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A 32-year old woman comes to the physician because she has not been able to conceive for 5 years. Previous fertility examinations of her husband showed no abnormalities. Menses occur at regular 28-day intervals. Her blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg. Physical and pelvic examinations show no abnormalities. Hysterosalpingography shows normal findings. Her serum hormone concentrations are within the reference range. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy for this patient’s infertility?



A. Bromocriptine
B. Clomiphene
C. Diethylstilbestrol
D. Ethinyl estradiol
E. Medroxyprogesterone

This question is part of NBME 13 Section 2 (50 questions)
Asked by Chachelly, Last updated: Jul 07, 2020

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1 Answer

John Smith

John Smith

Answered Jun 08, 2017

Clomiphene

Clomiphene is a SERM that an Estrogen receptor antagonist in the hypothalamus, which stops negative feedback, and increases GnRH => increase LH, FSH => jumpstarting ovulation
 

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