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A 38-year-old woman screened for hepatitis presents the following serological status: HBsAg negative HBcAg IgG positive HBsAg IgG negative What is the most likely explanation for these results?



A. Vaccination
B. Resolved acute infection
C. Chronic infection with undetectable HBsAg
D. This is impossible

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Block 14 Viral hepatitis prt 2
Asked by Lincoln, Last updated: Jan 18, 2020

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John Smith

John Smith

Answered Sep 09, 2016

Chronic infection with undetectable hbsag-nota: this patient has an occult infection. she has in fact been infected by the virus (as demonstrated by the presence of the hbcag igg), but has not been able to resolve the infection (as demonstrated by the absence of hbsag igg). the absence of detectable hbsag means that the virus is either (1) not replicating, or barely replicating, so that hbsag levels are under the detection limit of the elisas used in the lab, or that the hbsag gene is mutated in such a way that it is undetectable by commercial elisa tests. this is a rare occurrence, but it happens
 

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