9-Skill Level?
- A.
Be a MSgt and complete Course 14 (SNCO academy correspondence course)
- B.
Be a MSgt and complete SNCO academy in-residence
- C.
Be a SMSgt and complete Course 14
- D.
Be a SMSgt and complete SNCO academy in-residence
Correct Answer
D. Be a SMSgt and complete SNCO academy in-residence -
- 17.
Which of the following is not an enlisted tier?
- A.
Junior
- B.
Amn
- C.
NCO
- D.
SNCO
Correct Answer
A. Junior -
- 18.
For detailed information regarding enlisted tiers you can refer to which of the following AFIs?
- A.
AFI 36-2905
- B.
AFI 36-2602
- C.
AFI 36-2903
- D.
AFI 36-2618
Correct Answer
D. AFI 36-2618 -
- 19.
In the first enlisted tier, the focus is on adapting to the military profession and achieving what?
- A.
Your 5-Skill Level
- B.
General military knowledge
- C.
Technical proficiency
- D.
CCAF degree
Correct Answer
C. Technical proficiency -
- 20.
Most Airmen leaving technical training start their careers at either ________ or __________.
- A.
OSS or OGI
- B.
DIA or NSA
- C.
OGI or AOC
- D.
AOC or DGS
Correct Answer
C. OGI or AOC -
- 21.
If an Airman's assigned to an Air and Space Operations Center, which of the following teams might you be assigned to?
- A.
Targets and Tactical Assessment
- B.
Tanker Airlift Control Center
- C.
Sector Warning Center
- D.
Counter-Terrorism
Correct Answer
A. Targets and Tactical Assessment -
- 22.
What step in the ISR process begins with identifying the need for intelligence in the operational environment?
- A.
Strategy development
- B.
Planning and direction
- C.
Analysis and production
- D.
Processing and exploitation
Correct Answer
B. Planning and direction -
- 23.
What is a comprehensive list of information requirements identified by the commander as critical to facilitating timely information management and to the decision making process?
- A.
EEIs
- B.
PIRs
- C.
CCIRs
- D.
RFIs
Correct Answer
C. CCIRs -
- 24.
These are broad, continuing requirements that generally follow a fixed pattern
- A.
Standing requirements
- B.
Spot requirements
- C.
Responsive requirements
- D.
Ad hoc requirements
Correct Answer
A. Standing requirements -
- 25.
This requirement is developed to answer specific questions or solve specific problems
- A.
Answer
- B.
Standing
- C.
Time-sensitive
- D.
Spot
Correct Answer
D. Spot -
- 26.
What are the general statements of intelligence need?
- A.
EEIs
- B.
PIRs
- C.
CCIRs
- D.
RFIs
Correct Answer
B. PIRs -
- 27.
What defines a customer's specific intelligence information needs?
- A.
EEIs
- B.
PIRs
- C.
CCIRs
- D.
RFIs
Correct Answer
A. EEIs -
- 28.
What is an abbreviated operation plan that may require considerable expansion or alteration?
- A.
OPORD
- B.
CONPLAN
- C.
OPLAN
- D.
WARNORD
Correct Answer
B. CONPLAN -
- 29.
What is a complete and detailed joint plan containing a description of the concept of operations?
- A.
OPORD
- B.
CONPLAN
- C.
OPLAN
- D.
WARNORD
Correct Answer
C. OPLAN -
- 30.
Which if the following describes the unit's situation, mission, and activities the unit will conduct to achieve mission goals?
- A.
OPORD
- B.
CONPLAN
- C.
OPLAN
- D.
WARNORD
Correct Answer
A. OPORD -
- 31.
Which annex of a CONPLAN or OPLAN is used to describe the intelligence situation specific to a particular plan
- A.
Annex A
- B.
Annex B
- C.
Annex C
- D.
Annex D
Correct Answer
B. Annex B -
- 32.
Which portion of the ISR process involves tasking appropriate assets or resources to gather required information?
- A.
Dissemination and integration
- B.
Planning and direction
- C.
Collection
- D.
Analysis and production
Correct Answer
C. Collection -
- 33.
At the strategic level, who coordinates requirements through the NGA, NRO, and NSA?
- A.
Commander
- B.
A2
- C.
DIA
- D.
DIRNSA
Correct Answer
C. DIA -
- 34.
What collection management authority function focuses on the customer requirements, is all-source oriented, and advocates necessary information for collection?
- A.
Collection requirements management
- B.
Collection operations management
- C.
Collection analysis management
- D.
Collection prioritization management
Correct Answer
A. Collection requirements management -
- 35.
During peacetime operations, commanders task airborne and space borne platforms through the ATO.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. False -
- 36.
This principle of collection states that those individuals working the collection process must resist favoring or becoming too reliant on a particular sensor, source, system, or technique
- A.
Task organic assets first
- B.
Prioritize requirements
- C.
Early identification
- D.
Multi-discipline approach
Correct Answer
D. Multi-discipline approach -
- 37.
The collection process is only a premission function and assets may not be retasked while the mission is ongoing.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. False -
- 38.
What is the C2 weapon system that is the FOCAL POINT of all air operations during conflict?
- A.
DGS
- B.
AOC
- C.
JTF
- D.
ATO
Correct Answer
B. AOC -
- 39.
Which of the following are included in the results of the Air Tasking Cycle?
- A.
ROE
- B.
JIPTL
- C.
ACO
- D.
TOT
Correct Answer
B. JIPTL -
- 40.
The ATO, ACO, and SPINS provide targets, time over target (TOT) for supporting aircraft, and __________________.
- A.
Flight munitions
- B.
Mission plans
- C.
JIPTL
- D.
Situational awareness
Correct Answer
A. Flight munitions -
- 41.
_____________ is a complex task affecting not only the success of the overall mission, but pilots' lives.
- A.
ATO
- B.
SAID
- C.
Mission development
- D.
Mission planning
Correct Answer
D. Mission planning -
- 42.
Mission planning is different for every airframe and mission tasked to the aircraft.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. True -
- 43.
Today, mission planning is done through the use of _________, saving hours in preparation time.
- A.
Automated computers
- B.
Prioritization
- C.
Hard copy mission folders
- D.
Target development
Correct Answer
A. Automated computers -
- 44.
Knowing and understanding the fundamentals of mission planning is a must to develop an air campaign at the AOC, MPC, or squadron level.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. False -
- 45.
A well planned route provides a high probability of mission success and _________________.
- A.
Attainability
- B.
Efficiency
- C.
Productivity
- D.
Survivability
Correct Answer
D. Survivability -
- 46.
The three major route planning priorities are __________________.
- A.
Weapons delivery on target, aircrew survival, aircraft recovery
- B.
Aircrew survival, target employment, aircraft survival
- C.
Weapons delivery on target, aircrew survival, aircraft survival
- D.
Weapons delivery on target, pilot's survival, aircraft recovery
Correct Answer
A. Weapons delivery on target, aircrew survival, aircraft recovery -
- 47.
Which of the following is NOT a major route planning priority?
- A.
Delivery of the weapons on target
- B.
Survival of the aircrew
- C.
Recovery of classified materials
- D.
Recovery of the aircraft
Correct Answer
C. Recovery of classified materials -
- 48.
In addition to the route planning priorities, successful route planners must NOT consider which of the following?
- A.
Use entry and or re-entry corridors
- B.
Provide mutual defense support
- C.
Avoid enemy defenses
- D.
Use unacceptable reference points for navigation positioning
Correct Answer
A. Use entry and or re-entry corridors -
- 49.
Who is ultimately responsible for the success or failure of all mission planning?
- A.
Mission planners
- B.
Unit commander
- C.
COMAFFOR
- D.
Team lead
Correct Answer
B. Unit commander -
- 50.
The mission planning cell (MPC) is tasked to plan the mission. The MPC can include the aircrew/member, mission support personnel from operations, intelligence, tactics, weather, __________, and others.
- A.
Knowledge operators
- B.
Communications
- C.
Targeteers
- D.
Computer programmers
Correct Answer
B. Communications -
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Current Version
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Mar 14, 2022Quiz Edited by
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Apr 23, 2013Quiz Created by
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