1a151 Flight Engineer Journeyman

100 Questions

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Engineer Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
     Which crew member is the designated aircraft system and performance expert?
    • A. 

      Pilot

    • B. 

      Navigator

    • C. 

      Crew chief

    • D. 

      Flight engineer

  • 2. 
     If a loadmaster or boom operator is not required as part of the crew, which of the following responsibilities is accomplished by the flight engineer?
    • A. 

      Ensure cabin or cargo compartments are secured

    • B. 

      Boom operator’s preflight is completed

    • C. 

      Cargo items are loaded properly

    • D. 

      Passengers are secured

  • 3. 
     What would you coordinate on multiple stops or special missions with other agencies before the next flight or mission?
    • A. 

      . Box lunches.

    • B. 

      Weather reporting

    • C. 

      Lodging requirements

    • D. 

      Maintenance or servicing requirements. Maintenance or servicing requirements. Maintenance or servicing requirements

  • 4. 
     Who is responsible for ensuring the aircraft maintenance forms are properly filled out?
    • A. 

      Crew chief

    • B. 

      Flight engineer

    • C. 

      Aircraft commander

    • D. 

      . Crewmember annotating the discrepancy

  • 5. 
     What concept provides aircrew members the ability to work together in a smooth and timely manner to resolve certain situations?
    • A. 

      Group management

    • B. 

      Crew resource management.

    • C. 

      Mentoring and management

    • D. 

      Mission objective management.

  • 6. 
     What portion of the Career Field Education and Training Plan outlines all tasks an aviator must accomplish in order to progress to the next skill level?
    • A. 

      Job Task Survey

    • B. 

      Job Task Analysis

    • C. 

      Specialty Training Standard

    • D. 

      Air Force Enlisted Classification Directory

  • 7. 
     which skill level are you given the additional responsibilities of planning and scheduling work assignments?
    • A. 

      Three and five skill levels

    • B. 

      Seven skill level

    • C. 

      Nine skill level

    • D. 

      All skill levels

  • 8. 
     All flight engineers begin their career
    • A. 

      As volunteers

    • B. 

      Out of basic training.

    • C. 

      Through special placement

    • D. 

      With a senior career enlisted aviator’s recommendation

  • 9. 
     What training is scheduled with Aircrew Fundamentals course to ensure a smooth transition into graduate flying training?
    • A. 

      . Egress training

    • B. 

      Security training

    • C. 

      Crew resource management training

    • D. 

      Physiological training

  • 10. 
     What step in the career path may be the highest that some flight engineers will get?
    • A. 

      Mission qualified

    • B. 

      Instructor

    • C. 

      Evaluator

    • D. 

      Functional check flight (FCF) qualified

  • 11. 
     Potential energy is defined as energy that
    • A. 

      . can be released

    • B. 

      Occupies space and has weight

    • C. 

      Occupies space and has weight

    • D. 

      An object possesses because of its motion. an object possesses because of its motion. an object possesses because of its motion.

  • 12. 
     The product of a force and the distance of the force from its axis is the definition of  
    • A. 

      Power

    • B. 

      Pressure

    • C. 

      Torque

    • D. 

      Torsion

  • 13. 
     A body at rest remains at rest and a body in motion remains in motion unless acted upon by an outside force is the law of
    • A. 

      Acceleration

    • B. 

      Action and reaction

    • C. 

      Inertia

    • D. 

      Momentum

  • 14. 
     Boyle’s law states that, if the temperature remains constant, the density of any gas is
    • A. 

      Directly proportional to the pressure

    • B. 

      Inversely proportional to the pressure.

    • C. 

      Inversely proportional to the absolute temperature

    • D. 

      Directly proportional to the absolute temperature

  • 15. 
     Which statement describes Bernoulli’s principle?
    • A. 

      Decrease in airspeed decreases the air pressure over a wing

    • B. 

      Decrease in airspeed increases the air pressure over a wing.

    • C. 

      . Pressure is directly proportional to speed

    • D. 

      Speed does not affect pressure

  • 16. 
    Which of these airspeeds is calibrated airspeed corrected for compressibility? 
    • A. 

      True airspeed.

    • B. 

      Equivalent airspeed.

    • C. 

      Basic airspeed

    • D. 

      Density airspeed.

  • 17. 
     Which types of clouds usually mean trouble for aviators?
    • A. 

      Large stratus clouds

    • B. 

      Puffy cumulus clouds

    • C. 

      Puffy cirrostratus clouds

    • D. 

      Large cumulonimbus clouds

  • 18. 
     Where do rotor clouds form?  
    • A. 

      Near virga

    • B. 

      High in the troposphere

    • C. 

      The lee side of the mountains

    • D. 

      Below 6,500 feet means sea level

  • 19. 
     What separates two air masses and can be active or inactive?
    • A. 

      Virga

    • B. 

      Microburst’s

    • C. 

      Frontal zones

    • D. 

      Source regions

  • 20. 
     Which air masses are cold and dry and have little moisture?
    • A. 

      . Maritime polar

    • B. 

      Continental polar

    • C. 

      Maritime tropical

    • D. 

      Continental tropical

  • 21. 
     What condition is a good indicator of an impending strong thunderstorm?
    • A. 

      Low dew points

    • B. 

      High dew points

    • C. 

      Northwesterly winds

    • D. 

      Southwesterly winds

  • 22. 
     What weather condition should you be especially alert for?
    • A. 

      Rain

    • B. 

      . Cold fronts

    • C. 

      Wind shear

    • D. 

      . Stationary fronts

  • 23. 
     What category of turbulence may cause structural damage to an aircraft?  
    • A. 

      Light

    • B. 

      Medium

    • C. 

      Extreme

    • D. 

      Moderate

  • 24. 
     What wind speed does a pennant protruding from the shaft of a wind direction symbol represent?  
    • A. 

      5 knots

    • B. 

      10 knots

    • C. 

      25 knots

    • D. 

      . 50 knots

  • 25. 
     When is an aviation routine weather report observation taken?  
    • A. 

      Between 2300–0000 hours each day.

    • B. 

      Between 1200–1300 hours each day

    • C. 

      . Between 55–59 minutes past the hour

    • D. 

      Between 01–05 minutes past the hour. Between 01–05 minutes past the hour. Between 01–05 minutes past the hour. Between 01–05 minutes past the hour

  • 26. 
     Which satellite imagery combines visual and infrared satellite imagery (IR) into a color enhanced 3-dimensional image used to discriminate between low-mid and high-level clouds and fog?
    • A. 

      Microwave imagery (MI).

    • B. 

      Water vapor imagery (WV).

    • C. 

      Multi-spectral imagery (MSI).

    • D. 

      Next generation radar (NEXRAD).

  • 27. 
    What are excellent tools for determining storm movement and intensity changes?  
    • A. 

      Velocity products

    • B. 

      . Microwave imagery loops

    • C. 

      Radar reflectivity time-lapse loops

    • D. 

      Infrared satellite imagery products

  • 28. 
     What distance from the radar can microburst usually be detected and displayed?  
    • A. 

      10 nautical miles (nm).

    • B. 

      20 nm

    • C. 

      30 nm

    • D. 

      40 nm.

  • 29. 
     The weather briefing process is designed to occur in how many phases?  
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 30. 
     Ideally, at a minimum, how many hours in advance should the mission planning forecast be requested?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      12

    • C. 

      24

    • D. 

      48

  • 31. 
     In relation to the angle of attack and lift, what produces lift when the angle of attack is zero?  
    • A. 

      Decreased pressure on the bottom surface of the wing due to decreased thrust.

    • B. 

      Decreased pressure on the upper surface of the wing due to airfoil shape

    • C. 

      Increased pressure on the bottom of the wing due to increased impact pressure.

    • D. 

      . Increased pressure on the upper surface of the wing due to increased thrust

  • 32. 
     The primary reason that makes icing a flying hazard is that the ice
    • A. 

      . changes the camber of the wings

    • B. 

      Decreases performance ceiling of the aircraft.

    • C. 

      Decreases airspeed that will stall the aircraft

    • D. 

      Increases weight when it builds up on the wings

  • 33. 
     Which law of physics is probably the most important to governing helicopter motion?
    • A. 

      Newton’s first law

    • B. 

      Newton’s second law

    • C. 

      The Bernoulli principle

    • D. 

      The Coriolis force principle

  • 34. 
     How many distinct phases can an autorotation be divided?
    • A. 

      One

    • B. 

      Two

    • C. 

      Three

    • D. 

      Four

  • 35. 
     What are the immediate indications of a helicopter’s power loss?
    • A. 

      A pitch up of the nose and an out-of-trim condition.

    • B. 

      A pitch down of the nose and an immediate roll to the left

    • C. 

      Rotor revolutions per minute (rpm) decay and an out-of-trim condition

    • D. 

      Rotor rpm decay and an immediate roll to the left

  • 36. 
     Aerodynamically, propeller thrust is the result of  
    • A. 

      Shape and angle of the propeller blade

    • B. 

      Shape and torque

    • C. 

      Pitch and torque

    • D. 

      Pitch and rpm

  • 37. 
     How can helicopter retreating blade stall be eliminated?  
    • A. 

      . Increasing collective pitch

    • B. 

      Decreasing the severity of the maneuver

    • C. 

      Gradually decreasing altitude.

    • D. 

      Decreasing revolution-per-minute (rpm).

  • 38. 
     Which of the following causes blades to lead and lag?
    • A. 

      Newton’s first law

    • B. 

      Bernoulli principle

    • C. 

      . Fowler flap principle

    • D. 

      Coriolis force principle.

  • 39. 
     With tilt-rotor aircraft, in a fixed nacelle position, what control input causes pitch characteristics and airspeed changes similar to helicopters?
    • A. 

      Thrust control lever

    • B. 

      Longitudinal stick

    • C. 

      Differential longitudinal cyclic

    • D. 

      Collective

  • 40. 
     What effect on center of gravity (CG) if any is introduced as the engine nacelles are rotated forward in transition to forward flight?
    • A. 

      CG moves forward and down

    • B. 

      CG moves forward and up.

    • C. 

      CG moves aft and up.

    • D. 

      No effect on CG.

  • 41. 
     DOD en route flight information publications (FLIP) provide basic airfield information and flight procedures for
    • A. 

      US military air operations only.

    • B. 

      US and European air operations.

    • C. 

      US, European and North African air operations.

    • D. 

      US, European, North African and Middle Eastern air operations.

  • 42. 
     New flight information publications (FLIP) volumes are normally issued every  
    • A. 

      Six weeks.

    • B. 

      Six months.

    • C. 

      Eight weeks.

    • D. 

      Eight months.

  • 43. 
     According to the international civil aviation organization (ICAO) International Phonetic Alphabet, what is the phonetic alphabetic word for the letter “R”?  
    • A. 

      Roger

    • B. 

      Radar

    • C. 

      Raider

    • D. 

      Romeo

  • 44. 
     The purpose of the automatic terminal information service (ATIS) is to
    • A. 

      Provide local area weather.

    • B. 

      Provide runway information.

    • C. 

      Relieve frequency congestion.

    • D. 

      List navigation frequencies in the local area.

  • 45. 
     On the approach plate, a designated circling approach is identified by the name of the approach followed by  
    • A. 

      The word “circling.”

    • B. 

      A three-digit number.

    • C. 

      A three-character designator.

    • D. 

      Letters such as “A,” “B,” or “C.”

  • 46. 
     What combination of colored lights from a two-bar visual approach slope indicator (VASI) would indicate that the aircraft is on glide path?
    • A. 

      RED over RED.

    • B. 

      WHITE over RED.

    • C. 

      RED over WHITE.

    • D. 

      WHITE over WHITE.

  • 47. 
     The compass rose figure on aeronautical charts is always oriented to
    • A. 

      True north.

    • B. 

      Magnetic north.

    • C. 

      To the top of the chart.

    • D. 

      The next closest navigational aid (NAVAID).

  • 48. 
     A Chart Updating Manual (CHUM) does not depict manmade obstacles less than how many feet?  
    • A. 

      99

    • B. 

      175

    • C. 

      190

    • D. 

      199

  • 49. 
     What is not found in the Notice of Airman (NOTAM) information?  
    • A. 

      En route hazards.

    • B. 

      Restrictions to flight.

    • C. 

      Reliability of airport facilities and services.

    • D. 

      Published procedures in the flight information publication (FLIP).

  • 50. 
     What are aircrew members required to do during critical phases of flight?  
    • A. 

      Monitor the radios.

    • B. 

      Monitor the interphone.

    • C. 

      Monitor navigational aid (NAVAID) signals.

    • D. 

      Relay and validate air traffic control (ATC) calls to the pilots.

  • 51. 
     What type of radio systems are the very high frequency (VHF) and ultrahigh frequency (UHF) radios?
    • A. 

      Line of sight.

    • B. 

      Unidirectional.

    • C. 

      Low frequency.

    • D. 

      Two-way signal.

  • 52. 
     What radios provide voice and data communications with capabilities up to 12,000 miles or more?  
    • A. 

      High frequency (HF).

    • B. 

      Amplitude modulation (AM).

    • C. 

      Very high frequency (VHF).

    • D. 

      Ultrahigh frequency (UHF).

  • 53. 
     What aircraft equipment uses the non-directional beacon (NDB) signals for navigation?  
    • A. 

      Very high frequency omnirange (VOR).

    • B. 

      Automatic direction finder (ADF).

    • C. 

      Tactical air navigation (TACAN).

    • D. 

      Radio compass.

  • 54. 
     What are the two types of information that the tactical air navigation (TACAN) system provides the pilot for navigation?
    • A. 

      Bearing and slant range distance.

    • B. 

      Bearing and estimated arrival time.

    • C. 

      Ground speed and slant range distance.

    • D. 

      Ground speed and estimated arrival time.

  • 55. 
     What type navigation system only delivers bearing information?  
    • A. 

      MB

    • B. 

      Tactical air navigation (TACAN).

    • C. 

      Very high frequency omnirange (VOR).

    • D. 

      VORTAC.

  • 56. 
     Which navigation system provides an approach path to guide an aircraft to a proper alignment and descent to the landing runway during final approach?
    • A. 

      Instrument landing system (ILS).

    • B. 

      Automatic direction Finder (ADF).

    • C. 

      Tactical air navigation (TACAN).

    • D. 

      Tri-orbital constant azimuth system (TCAS).

  • 57. 
     Which navigation system is used to guide aircraft during takeoff and approach and provides three-dimensional position information from ground equipment?
    • A. 

      Instrument landing system (ILS).

    • B. 

      Microwave landing system (MLS).

    • C. 

      Glide slope positioning system (GPS).

    • D. 

      Tri-orbital constant azimuth system (TCAS).

  • 58. 
     A global positioning system (GPS) does not provide what information?
    • A. 

      Velocity

    • B. 

      Altitude

    • C. 

      Heading

    • D. 

      Navigational aid (NAVAID) identification.

  • 59. 
    What navigation system uses self programmed waypoints using onboard equipment for navigation?
    • A. 

      Area navigation (RNAV).

    • B. 

      Automatic direction finding (ADF).

    • C. 

      Tactical air navigation (TACAN).

    • D. 

      The global positioning system (GPS).

  • 60. 
     What is the difference between a radio magnetic indicator (RMI) and a bearing distance heading indicator (BDHI)?  
    • A. 

      RMI has bearing indicator while BDHI does not.

    • B. 

      BDHI has To/From indicator while RMI does not.

    • C. 

      RMI has course-heading indicator while BDHI does not.

    • D. 

      BDHI has distance measuring equipment (DME) indicator while RMI does not.

  • 61. 
     In reference to aircraft position orientation, what is true of a course in comparison to a radial?  
    • A. 

      Course is always opposite the radial.

    • B. 

      The course is always the reciprocal of the radial.

    • C. 

      A course follows the same flight path as a radial.

    • D. 

      A course may be parallel, perpendicular or at any other angle to a radial.

  • 62. 
     What is the inbound course to the station if the aircraft is on the 180 degree radial and the aircraft is heading to the station?  
    • A. 

      90 degree heading.

    • B. 

      360 degree heading.

    • C. 

      180 degree heading.

    • D. 

      270 degree heading.

  • 63. 
     What direction would an aircraft need to fly in to reestablish course when the course deviation indicator (CDI) is to the right of the course arrow on the horizontal situation indicator (HSI)?
    • A. 

      Towards right.

    • B. 

      Towards left.

    • C. 

      No turn is needed (on course).

    • D. 

      Opposite of the current heading.

  • 64. 
     What glide slope indication on the attitude director indicator (ADI) requires correction to avoid hitting terrain or obstacles?
    • A. 

      On the center mark.

    • B. 

      Below the center mark.

    • C. 

      Above the center mark.

    • D. 

      To the left of the center mark.

  • 65. 
     Screen height is measured at what point on the runway where the obstacle identification surface (OIS) begins.  
    • A. 

      2/3 down the runway.

    • B. 

      Departure end of the runway.

    • C. 

      Midpoint of the departure runway.

    • D. 

      Approach end of the departure runway.

  • 66. 
     What is the required obstacle clearance (ROC) in feet per nautical mile (ft/NM) that has been added to the obstacle identification surface (OIS)?  
    • A. 

      40 feet.

    • B. 

      48 feet.

    • C. 

      75 feet.

    • D. 

      152 feet.

  • 67. 
     You are flying a standard instrument departure (SID) with a depicted climb rate chart that lists the required climbs in feet per minute at 100-knot increments. The required climb rate is 325 feet per minute in the 100-knot column. Use the following formulas to determine required climb gradient: (%climb gradient = VVI  GS) and (ft/NM = %climb gradient  60)
    • A. 

      170 ft/NM.

    • B. 

      175 ft/NM.

    • C. 

      180 ft/NM.

    • D. 

      195 ft/NM.

  • 68. 
     Which condition is guaranteed from the initial approach fix to landing as long as the aircraft is flown according to the published procedure?  
    • A. 

      Assured landing.

    • B. 

      Assured alignment

    • C. 

      Adequate weather and traffic clearance.

    • D. 

      Adequate terrain and obstacle clearance.

  • 69. 
     On an approach plate profile view, what would an altitude depiction of “3300” mean?  
    • A. 

      Minimum altitude.

    • B. 

      Maximum altitude.

    • C. 

      Mandatory altitude.

    • D. 

      Recommended altitude.

  • 70. 
     What type of maneuver is a circling approach?  
    • A. 

      Radar

    • B. 

      Visual

    • C. 

      Timing

    • D. 

      Vectoring

  • 71. 
     What is the final point on an instrument procedure where the decision is made to either land or go-around?  
    • A. 

      Final approach fix.

    • B. 

      Initial approach fix.

    • C. 

      Visual descent point.

    • D. 

      Missed approach point.

  • 72. 
     The traffic alerting and collision avoidance system (TCAS) provide flight crews with  
    • A. 

      Accurate position coordinates.

    • B. 

      Landing clearance information.

    • C. 

      Warnings and traffic advisories.

    • D. 

      Bearing and slant-range information.

  • 73. 
     What indication on the traffic alerting and collision avoidance system (TCAS) authorizes pilots to take evasive maneuvers and deviate from air traffic control (ATC) clearances?  
    • A. 

      Traffic alert.

    • B. 

      Traffic advisory.

    • C. 

      Collision advisory.

    • D. 

      Resolution advisory.

  • 74. 
     What code is set in the Mode 3 function of the transponder for flying visual flight rules (VFR)?  
    • A. 

      1000

    • B. 

      1000

    • C. 

      1400

    • D. 

      7100

  • 75. 
     The pilot in command (PIC) will close an activated flight plan  
    • A. 

      By aircraft radio only.

    • B. 

      By telephone call only.

    • C. 

      By any means of communication available, even by collect call.

    • D. 

      When no notification is necessary because the flight plan deactivates automatically.

  • 76. 
     Which of the following is an approved form to list passengers on?
    • A. 

      Host nation required form.

    • B. 

      DD Form 175, Military Flight Plan.

    • C. 

      DD Form 1801, DOD International Flight Plan.

    • D. 

      MAJCOM-approved form authorized in the MAJCOM/MAJCOM mission design series (MDS) specific supplement to AFI 11–202, Volume 3, General Flight Rules.

  • 77. 
    Which of the following is not required to be as a minimum on the flight authorizations? 
    • A. 

      Name, grade of passengers carried on the aircraft.

    • B. 

      Type, serial number, and call sign of aircraft or formation and mission symbol.

    • C. 

      . A designated pilot-in-command, or formation flight leader of each flight or flight element.

    • D. 

      Name, grade, and crew position of each crewmember, operational support flyer, or any other official personnel (use the position designation established by the MAJCOM) required for the mission or flight.

  • 78. 
     Commanders ensure that all off-station training flights meet valid training requirements and  
    • A. 

      Senior officers/NCOs are onboard.

    • B. 

      Will present a positive image of the Air Force.

    • C. 

      That only instructor crewmembers are onboard.

    • D. 

      Will not violate Federal Aviation Administration rules.

  • 79. 
     What will the pilot in command (PIC) ensure before departing on an instrument flight rules (IFR) flight in controlled airspace?
    • A. 

      That an air traffic control (ATC) clearance is obtained.

    • B. 

      That a Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) clearance is obtained.

    • C. 

      That an instrument flight rules (IFR) certified flight engineer is onboard.

    • D. 

      That weather is above minimums for a visual meteorological conditions (VMC) departure.

  • 80. 
     Which of the following is not a condition that nonstandard formation flights may be conducted?  
    • A. 

      Operating under instrument flight rules (IFR).

    • B. 

      Operating within an authorized altitude reservation (ALTRV).

    • C. 

      Operating in airspace specifically designed for a special activity.

    • D. 

      Operating under the provisions of a letter of agreement (LOA).

  • 81. 
     Which of the following is in the correct order of priority for aircraft of different categories, in having the right-of-way?
    • A. 

      (1) Airships, (2) balloons, and (3) gliders.

    • B. 

      (1) Rotary wing aircraft, (2) balloons, and (3) gliders.

    • C. 

      (1) Balloons, (2) gliders, and (3) aircraft towing or refueling other aircraft.

    • D. 

      (1) Fixed-wing aircraft, (2) rotary-wing aircraft, and (3) aircraft towing or refueling other aircraft.

  • 82. 
     Which publication contains communications failure procedures?  
    • A. 

      The aircraft’s –5 technical order.

    • B. 

      Flight Information Handbook (FIH).

    • C. 

      Instrument flight rules (IFR) supplement publication.

    • D. 

      Flight information publication (FLIP) area planning.

  • 83. 
     Who or which agency will prescribe the use of night vision goggles (NVGs) during aircraft operations?  
    • A. 

      MAJCOMs.

    • B. 

      Wing commanders.

    • C. 

      Flying unit commander.

    • D. 

      Pilot in command (PIC).

  • 84. 
     What lights will be displayed immediately before engine start, or as soon as possible after engine start if aircraft systems preclude the use of these lights prior to start, till after engine shutdown?  
    • A. 

      Landing lights.

    • B. 

      Formation lights.

    • C. 

      Cargo loading lights.

    • D. 

      Red anti-collision lights.

  • 85. 
     What light may helicopters substitute for an operable landing light provided sufficient light for landing is produced by the light?  
    • A. 

      Spot light.

    • B. 

      Hoist light.

    • C. 

      Hover light.

    • D. 

      Search light.

  • 86. 
     For visual flight rules (VFR) flights the pilot in command (PIC) will review the flight information publication (FLIP) planning document appropriate to the area of operations to ensure  
    • A. 

      Fuel is available.

    • B. 

      Carrying passengers are authorized.

    • C. 

      That VFR operations are authorized.

    • D. 

      No other aircraft is flying under VFR operations.

  • 87. 
     Which type of aircraft may be permitted by air traffic control (ATC) to operate in lower visibility conditions if maneuvered at a speed that will give adequate opportunity to observe other traffic or any obstacles in time to avoid collision?  
    • A. 

      Balloons

    • B. 

      Helicopters

    • C. 

      Civilian fixed-wing aircraft.

    • D. 

      Air Force fixed-wing aircraft.

  • 88. 
    What must pilots do before commencing any instrument flight rules (IFR) flight that originates in or penetrates controlled airspace? 
    • A. 

      Obtain an air traffic control (ATC) clearance.

    • B. 

      Contact tower for landing instructions.

    • C. 

      Land and check Notices to Airmen (NOTAMs).

    • D. 

      Check weather conditions for the alternate field.

  • 89. 
     How much can the required visibility minimum be reduced for a helicopter flying a Category A aircraft  approach?  
    • A. 

      Helicopter may not reduce any requirements for any type of approach.

    • B. 

      May be reduced to one-half of the published visibility minimums, but in no case may the minimums be reduced to less than ⅛ SM or 400 ft runway visual range (RVR).

    • C. 

      May be reduced to one-half of the published visibility minimums, but in no case may the minimums be reduced to less than ¼ SM or 1200 ft RVR.

    • D. 

      May be reduced to two-thirds of the published visibility minimums, but in no case may the minimums be reduced to less than ⅓ SM or 1600 ft RVR.

  • 90. 
     Which criteria, if required to fly the planned approach, requires a pilot to designate an alternate airport on all instrument flight rules (IFR) flight plans regardless of weather?  
    • A. 

      A monitored navigation aid.

    • B. 

      Instrument landing system is the only available navigation aid.

    • C. 

      Global positioning system is the only available navigation aid.

    • D. 

      Very high frequency omnirange and tactical air navigation equipment navigational facilities are collocated as the only available navigation aid.

  • 91. 
     What will MAJCOMs prescribe if they authorize holding at a remote or island destination?
    • A. 

      Oxygen requirements.

    • B. 

      Navigational aid requirements.

    • C. 

      Weather criteria and recovery procedures.

    • D. 

      Requirements for selecting another alternate

  • 92. 
     The ceiling and visibility weather requirements for a helicopter when selecting an alternate airport must have a ceiling of at least  
    • A. 

      500 ft or 200 ft above the lowest compatible published landing minimum, whichever is higher, and a visibility of 2 SM or 1 SM above the lowest compatible published landing minimum, whichever is higher.

    • B. 

      700 ft or 500 ft above the lowest compatible published landing minimum, whichever is higher, and a visibility of 1 SM or ½ SM above the lowest compatible published landing minimum, whichever is higher.

    • C. 

      1,000 ft or 500 ft above the lowest compatible published landing minimum, whichever is higher, and a visibility of 2 SMs or 1 SM above the lowest compatible published landing minimum, whichever is higher.

    • D. 

      2000 ft or 1000 ft above the lowest compatible published landing minimum, whichever is higher, and a visibility of 3 SM or 2 SM above the lowest compatible published landing minimum, whichever is higher.

  • 93. 
     What must the forecast weather for the estimated time of arrival (±1 hour) at the landing location permit without a published instrument approach procedure?  
    • A. 

      An instrument flight rules approach and landing.

    • B. 

      An instrument flight rules missed approach and departure.

    • C. 

      A visual flight rules descent from the instrument flight rules en route altitude to an IFR approach and landing.

    • D. 

      A visual flight rules descent from the instrument flight rules en route altitude to a VFR approach and landing.

  • 94. 
     Pilots shall not takeoff unless specifically authorized by the applicable MAJCOM when
    • A. 

      It is raining with thunderstorms within 10 nm.

    • B. 

      Forecasted weather at an alternate is below minimums.

    • C. 

      Existing weather is below the landing minimums for the specific aircraft.

    • D. 

      Existing weather is below the en route minimums for the specific aircraft.

  • 95. 
     Who can operate from airports under Air Force jurisdiction using the takeoff minimums approved by the Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) and published in the air carrier’s operations specifications?
    • A. 

      Navy carriers.

    • B. 

      Army aircraft.

    • C. 

      Civil contract carriers.

    • D. 

      Unmanned aerial vehicles.

  • 96. 
     What must a pilot in command of multi-engine aircraft ensure that the aircraft can do with one engine inoperative when planning for an instrument flight rule departure?  
    • A. 

      Be able to land at the alternate airfield.

    • B. 

      Clear all obstacles along the planned departure route.

    • C. 

      Climbing to and maintaining an altitude of 10,000 feet.

    • D. 

      Be able to climb if an additional engine fails on takeoff.

  • 97. 
     What will pilots, using the minimum obstruction clearance altitude, ensure that the altitude selected will provide?
    • A. 

      Terrain clearance.

    • B. 

      An altitude clear of clouds.

    • C. 

      See and Avoid” capability.

    • D. 

      Suitable navigation facility and air traffic control radio communication reception.

  • 98. 
     Pilots should file requested altitudes for instrument flight rule flights, in controlled airspace, according to the cruising altitude diagram depicted on the  
    • A. 

      Jet navigation chart.

    • B. 

      Appropriate en route chart.

    • C. 

      Global navigation chart.

    • D. 

      Flight Information Handbook.

  • 99. 
     What frequencies will a pilot operating under instrument flight rule (IFR) continuously monitor?  
    • A. 

      High- frequency (HF) frequencies.

    • B. 

      Navigation aid (NAVAID) frequencies.

    • C. 

      Military command and control frequencies.

    • D. 

      Appropriate air traffic control (ATC) frequencies.

  • 100. 
     Which category minima may helicopter pilots using a fixed-wing approach procedure use regardless of airspeed flown
    • A. 

      A

    • B. 

      B

    • C. 

      C

    • D. 

      D