1c8x1 Vol. 1 Ure's
All URE's for Vol. 1
- 1.
(001) Which enlisted training element is assigned by the supervisor in accordance with (IAW) AFI 36−2201, Classifying Military Personnel (Officer and Enlisted)?
- A.
A. Core task.
- B.
B. Duty competency.
- C.
C. Core competency.
- D.
D. Duty position task.
Correct Answer
D. D. Duty position task. -
- 2.
2. (001) Which enlisted training element is defined as an integrated bundle of expert knowledge and organizational skills inherent to a particular career field?
- A.
A. Core task.
- B.
B. Duty competency.
- C.
C. Core competency.
- D.
D. Duty position task.
Correct Answer
C. C. Core competency. -
- 3.
3. (001) Installing, maintaining, and repairing fixed and deployable air traffic, weather, ground air control, and warning radar systems are responsibilities of which Air Force specialty (AFS)?
- A.
A. Spectrum Operations.
- B.
B. Ground Radar Systems.
- C.
C. Cable and Antenna Systems.
- D.
D. Radio Frequency Transmission.
Correct Answer
B. B. Ground Radar Systems. -
- 4.
4. (001) Who is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field?
- A.
A. Unit training manger (UTM).
- B.
B. Base functional manager (BFM).
- C.
C. Major command functional manager (MFM).
- D.
D. Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).
Correct Answer
D. D. Air Force career field manager (AFCFM). -
- 5.
5. (001) Who assists with identifying qualified subject matter experts (SME) to help with the development of your specialty knowledge test (SKT) and your career development course (CDC)?
- A.
A. Unit training manger (UTM).
- B.
B. Base functional manager BFM).
- C.
C. Major command functional manager (MFM).
- D.
D. Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).
Correct Answer
C. C. Major command functional manager (MFM). -
- 6.
(001) What title is normally assigned to the ranking on-station 1C8 non-commissioned officer (NCO)?
- A.
A. Unit training manger (UTM).
- B.
B. Base functional manager (BFM).
- C.
C. Major command functional manager (MFM).
- D.
D. Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).
Correct Answer
B. B. Base functional manager (BFM). -
- 7.
7. (001) What is the main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW)?
- A.
A. Modify training.
- B.
B. Conduct climate training surveys.
- C.
C. Review the occupational analysis report.
- D.
D. Establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).
Correct Answer
D. D. Establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP). -
- 8.
(001) The senior radar element of the Theater Air Control System is the
- A.
A. Air Control Squadron.
- B.
B. Air Operations Center.
- C.
C. Air Traffic Control Squadron.
- D.
D. Combat Air Operations Squadron.
Correct Answer
D. D. Combat Air Operations Squadron. -
- 9.
(002) Which Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard includes "Hearing Conservation" safety information?
- A.
A. 48–20.
- B.
B. 91–50.
- C.
C. 91–203.
- D.
D. 91–301.
Correct Answer
A. A. 48–20. -
- 10.
(002) The Air Force achieves the Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) goal of minimizing incidences of chemically induced occupational illnesses and injuries in the work area/shops by
- A.
A. posting reports.
- B.
B. preventing injuries.
- C.
C. establishing guidance.
- D.
D. reporting safety hazards.
Correct Answer
C. C. establishing guidance. -
- 11.
(003) Which risk management (RM) principle states that most logical choices for accomplishing a mission are those that meet all mission requirements while exposing personnel and resources to the lowest acceptable risk?
- A.
A. Accept no unnecessary risk.
- B.
B. Make risk decisions at the appropriate level.
- C.
C. Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs.
- D.
D. Integrate RM into operations and planning at all levels.
Correct Answer
A. A. Accept no unnecessary risk. -
- 12.
(004) Which organization is responsible for air and space expeditionary force (AEF) sourcing of individual augmentees, Joint Manning Document authorizations, and managing replacements for 365-day or greater requirements?
- A.
A. Combatant Commander (CCDR).
- B.
B. Global Force Management (GFM).
- C.
C. Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC).
- D.
D. Commander Air Combat Command (COMACC).
Correct Answer
C. C. Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC). -
- 13.
(004) Which of the following places air and space expeditionary force (AEF) forces in a "ready to deploy" state and supports global requirements, home station requirements or support to Combatant Commanders (CCDR)?
- A.
A. Posturing.
- B.
B. Tempo bands.
- C.
C. Unit type codes.
- D.
D. Joint manning document.
Correct Answer
A. A. Posturing. -
- 14.
(004) Which of the following is the basic building block used in joint force planning and deployments of air and space expeditionary forces (AEF)?
- A.
A. Posturing.
- B.
B. Tempo bands.
- C.
C. Unit type codes.
- D.
D. Joint manning document.
Correct Answer
C. C. Unit type codes. -
- 15.
(004) Defense Support of Civil Authorities (DSCA), Humanitarian Relief Operations (HUMRO), Non-Combatant Evacuation Operations (NEO) and support to International Law Enforcement are all examples of
- A.
A. operational capabilities packages.
- B.
B. theater deployable communications.
- C.
C. manpower and equipment force packaging.
- D.
D. Air and Space Expeditionary Task Force (AETF) force modules.
Correct Answer
A. A. operational capabilities packages. -
- 16.
(005) A system designed as a commander’s ground maneuver used as a primary day/night reconnaissance, surveillance, target acquisition, and battle damage assessment system is called
- A.
A. an unmanned aerial vehicle (UAV).
- B.
B. a high altitude endurance (HAE) drone.
- C.
C. a tactical unmanned aerial vehicle (TUAV).
- D.
D. a theatre-directed threat assessment and response aircraft.
Correct Answer
C. C. a tactical unmanned aerial vehicle (TUAV). -
- 17.
(005) Which system is capable of identifying, sequencing, and separating aircraft; providing final approach guidance, and controlling instructions to aircraft at deployed locations in all types of weather?
- A.
A. Global Command and Control System (GCCS).
- B.
B. Theater Battle Management Core System (TBMCS).
- C.
C. Joint Worldwide Intelligence Communications System (JWICS).
- D.
D. Deployable Air Traffic-Control and landing Systems (DATCALS).
Correct Answer
D. D. Deployable Air Traffic-Control and landing Systems (DATCALS). -
- 18.
(005) The normal deployment response time of the 85th Engineering and Installation Squadron (EIS) is
- A.
A. 24 hours.
- B.
B. 36 hours.
- C.
C. 48 hours.
- D.
D. 72 hours.
Correct Answer
D. D. 72 hours. -
- 19.
(005) Which Department of Defense (DOD) program collects, processes, produces, disseminates, and uses information?
- A.
A. Global Information Grid (GIG).
- B.
B. Global Command and Control System (GCCS).
- C.
C. Theater Battle Management Core System (TBMCS).
- D.
D. Command, control, communications, computers, intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance (C4ISR).
Correct Answer
D. D. Command, control, communications, computers, intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance (C4ISR). -
- 20.
(005) What system provides connectivity between the US and allied forces for critical missions and enhances worldwide readiness, mobility, responsiveness, and operations?
- A.
A. Global Information Grid (GIG).
- B.
B. Global Broadcast Service (GBS).
- C.
C. Global Command and Control System (GCCS).
- D.
D. Theater Battle Management Core System (TBMCS).
Correct Answer
A. A. Global Information Grid (GIG). -
- 21.
(005) Which system can be deployed in either the Control Reporting Center or Control Reporting Element configurations?
- A.
A. Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS).
- B.
B. Ground Theater Air Control (GTACS).
- C.
C. Base Control System-Fixed (BCS-F).
- D.
D. Global Broadcast Service (GBS).
Correct Answer
B. B. Ground Theater Air Control (GTACS). -
- 22.
(006) In what year did the Air Force finalize and publish its information operations (IO) doctrine and the Joint Staff publish its IO doctrine?
- A.
A. 1994.
- B.
B. 1995.
- C.
C. 1997.
- D.
D. 1998.
Correct Answer
D. D. 1998. -
- 23.
(006) Which of these are directive publications that provide essential procedural guidance on implementing Air Force policies?
- A.
A. Air Force Manuals.
- B.
B. Air Force Pamphlets.
- C.
C. Air Force Instructions.
- D.
D. Air Force Policy Directives.
Correct Answer
C. C. Air Force Instructions. -
- 24.
(006) Which of these are directive policy statements by Office of the Secretary of the Air Force and HQ USAF for initiating, governing, or regulating actions of conduct, within their specified areas of responsibility?
- A.
A. Air Force Doctrines.
- B.
B. Air Force Pamphlets.
- C.
C. Air Force Instructions.
- D.
D. Air Force Policy Directives.
Correct Answer
D. D. Air Force Policy Directives. -
- 25.
(007) The measures taken to efficiently and effectively protect Air Force information by delegating authority to the lowest levels possible best defines
- A.
A. Operational security (OPSEC).
- B.
B. Information security (INFOSEC).
- C.
C. Computer security (COMPUSEC).
- D.
D. Communication security (COMSEC).
Correct Answer
B. B. Information security (INFOSEC). -
- 26.
(007) Which mandatory item of a Privacy Act Statement best describes the reason information is collected?
- A.
A. Purpose.
- B.
B. Authority.
- C.
C. Disclosure.
- D.
D. Routine use.
Correct Answer
A. A. Purpose. -
- 27.
(007) Which mandatory item of a Privacy Act Statement best describes providing a list of where and why the information will be disclosed outside the Department of Defense (DOD)?
- A.
A. Purpose.
- B.
B. Authority.
- C.
C. Disclosure.
- D.
D. Routine use.
Correct Answer
D. D. Routine use. -
- 28.
(007) Guidance for posting information on Air Force Web sites is outlined in
- A.
A. AFI 33–108.
- B.
B. AFI 33–115.
- C.
C. AFI 33–200.
- D.
D. AFI 33–332.
Correct Answer
B. B. AFI 33–115. -
- 29.
(007) Official guidance on individual security clearances and permitting access to classified information can be found in
- A.
A. AFI 31–301.
- B.
B. AFI 31–401.
- C.
C. AFI 31–501.
- D.
D. AFI 31–601.
Correct Answer
C. C. AFI 31–501. -
- 30.
(007) What category is used to identify information that if disclosed would result in the loss, misuse, modification, or unauthorized access that might adversely affect national security?
- A.
A. Secret.
- B.
B. Confidential.
- C.
C. For official use only.
- D.
D. Sensitive but unclassified.
Correct Answer
D. D. Sensitive but unclassified. -
- 31.
(007) The communication security (COMSEC) program is designed to
- A.
A. relocate classified material to strengthen security.
- B.
B. conduct assessments to evaluate compromise of national security.
- C.
C. deflect unauthorized interception and analysis of compromising emanations.
- D.
D. detect and correct procedural weaknesses that could expose critical information.
Correct Answer
D. D. detect and correct procedural weaknesses that could expose critical information. -
- 32.
(007) Guidance on Air Force messaging is provided in
- A.
A. AFI 33–119.
- B.
B. AFI 33–129.
- C.
C. AFI 33–219.
- D.
D. AFI 33–329.
Correct Answer
A. A. AFI 33–119. -
- 33.
(007) Which form is used as a log to record visitors in restricted areas?
- A.
A. AF Form 1019.
- B.
B. AF Form 1109.
- C.
C. AF Form 1119.
- D.
D. AF Form 1190.
Correct Answer
B. B. AF Form 1109. -
- 34.
(008) The Air Force Information Assurance (IA) Program is detailed in
- A.
A. AFI 33–100.
- B.
B. AFI 33–200.
- C.
C. AFI 33–300.
- D.
D. AFI 33–400.
Correct Answer
B. B. AFI 33–200. -
- 35.
(008) Which document defines how to implement the computer security (COMPUSEC) portion of Information Assurance (IA) to AF networks and computer security?
- A.
A. AFMAN 33–202.
- B.
B. AFMAN 33–282.
- C.
C. AFMAN 33–283.
- D.
D. AFMAN 33–326.
Correct Answer
B. B. AFMAN 33–282. -
- 36.
(008) What term best describes unintended signals or noise appearing external to a piece of communications equipment?
- A.
A. Emission.
- B.
B. Emulation.
- C.
C. Emanation.
- D.
D. Signal leakage.
Correct Answer
C. C. Emanation. -
- 37.
(008) An unclassified term referring to technical investigations for compromising emanations from electrically operated data processing equipment is known as
- A.
A. Emission security (EMSEC).
- B.
B. Computer security (COMPUSEC).
- C.
C. Communication security (COMSEC).
- D.
D. Telecommunications Electronic Material Protected from Emanating Spurious Transmissions (TEMPEST).
Correct Answer
D. D. Telecommunications Electronic Material Protected from Emanating Spurious Transmissions (TEMPEST). -
- 38.
(008) Which condition indicates there is no apparent terrorist activity against computer networks?
- A.
A. INFOCON 2.
- B.
B. INFOCON 3.
- C.
C. INFOCON 4.
- D.
D. INFOCON 5.
Correct Answer
D. D. INFOCON 5. -
- 39.
(009) When the level of security requires the greatest possible deterrence against hostile acts resources are designated priority?
- A.
A. “PL1.”
- B.
B. “PL2.”
- C.
C. “PL3.”
- D.
D. “PL4.”
Correct Answer
A. A. “PL1.” -
- 40.
(009) When the level of security requires a reasonable degree of deterrence against hostile acts resources are designated priority?
- A.
A. “PL1.”
- B.
B. “PL2.”
- C.
C. “PL3.”
- D.
D. “PL4.”
Correct Answer
C. C. “PL3.” -
- 41.
(009) Which form would you use to properly label removable storage media containing "top secret" information?
- A.
A. SF 706.
- B.
B. SF 707.
- C.
C. SF 708.
- D.
D. SF 710.
Correct Answer
A. A. SF 706. -
- 42.
(009) Which form would you use to properly label removable storage media containing "secret" information?
- A.
A. SF 706.
- B.
B. SF 707.
- C.
C. SF 708.
- D.
D. SF 710.
Correct Answer
B. B. SF 707. -
- 43.
(009) Which form would you use to properly label removable storage media containing "confidential" information?
- A.
A. SF 706.
- B.
B. SF 707
- C.
C. SF 708.
- D.
D. SF 710.
Correct Answer
C. C. SF 708. -
- 44.
(010) The two categories of the Open System Interconnect (OSI) reference model are
- A.
A. Data and Lower Layers.
- B.
B. Data Link and Physical Layers.
- C.
C. Application and Internet Layers.
- D.
D. Application and Data Transport Layers.
Correct Answer
D. D. Application and Data Transport Layers. -
- 45.
(010) What layer of the Open System Interconnect (OSI) model provides reliable transit of data across a physical network link?
- A.
A. Session.
- B.
B. Network.
- C.
C. Data Link.
- D.
D. Presentation.
Correct Answer
C. C. Data Link. -
- 46.
(010) Network switches and bridges operate at what Open System Interconnect (OSI) layer?
- A.
A. Network.
- B.
B. Physical.
- C.
C. Data Link.
- D.
D. Transport.
Correct Answer
C. C. Data Link. -
- 47.
(010) At what Open System Interconnect (OSI) layer are virtual circuits established, maintained, and terminated?
- A.
A. Network.
- B.
B. Physical.
- C.
C. Data Link.
- D.
D. Transport.
Correct Answer
D. D. Transport. -
- 48.
010) Common data compression and encryption schemes are used at what Open System Interconnect (OSI) layer?
- A.
A. Application.
- B.
B. Session.
- C.
C. Presentation.
- D.
D. Transport.
Correct Answer
C. C. Presentation. -
- 49.
(010) What Open System Interconnect (OSI) layer is closest to the end user?
- A.
A. Session.
- B.
B. Transport.
- C.
C. Application.
- D.
D. Presentation.
Correct Answer
C. C. Application. -
- 50.
(010) What topology defines the way in which devices communicate, and data is transmitted, throughout the network?
- A.
A. Physical.
- B.
B. Logical.
- C.
C. Hybrid.
- D.
D. Star.
Correct Answer
B. B. Logical. -
Quiz Review Timeline +
Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.
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Current Version
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Mar 21, 2022Quiz Edited by
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Dec 17, 2015Quiz Created by
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