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Which of the following is the most likely cause of the hip abnormality? A 19-year-old woman comes to the physician because of increasingly severe pain in the right hip during the past month. She has a 4-year history of refractory inflammatory bowel disease with arthritis in the hands treated with corticosteroids for the past 2 years, An x-ray of the pelvis shows collapse of the superior half of the right femoral head with preservation of the articular cartilage. The left hip appears normal.



A. Ankylosing spondylitis
B. Aseptic necrosis
C. Gouty arthritis
D. Multiple myeloma
E. Septic arthritis

This question is part of NBME 13 Section 3 (qst 1-50)
Asked by Wyatt Williams, Last updated: Jun 23, 2020

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2 Answers

sjvictor

Sjvictor

Answered May 15, 2020

Avascular Necrosis due to the extensive use of corticosteroids.

 

Wyatt Williams

Wyatt Williams

Answered Jul 25, 2018

Aseptic necrosis
 

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