An otherwise healthy 23 year old woman comes to the physician because - ProProfs Discuss
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An otherwise healthy 23-year old woman comes to the physician because she has not had a menstrual period for 2 months. Menarche occurred at the age of 14 years, and menses had occurred at regular 28-day intervals. Pelvic examination shows blue-tinged vaginal mucosa. The uterus is somewhat soft in the lower segment and is about the size of an orange. The adnexa are nontender with normal-sized ovaries. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step to establish the diagnosis?



A. Measurement of serum follicle-stimulating hormone concentration
B. Measurement of serum thyroid-stimulating hormone concentration
C. Measurement of urine B-human chorlonic gonadotropin concentration
D. Ultrasonography of the pelvis
E. Endometrial biopsy

This question is part of NBME 13 Section 2 (50 questions)
Asked by Chachelly, Last updated: Apr 03, 2020

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Chachelly

Chachelly

Answered Mar 27, 2018

Measurement of urine B-human chorlonic gonadotropin concentration
 

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