Toughest Trivia Quiz On CompTIA A+ Hardware And Networking!

136 Questions | Total Attempts: 2251

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A Plus Certification Quizzes & Trivia

This is the hardest practice test ever for CompTIA A+ Hardware and Networking. Are you really a computer geek? Do you really possess full-fledged technical knowledge when it comes to Networking or Hardware? If yes, then prove yourself by attempting this quiz and assess yourself where you stand. Read the questions carefully and answer. So, let's try out the quiz. All the best!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Modems use what type of transmission?
    • A. 

      Synchronous

    • B. 

      Bisynchronous

    • C. 

      Asynchronous

    • D. 

      Monosynchronous

  • 2. 
    Which order of laser printing phases is correct? (Question corrected 2-7-08)
    • A. 

      Write, develop, charge, transfer, fuse, clean

    • B. 

      Charge, develop, write, transfer, fuse, clean

    • C. 

      Clean, write, develop, charge, transfer, fuse

    • D. 

      Clean, charge, write, develop, transfer, fuse

  • 3. 
    The current structure of IP addresses (xxx.xxx.xxx.xxx) is referred to as:
    • A. 

      IPv3

    • B. 

      IPv12

    • C. 

      IPv4

    • D. 

      IPv6

  • 4. 
    SCSI-1 cables support how many devices?
    • A. 

      8

    • B. 

      4

    • C. 

      2

    • D. 

      16

  • 5. 
    SCSI-2 cables have how many pins?
    • A. 

      50

    • B. 

      40

    • C. 

      34

    • D. 

      68

    • E. 

      32

  • 6. 
    SCSI-2 Cables can support up to how many devices?
    • A. 

      12

    • B. 

      32

    • C. 

      8

    • D. 

      16

  • 7. 
    Ultra-wide SCSI cables have ______ pins
    • A. 

      16

    • B. 

      12

    • C. 

      68

    • D. 

      40

  • 8. 
    Ultra-wide SCSI can support up to _____ devices
    • A. 

      8

    • B. 

      16

    • C. 

      4

    • D. 

      32

  • 9. 
    On POST, one long beep followed by two short beeps indicates
    • A. 

      Imminent implosion

    • B. 

      Video card failure/issue

    • C. 

      Hard drive failure/issue

    • D. 

      Keyboard failure/issue/missing

  • 10. 
    On POST, continuous short beeps indicate
    • A. 

      A countdown (run!)

    • B. 

      Bad System Board

    • C. 

      Bad RAM

    • D. 

      Bad Video Card

  • 11. 
    A POST error code between 100 and 199 indicates problems with
    • A. 

      System boards

    • B. 

      Memory

    • C. 

      Keyboard

    • D. 

      Floppy disk controller

  • 12. 
    A POST error code between 200 and 299 indicates problems with
    • A. 

      Video Device

    • B. 

      Keyboard

    • C. 

      Memory

    • D. 

      System Boards

  • 13. 
    A POST error code between 300 and 399 indicates problems with
    • A. 

      Hard Drive

    • B. 

      Memory

    • C. 

      Keyboard

    • D. 

      Video Device

  • 14. 
    A POST error code between 500 and 599 indicates problems with
    • A. 

      Keyboard

    • B. 

      Memory

    • C. 

      Floppy Drive Controller

    • D. 

      Video Device

  • 15. 
    A POST error code between 600 and 699 indicates a problem with
    • A. 

      Video Device

    • B. 

      System Boards

    • C. 

      Keyboard

    • D. 

      Floppy Drive Controller

  • 16. 
    A POST error code between 1700 and 1799 indicates a problem with
    • A. 

      System Boards

    • B. 

      Floppy Drive Controller

    • C. 

      Hard Drive Controller

    • D. 

      Keyboard

  • 17. 
    A SO-DIMM would be an example of a ______ laptop PC card
    • A. 

      Type 1

    • B. 

      Type 2

    • C. 

      Type 3

    • D. 

      Type 4

  • 18. 
    A modem card would be an example of a ________ laptop PC card
    • A. 

      Type 1

    • B. 

      Type 2

    • C. 

      Type 3

    • D. 

      Type 4

  • 19. 
    A hard drive would be an example of a ________ laptop PC card
    • A. 

      Type 1

    • B. 

      Type 2

    • C. 

      Type 3

    • D. 

      Type 4

  • 20. 
    The goal is to set up a RAID array that will provide maximum performance above all else. What level RAID array would be best?
    • A. 

      5

    • B. 

      1

    • C. 

      0

    • D. 

      7

  • 21. 
    The goal is to set up a RAID array where, if one drive fails, there will be a backup. Reliability is the most important aspect. What level RAID array would be best?
    • A. 

      0

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      6

    • D. 

      1

  • 22. 
    The best UPS and SPS produce which of the following output waveforms?
    • A. 

      Radio waves

    • B. 

      Sine waves

    • C. 

      Electromagnetic waves

    • D. 

      California waves

  • 23. 
    On what type of cable would you find a ST connector?
    • A. 

      Phone

    • B. 

      Ethernet

    • C. 

      Fiber Optic

    • D. 

      Coaxial

  • 24. 
    On what type of cable would you find a SC connector?
    • A. 

      Coaxial

    • B. 

      Ethernet

    • C. 

      Fiber Optic

    • D. 

      Phone

  • 25. 
    On what type of cable would you find a RJ-45 connector?
    • A. 

      Ethernet

    • B. 

      Fiber Optic

    • C. 

      Coaxial

    • D. 

      Phone

  • 26. 
    On what type of cable would you find a RJ-11 connector?
    • A. 

      Fiber Optic

    • B. 

      Coaxial

    • C. 

      Phone

    • D. 

      Ethernet

  • 27. 
    On what type of cable would you find a BNC connector?
    • A. 

      Ethernet

    • B. 

      Coaxial

    • C. 

      Phone

    • D. 

      Fiber Optic

  • 28. 
    What type of CPU, of the choices, will you find on a Socket 7 mainboard?
    • A. 

      Pentium 7

    • B. 

      Pentium

    • C. 

      Pentium 3

    • D. 

      Celeron

  • 29. 
    What type of CPU, of the choices, will you find on a Socket 8 mainboard?
    • A. 

      Pentium Pro

    • B. 

      Pentium 8

    • C. 

      Celeron

    • D. 

      Pentium 2

  • 30. 
    What type of CPU, of the choices, will you find on a Slot 1 mainboard? (choose 3)
    • A. 

      Pentium

    • B. 

      Pentium Pro

    • C. 

      Celeron

    • D. 

      Pentium 2

    • E. 

      Pentium 3

  • 31. 
    What type of CPU, of the choices, will you find on a Socket 370 mainboard? (choose 2)
    • A. 

      Pentium 370

    • B. 

      Pentium Pro

    • C. 

      Pentium 3

    • D. 

      Pentium 4

    • E. 

      Celeron

  • 32. 
    What type of CPU, of the choices, will you find on a Socket 423 mainboard?
    • A. 

      Pentium Pro

    • B. 

      Pentium 4

    • C. 

      Pentium 423

    • D. 

      Pentium

  • 33. 
    What type of CPU, of the choices, will you find on a Socket 478 mainboard? (choose 2)
    • A. 

      Pentium Pro

    • B. 

      Celeron

    • C. 

      Pentium 3

    • D. 

      Pentium 4

  • 34. 
    802.11n can transfer at up to ____ Mbit/s
    • A. 

      500

    • B. 

      11

    • C. 

      54

    • D. 

      200

  • 35. 
    802.11a can transfer at up to ____ Mbit/s
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      200

    • C. 

      54

    • D. 

      11

  • 36. 
    802.11b can transfer at up to _____ Mbit/s
    • A. 

      54

    • B. 

      200

    • C. 

      11

    • D. 

      500

  • 37. 
    Class 2 Bluetooth has a ____ meter range
    • A. 

      32

    • B. 

      40

    • C. 

      100

    • D. 

      10

  • 38. 
    Class 1 Bluetooth has a _____ meter range
    • A. 

      10

    • B. 

      100

    • C. 

      200

    • D. 

      40

  • 39. 
    What type of RAM cannot operate with unfilled slots?
    • A. 

      DRAM

    • B. 

      SRAM

    • C. 

      Rambus

    • D. 

      VRAM

  • 40. 
    What does "volatile" mean in reference to memory?
    • A. 

      Human contact could cause combustion

    • B. 

      Will lose data when not powered

    • C. 

      Speed tends to be random

    • D. 

      Extremely high speed

  • 41. 
    What is the 4-letter abbreviation for a stick of Rambus?
    • A. 

      RIMM

    • B. 

      SIMM

    • C. 

      VRAM

    • D. 

      ROMM

  • 42. 
    What does a CRIMM do for Rambus?
    • A. 

      Acts as a heatsink for cooling

    • B. 

      Terminates open slots

    • C. 

      Terminates filled slots

    • D. 

      Allows compatibility with AMD CPUs

  • 43. 
    What does DIMM mean?
    • A. 

      Dual inline memory module

    • B. 

      An acronym that computer nerds use to describe customers they don't like

    • C. 

      Dual immersed memory module

    • D. 

      Drive indefinite memory module

  • 44. 
    PC1600 clocks at ___ mhz
    • A. 

      166

    • B. 

      100

    • C. 

      133

    • D. 

      160

  • 45. 
    PC2100 clocks at ___ mhz
    • A. 

      120

    • B. 

      133

    • C. 

      210

    • D. 

      266

  • 46. 
    PC2700 clocks at ___ mhz
    • A. 

      267

    • B. 

      270

    • C. 

      266

    • D. 

      166

  • 47. 
    PC3200 clocks at ___ mhz
    • A. 

      200

    • B. 

      300

    • C. 

      333

    • D. 

      466

  • 48. 
    PC2-4200 clocks at ___ mhz
    • A. 

      166

    • B. 

      333

    • C. 

      400

    • D. 

      266

  • 49. 
    PC2-6400 clocks at ___ mhz
    • A. 

      433

    • B. 

      400

    • C. 

      466

    • D. 

      366

  • 50. 
    PC2-8000 clocks at ___ mhz
    • A. 

      533

    • B. 

      500

    • C. 

      800

    • D. 

      466

  • 51. 
    PC2-8500 clocks at ___ mhz
    • A. 

      500

    • B. 

      433

    • C. 

      533

    • D. 

      667

  • 52. 
    PC3-10600 clocks at ___ mhz
    • A. 

      667

    • B. 

      800

    • C. 

      533

    • D. 

      600

  • 53. 
    PC3-12800 clocks at ___ mhz
    • A. 

      800

    • B. 

      667

    • C. 

      866

    • D. 

      533

  • 54. 
    In your hand you hold a SO-DIMM with a 144 pin configuration. What type of RAM is it?
    • A. 

      DDR3 SDRAM

    • B. 

      SDRAM

    • C. 

      DDR2 SDRAM

    • D. 

      DDR SDRAM

  • 55. 
    In your hand you hold a DIMM with a 168 pin configuration. What type of RAM is it?
    • A. 

      DDR2 SDRAM

    • B. 

      SDRAM

    • C. 

      DDR SDRAM

    • D. 

      DD3 SDRAM

  • 56. 
    In your hand you hold a DIMM with a 184 pin configuration. What type of RAM is it?
    • A. 

      DDR3 SDRAM

    • B. 

      DDR2 SDRAM

    • C. 

      SDRAM

    • D. 

      DDR SDRAM

  • 57. 
    In your hand you hold a DIMM with a 240 pin configuration. Based only on this information, what type of RAM could it be? (pick 2)
    • A. 

      DDR2 SDRAM

    • B. 

      DDR SDRAM

    • C. 

      SDRAM

    • D. 

      DDR3 SDRAM

  • 58. 
    In your hand you hold a SO-DIMM with a 172 pin configuration. Based only on this information, what type of RAM could it be?
    • A. 

      DDR3 SDRAM

    • B. 

      DDR2 SDRAM

    • C. 

      SDRAM

    • D. 

      DDR SDRAM

  • 59. 
    In your hand you hold a Micro DIMM with a 214 pin configuration. Based only on this information, what type of RAM could it be?
    • A. 

      DDR2 SDRAM

    • B. 

      SDRAM

    • C. 

      DDR3 SDRAM

    • D. 

      DDR SDRAM

  • 60. 
    In your hand you hold a Micro DIMM with a 172 pin configuration. Based only on this information, what type of RAM could it be?
    • A. 

      DDR3 SDRAM

    • B. 

      DDR2 SDRAM

    • C. 

      SDRAM

    • D. 

      DDR SDRAM

  • 61. 
    How long should you wait for a CRT to discharge before opening the case?
    • A. 

      At least a day

    • B. 

      At least five minutes

    • C. 

      At least an hour

    • D. 

      At least half an hour

  • 62. 
    When installing a SCSI drive in a system that has onboard IDE controllers, what must you ensure?
    • A. 

      Your IDE cables will fit the SCSI drives

    • B. 

      IDE Drives are properly formatted

    • C. 

      IDE Drives are jumpered to SCSI compatibility mode (SCM).

    • D. 

      IDE Drives are disabled in CMOS

  • 63. 
    What is EMI?
    • A. 

      Every Man's Interface

    • B. 

      Emission Management Interrupt

    • C. 

      Electromagnetic Interference

    • D. 

      Erroneous Mating Inteference

  • 64. 
    What is ESD?
    • A. 

      Electrostatic Discharge

    • B. 

      Electrostatic Demolition

    • C. 

      Empty Sector Disabling

    • D. 

      Error Status Display

  • 65. 
    ESD can cause what type of failure?
    • A. 

      Catastrophic

    • B. 

      Upset

    • C. 

      Abrasive

    • D. 

      Fatal

  • 66. 
    What is the Centronix data transfer process?
    • A. 

      One byte at a time

    • B. 

      100 bytes at a time

    • C. 

      One byte simultaneously from both ends

    • D. 

      Centronix is not a protocol, it's the company that will build the Terminator.

  • 67. 
    IRQ 0 is assigned to
    • A. 

      LPT2 or sound card

    • B. 

      System Timer

    • C. 

      Keyboard

    • D. 

      Primary IDE

  • 68. 
    IRQ 1 is assigned to
    • A. 

      Keyboard

    • B. 

      Nothing by default

    • C. 

      LPT1 or sound card

    • D. 

      Secondary IDE

  • 69. 
    IRQ 2 is assigned to
    • A. 

      Nothing by default

    • B. 

      LPT2 or sound card

    • C. 

      Cascaded signals from IRQs 8-15. A device configured to this IRQ would actually be using IRQ9

    • D. 

      Real time clock

  • 70. 
    IRQ 3 is assigned to
    • A. 

      Primary IDE

    • B. 

      COM2 and COM4

    • C. 

      LPT1 or sound card

    • D. 

      Real time clock

  • 71. 
    IRQ4 is assigned to
    • A. 

      COM1 and COM3

    • B. 

      Real time clock

    • C. 

      Secondary IDE

    • D. 

      Primary IDE

  • 72. 
    IRQ6 is assigned to
    • A. 

      Primary IDE

    • B. 

      Nothing by default

    • C. 

      Floppy disk controller

    • D. 

      LPT1 or sound card

  • 73. 
    IRQ7 is assigned to
    • A. 

      Floppy disk controller

    • B. 

      LPT1 or sound card

    • C. 

      Nothing by default

    • D. 

      Primary IDE

  • 74. 
    IRQ8 is assigned to
    • A. 

      Real time clock

    • B. 

      COM1 and COM3

    • C. 

      System Timer

    • D. 

      PS2 Mouse

  • 75. 
    IRQ9 is assigned to
    • A. 

      Keyboard

    • B. 

      PS2 Mouse

    • C. 

      LPT2 or sound card

    • D. 

      Nothing by default

  • 76. 
    IRQ10 is assigned to
    • A. 

      LPT2 or sound card

    • B. 

      Floppy Disk Controller

    • C. 

      Nothing by default

    • D. 

      PS2 Mouse

  • 77. 
    IRQ11 is assigned to
    • A. 

      COM1 and COM3

    • B. 

      Cascaded signals from IRQs 1-8. A device configured to use IRQ11 would actually be using IRQ9.

    • C. 

      Keyboard

    • D. 

      Nothing by default

  • 78. 
    IRQ12 is assigned to
    • A. 

      Keyboard

    • B. 

      PS2 Mouse

    • C. 

      Cascaded signals from IRQs 1-8. A device configured to use IRQ12 would actually be using IRQ9.

    • D. 

      ISA / Math Coprocessor

  • 79. 
    IRQ13 is assigned to
    • A. 

      LPT1 or sound card

    • B. 

      COM1 and COM3

    • C. 

      PS2 Mouse

    • D. 

      ISA / Math Coprocessor

  • 80. 
    IRQ14 is assigned to
    • A. 

      Primary IDE

    • B. 

      COM2 and COM4

    • C. 

      LPT1 or sound card

    • D. 

      Real time clock

  • 81. 
    IRQ15 is assigned to
    • A. 

      Primary IDE

    • B. 

      Floppy Disk Controller

    • C. 

      Nothing by default

    • D. 

      Secondary IDE

  • 82. 
    DMA0(zero) is assigned to
    • A. 

      Nothing by default

    • B. 

      Floppy Controller

    • C. 

      Unused/Unuseable

    • D. 

      SCSI

  • 83. 
    DMA1 is assigned to
    • A. 

      Nothing by default

    • B. 

      Floppy Controller

    • C. 

      Sound Device

    • D. 

      SCSI

  • 84. 
    DMA2 is assigned to
    • A. 

      Floppy Controller

    • B. 

      Nothing by default

    • C. 

      Sound Device

    • D. 

      SCSI

  • 85. 
    DMA3 is assigned to
    • A. 

      Nothing by default

    • B. 

      Floppy Controller

    • C. 

      ECP Parallel Port

    • D. 

      Unused/Unuseable

  • 86. 
    DMA4 is assigned to
    • A. 

      SCSI

    • B. 

      Unused/Unuseable

    • C. 

      Nothing by default

    • D. 

      Sound Device

  • 87. 
    DMA5 is assigned to
    • A. 

      Sound Device

    • B. 

      SCSI

    • C. 

      Nothing by default

    • D. 

      Unused/Unuseable

  • 88. 
    DMA6 is assigned to
    • A. 

      Sound Device

    • B. 

      ECP Parallel Port

    • C. 

      SCSI

    • D. 

      Nothing by default

  • 89. 
    DMA7 is assigned to
    • A. 

      Nothing by default

    • B. 

      Floppy Device

    • C. 

      Sound Device

    • D. 

      Unused/Unuseable

  • 90. 
    The keyboard controller uses this base address
    • A. 

      378h

    • B. 

      060h + 064h

    • C. 

      2F8h

    • D. 

      300h

  • 91. 
    The secondary IDE controller uses this base address
    • A. 

      060h + 064h

    • B. 

      300h

    • C. 

      170h + 376h

    • D. 

      3E8h

  • 92. 
    The primary IDE controller uses this base address
    • A. 

      170h + 376h

    • B. 

      1F0h + 376h

    • C. 

      378h

    • D. 

      3F8h

  • 93. 
    The sound card uses this base address
    • A. 

      3F8h

    • B. 

      1F0h + 3F6h

    • C. 

      060h + 064h

    • D. 

      220h

  • 94. 
    The NIC uses this base address
    • A. 

      1F0h + 3F6h

    • B. 

      060h + 064h

    • C. 

      300h

    • D. 

      2F8h

  • 95. 
    The SCSI adapter uses this base address
    • A. 

      330h

    • B. 

      1F0h + 3F6h

    • C. 

      378h

    • D. 

      2E8h

  • 96. 
    The floppy controller uses this base address
    • A. 

      3F2h

    • B. 

      170h + 376h

    • C. 

      060h + 064h

    • D. 

      3F2h

  • 97. 
    COM1 uses this base address
    • A. 

      1F0h + 3F6h

    • B. 

      3F8h

    • C. 

      2F8h

    • D. 

      2E8h

  • 98. 
    COM2 uses this base address
    • A. 

      2F8h

    • B. 

      3F8h

    • C. 

      330h

    • D. 

      1F0h + 3F6h

  • 99. 
    COM3 uses this base address
    • A. 

      330h

    • B. 

      3F2h

    • C. 

      2F8h

    • D. 

      3E8h

  • 100. 
    COM4 uses this base address
    • A. 

      2E8h

    • B. 

      330h

    • C. 

      3E8h

    • D. 

      1F0h + 3F6h

  • 101. 
    LPT1 uses this base address
    • A. 

      1F0j + 3F6h

    • B. 

      378h

    • C. 

      060h + 064h

    • D. 

      300h

  • 102. 
    LPT2 uses this base address
    • A. 

      378h

    • B. 

      3F2h

    • C. 

      300h

    • D. 

      278h

  • 103. 
    127.0.0.1 would be an example of a
    • A. 

      Class C IP

    • B. 

      Reserved IP

    • C. 

      Class A IP

    • D. 

      Local Computer Only IP

  • 104. 
    192.168.101.5 would be an example of a
    • A. 

      Class C IP

    • B. 

      Local Computer Only IP

    • C. 

      Reserved IP

    • D. 

      Class A IP

  • 105. 
    The default subnet mask for a Class A network is
    • A. 

      255.255.255.255

    • B. 

      255.255.0.0

    • C. 

      255.255.255.0

    • D. 

      255.0.0.0

  • 106. 
    The default subnet mask for a Class B network is
    • A. 

      255.0.0.0

    • B. 

      255.255.255.255

    • C. 

      255.255.0.0

    • D. 

      255.255.255.0

  • 107. 
    The default subnet mask for a Class C network is
    • A. 

      255.0.0.0

    • B. 

      255.255.255.0

    • C. 

      255.255.255.255

    • D. 

      255.255.0.0

  • 108. 
    ATH is the _____ command for a modem
    • A. 

      Hang up

    • B. 

      Tone dial

    • C. 

      Pulse dial

    • D. 

      Speaker volume

  • 109. 
    ATDT is the _____ command for a modem
    • A. 

      Hang up

    • B. 

      Speaker off/on

    • C. 

      Tone dial

    • D. 

      Answer incoming call

  • 110. 
    ATDP is the ____ command for a modem
    • A. 

      Answer incoming call

    • B. 

      Hang up

    • C. 

      Reset modem

    • D. 

      Pulse dial

  • 111. 
    ATL is the ____ command for a modem
    • A. 

      Hang up

    • B. 

      Pulse dial

    • C. 

      Speaker volume

    • D. 

      Speaker on/off

  • 112. 
    ATM is the ____ command for a modem
    • A. 

      Speaker on/off

    • B. 

      Spew cash

    • C. 

      Answer incoming call

    • D. 

      Speaker volume

  • 113. 
    ATZ is the ____ command for a modem
    • A. 

      Transmit every letter of the alphabet, in order

    • B. 

      Hang up

    • C. 

      Reset modem

    • D. 

      Pulse dial

  • 114. 
    Which network device merely repeats received information, unmodified, to attached clients?
    • A. 

      Router

    • B. 

      Bridge

    • C. 

      Tablet

    • D. 

      Hub

  • 115. 
    Which are other names for a hub? (pick two)
    • A. 

      Router

    • B. 

      Concentrator

    • C. 

      Repeater

    • D. 

      Bridge

  • 116. 
    Which is considered a Layer 2 switch, capable of faster speeds than a Level 1 and often used in specialized situations such as storage networks?
    • A. 

      Hub

    • B. 

      Router

    • C. 

      Repeater

    • D. 

      Bridge

  • 117. 
    Which is considered a Layer 3 switch, generally optimized for Ethernet connections?
    • A. 

      Bridge

    • B. 

      Concentrater

    • C. 

      Router

    • D. 

      Hub

  • 118. 
    What is NAT?
    • A. 

      Network Address Translation

    • B. 

      Network Approximate Transfer time

    • C. 

      No Allocation Table

    • D. 

      Norwegian Alcohol Trade

  • 119. 
    Which is the physical disk within a hard drive?
    • A. 

      Cylinder

    • B. 

      Platter

    • C. 

      Track

    • D. 

      Sector

  • 120. 
    Which is one surface of a cylinder?
    • A. 

      Sector

    • B. 

      Parsec

    • C. 

      Platter

    • D. 

      Track

  • 121. 
    Which is a vertical track through all the platters?
    • A. 

      SO-DIMM

    • B. 

      Sector

    • C. 

      Cylinder

    • D. 

      Seeker

  • 122. 
    Which is a specifically sized division of a hard drive?
    • A. 

      Platter

    • B. 

      Sector

    • C. 

      Cylinder

    • D. 

      Track

  • 123. 
    Which layer of the OSI model would include TCP?
    • A. 

      Application

    • B. 

      Session

    • C. 

      Physical Layer

    • D. 

      Transport

  • 124. 
    Which layer of the OSI model would include IP?
    • A. 

      Presentation

    • B. 

      Network

    • C. 

      Physical addressing

    • D. 

      Applications

  • 125. 
    Which layer of the OSI model would a NIC fall under?
    • A. 

      Session

    • B. 

      Application

    • C. 

      Physical

    • D. 

      Data Link

  • 126. 
    Which layers in the OSI model provide error correction? (pick 2)
    • A. 

      Data Link

    • B. 

      Network

    • C. 

      Physical

    • D. 

      Session

  • 127. 
    At which level of the OSI model is encryption generally done?
    • A. 

      Presentation

    • B. 

      Transport

    • C. 

      Network

    • D. 

      Physical

  • 128. 
    Which layer is layer number 1 in the OSI model?
    • A. 

      Network

    • B. 

      Physical

    • C. 

      Transport

    • D. 

      Data Links

  • 129. 
    Which layer is layer number 2 in the OSI model?
    • A. 

      Application

    • B. 

      Network

    • C. 

      Session

    • D. 

      Data Link

  • 130. 
    Which layer is number 3 in the OSI model?
    • A. 

      Network

    • B. 

      Application

    • C. 

      Session

    • D. 

      Physical

  • 131. 
    Which layer is layer 4 of the OSI model?
    • A. 

      Physical

    • B. 

      Data Link

    • C. 

      Network

    • D. 

      Transport

  • 132. 
    Which layer is layer 5 of the 7 layer OSI model?
    • A. 

      Application

    • B. 

      Session

    • C. 

      Transport

    • D. 

      Presentation

  • 133. 
    Which layer is layer 6 of the 7 layer OSI model?
    • A. 

      Data Link

    • B. 

      Network

    • C. 

      Presentation

    • D. 

      Transport

  • 134. 
    Which layer is layer 7 of the 7 layer OSI model?
    • A. 

      Applications

    • B. 

      Transport

    • C. 

      Network

    • D. 

      Physical

  • 135. 
    Flash memory would be an example of
    • A. 

      SDRAM

    • B. 

      Rambus

    • C. 

      DDR3

    • D. 

      NVRAM

  • 136. 
    Multiple hardware using the same communication protocol, connected to the same communication bus, using predefined logic to dictate access to the bus, would be a
    • A. 

      Carnival Line

    • B. 

      Daisy Chain

    • C. 

      LiNK UP

    • D. 

      LiNK DOWN