Quiz About Health

57 Questions | Attempts: 120
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Quiz About Health - Quiz

Human health is something that everyone should be well aware of and maintaining it is something we should all strive to do. My study guide is designed to prepare for my Natural Science CLEP test so may remove shortly once I'm done practicing in a few weeks. So take up the quiz below and get to practice right along with me.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Motion is sensed by what part of the vertebrate ear?

    • A.

      Otoliths

    • B.

      Cochlea

    • C.

      Basilar membrane

    • D.

      Tympanic membrane

    • E.

      Semicircular canals

    Correct Answer
    E. Semicircular canals
    Explanation
    Three fluid-filled, semicircular canals are arranged within the inner ear to detect motion in any direction. Hair cells are stimulated by fluid movement resulting from motion. Otoliths are gravity-sensor cells used for determining balance. The other three terms refer to auditory parts of the ear.

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  • 2. 

    The shape of a polypeptide or protein is

    • A.

      Maintained by bonding and attractions between parts of the molecule, as well as hydrophilic and hydrophobic interactions with water.

    • B.

      Important to its function

    • C.

      Ultimately dependent upon the primary structure

    • D.

      All of above

    • E.

      None of above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of above
    Explanation
    The importance of the three-dimensional shape of proteins cannot be overstated: it is the basis of assembling a functional protein, such as an enzyme or antibody. The orientation of different portions of the protein molecule is shaped by interactions with the aqueous (water) environment and associations between amino acids in different places in the molecule. Ultimately, and most profoundly, all of this is dependent upon the primary structure, since the primary structure (order of amino acids) of a protein is all that is coded for in an organisms DNA.

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  • 3. 

    Green algae often form a multi-cellular ________ that is not differentiated into true leaf, root, or stem, and is attached to a surface by a holdfast.

    • A.

      Medulla

    • B.

      Medusa

    • C.

      Rhizoid

    • D.

      Thallus

    • E.

      Thalamus

    Correct Answer
    D. Thallus
    Explanation
    The thallus is an undifferentiated plant body that may form simple or branched filaments, and may be multi-cellular or single-celled.

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  • 4. 

    Multi-cellular animals that lack both symmetry and true tissues are

    • A.

      Amoeba

    • B.

      Sponges

    • C.

      Sea stars

    • D.

      Jellyfish

    • E.

      Flatworms (Platyhelminthes).

    Correct Answer
    B. Sponges
    Explanation
    Sponges are classified as the phylum Porifera. Jellyfish (Cnidaria) have true tissues and are radially symmetrical.

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  • 5. 

    Which of these lists the stages of chordate development in correct order?

    • A.

      Fertilization, cleavage, neurulation, gastrulation, neural crest formation, organogenesis

    • B.

      Fertilization, gastrulation, cleavage, neurulation, neural crest formation, organogenesis

    • C.

      Fertilization, cleavage, oganogenesis, neural crest formation, neurulation, gastrulation

    • D.

      Fertilization, cleavage, gastrulation, neurulation, neural crest formation, organogenesis

    • E.

      Fertilization, neurulation, neural crest formation, gastrulation, cleavage, organogenesis

    Correct Answer
    D. Fertilization, cleavage, gastrulation, neurulation, neural crest formation, organogenesis
    Explanation
    First the sperm fertilizes the egg, and the zygote repeatedly divides in many cells (cleavage) without an increase in size. Three basic cell layers (ecto-, meso-, and endoderm) are formed next during gastrulation, followed by notochord and dorsal nerve cord development (neurulation). The formation of the neural crest is next, proceeding to organogenesis, the stage in which the organs are formed.

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  • 6. 

    Microspores are formed where in angiosperms?

    • A.

      Sporangia in the anthers of flowers form microspores that turn into pollen

    • B.

      Sporangia within pistils of flowers form microspores that turn into pollen

    • C.

      Sporangia within the pollen tube of anthers form microspores which later turn into pollen

    • D.

      Microspores are produced within the body of the stigma, and differentiate into pollen granules

    • E.

      Pollen is produced within the anthers of flowers, and differentiates into microspores

    Correct Answer
    A. Sporangia in the anthers of flowers form microspores that turn into pollen
    Explanation
    The microspores develop into pollen grains, each possessing a pollen tube and sperm nucleus. The stigma and pistils are female, not male, flower parts.

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  • 7. 

    Deuterostomes evolutionarily branched in two main directions: one with a radial body plan, and the other with a bilateral plan. These groups are known (respectively) as the

    • A.

      Insects and crustaceans

    • B.

      Crustaceans and insects

    • C.

      Molluscs and echinoderms

    • D.

      Echinoderms and chordates

    • E.

      Chordates and echinoderms

    Correct Answer
    D. Echinoderms and chordates
    Explanation
    Echinoderms, characterized by radial symmetry and tube feet, are represented today by only four classes. Many other echinoderm classes are extinct. This lineage has not led to significant, further evolutionary innovations, while the chordate line has (e.g., vertebrates).

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  • 8. 

    Which of the following pairings of a term or phrase with a group of organisms is INCORRECT?

    • A.

      Flowers: angiosperms

    • B.

      Gingko: gymnosperms

    • C.

      Ferns: Pterophyta

    • D.

      Liverwort: fern

    • E.

      Club mosses: Lycophyta

    Correct Answer
    D. Liverwort: fern
    Explanation
    A liverwort is a type of bryophyte (a non-vascular plant), and not a vascular fern (Pterophyta). A gingko is a type of gymnosperm, although gymnosperm is used today more often informally rather than in any strict taxonomic sense.

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  • 9. 

    In the geologic history of the earth, one period can be called the age of reptiles, since they were the dominant forms of animal life. This period is known as the

    • A.

      Cenozoic Era

    • B.

      Paleozoic Era.

    • C.

      Mesozoic Era

    • D.

      Cambrian

    • E.

      Ordovician

    Correct Answer
    C. Mesozoic Era
    Explanation
    The Cambrian and Ordovician periods (not eras) are subdivisions of the Paleozoic Era.

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  • 10. 

    As part of their elemental cycles, which of the following elements can be converted (fixed) by specialized organisms from a gas in the atmosphere to a form in which it is available to other organisms?

    • A.

      Nitrogen

    • B.

      Carbon dioxide

    • C.

      Oxygen

    • D.

      A. and B

    • E.

      A., B., and C

    Correct Answer
    D. A. and B
    Explanation
    Atmospheric nitrogen is converted to ammonia (NH₃) by bacteria, then to nitrite (NO₂- ion), and finally nitrate (NO₃- ion). Atmospheric carbon dioxide is fixed by green plants and algae during photosynthesis.

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  • 11. 

    Dispensing with the need for free water as a requirement for fertilization was an important development in the evolution of land plants. Which plant group lacks this adaptation to dry conditions?

    • A.

      Gymnosperms and angiosperms

    • B.

      Bryophytes and ferns

    • C.

      Ferns, gymnosperms, and angiosperms

    • D.

      Bryophytes

    • E.

      Gymnosperms

    Correct Answer
    B. Bryophytes and ferns
    Explanation
    Bryophytes and ferns have motile sperm, which are dependent upon a film of water for mobility to fertilize the eggs.

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  • 12. 

    Which statement about covalent bonds is NOT true?

    • A.

      A covalent molecule contains one or more covalent bonds.

    • B.

      Covalent bonds are formed when an electron is completely lost or gained from an atom.

    • C.

      A double covalent bond is drawn as two solid lines between two atoms.

    • D.

      A pair of electrons is shared between two atoms for each covalent bond.

    • E.

      Shared electrons allow an atom to complete its outer electron shell in a covalent molecule.

    Correct Answer
    B. Covalent bonds are formed when an electron is completely lost or gained from an atom.
    Explanation
    In a covalent bond, electrons are shared between two atoms and not totally lost or gained.

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  • 13. 

    When a cell is placed in a dilute solution (that is, hypotonic with respect to the inside of the cell),

    • A.

      The net movement of solute is INTO the cell.

    • B.

      The net movement of water is OUT of the cell.

    • C.

      The net movement of water is INTO the cell.

    • D.

      There is no net movement of water.

    • E.

      A. and B.

    Correct Answer
    C. The net movement of water is INTO the cell.
    Explanation
    Outside the cell, the water is in a higher concentration than inside the cell, and in osmosis water always moves from an area of higher water concentration to an area of lower water concentration.

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  • 14. 

    Which nucleotide base is NOT contained in RNA?

    • A.

      Thymine

    • B.

      Adenine

    • C.

      Uracil

    • D.

      Guanine

    • E.

      Cytosine

    Correct Answer
    A. Thymine
    Explanation
    Uracil (U) is found in RNA instead of thymine (T). The other difference between RNA and DNA is that the 5-carbon sugar in DNA is deoxyribose, while in RNA it is ribose.

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  • 15. 

    The difference between competitive and noncompetitive inhibition is that

    • A.

      In competitive inhibition, the allosteric site of the enzyme is blocked, whereas in noncompetitive inhibition it is the active site that is blocked.

    • B.

      In competitive inhibition, the active site of the enzyme is blocked, whereas in noncompetitive inhibition it is the allosteric site that is blocked.

    • C.

      Competitive inhibition requires energy derived from ATP; noncompetitive inhibition does not.

    • D.

      Noncompetitive inhibition requires a cofactor.

    • E.

      Competitive inhibition requires a cofactor.

    Correct Answer
    B. In competitive inhibition, the active site of the enzyme is blocked, whereas in noncompetitive inhibition it is the allosteric site that is blocked.
    Explanation
    In competitive inhibition, the competition is for the active site—will it be occupied by the substrate or the inhibitor? In noncompetitive inhibition, the inhibitor occupies an allosteric site and not the active site of the enzyme.

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  • 16. 

    The unique properties of each amino acid are determined by its particular

    • A.

      Amino group

    • B.

      Peptide bonds

    • C.

      R group

    • D.

      Carboxylic acid group

    • E.

      Enzyme

    Correct Answer
    C. R group
    Explanation
    The R group is what is unique to each amino acid. No two amino acids have identical R groups, although some are very similar (and account for chemical similarities between those amino acids). Every amino acid contains one amino group (-NH2) and one carboxylic acid group (-COOH) associated with the central carbon atom of the molecule; so these cannot be the source of any properties unique to each amino acid. Logically, peptide bonds cannot be the correct answer either. The amino acids exhibit characteristic properties as individual molecules. Also, the question specifies amino acids and not peptides or proteins.

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  • 17. 

    A watershed is

    • A.

      An area of land that drains into a stream or river.

    • B.

      A protected area draining into a reservoir used by humans as a source of drinking water.

    • C.

      The same as the benthic zone of a lake.

    • D.

      An area that feeds wide-point sources pollution into a lake or the ocean.

    • E.

      A tract of land that cannot absorb (sheds) water.

    Correct Answer
    A. An area of land that drains into a stream or river.
    Explanation
    A watershed is the area of land that receives rainfall and channels it into a stream. Point source pollution comes from single, readily identified places, such as factories or golf courses. "Wide" would not be used with "point source pollution".

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  • 18. 

    Which one of the following statements about alleles is TRUE?

    • A.

      There may be no more than two forms in a given population.

    • B.

      Alleles are found at the same locus on chromosomes.

    • C.

      They are found paired in organisms.

    • D.

      An individual may have more than two forms of an allele.

    • E.

      Alleles exist only for genes showing Mendelian behavior, such as true dominance-recessiveness.

    Correct Answer
    B. Alleles are found at the same locus on chromosomes.
    Explanation
    Part of the definition of alleles is that they are alternative forms of a gene. Alleles therefore must be found at that gene's locus. Choice A. is incorrect; multiple alleles are common in populations. Choice C. is incorrect and misleading; it is true only of diploid cells. Haploid cells (gametes, haploid somatic cells from organisms such as mosses), of course, cannot possess more than one allele of a gene. Choice D. is incorrect, since even a diploid individual is restricted to possessing two different alleles of a gene. Choice E. is completely false.

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  • 19. 

    If fruit flies with straight wings (S, the normal or wild type) are crossed with flies with wrinkled wings (s), all the F1 progeny have straight wings. Predict the phenotypes of the F2 progeny and their relative proportions.

    • A.

      The Fâ‚‚ generation will be 3:1 straight:wrinkled.

    • B.

      The Fâ‚‚ generation will be 1:2:1 SS:Ss:ss.

    • C.

      The Fâ‚‚ generation will be 1:1 straight:wrinkled.

    • D.

      The Fâ‚‚ generation will be 1:1 SS:ss.

    • E.

      The Fâ‚‚ generation will be 2:1 straight:wrinkled.

    Correct Answer
    A. The Fâ‚‚ generation will be 3:1 straight:wrinkled.
    Explanation
    Choices B. and D. may be cast aside at once, since they state genotypic ratios rather than the phenotypic ratios required by the question. The genotype of the wrinkled parent flies is known to be ss, but the genotype of the straight-wing variety can be SS or Ss. Therefore, two crosses are possible with the parents: (1) SS x ss and (2) Ss x ss. As a Punnett square will show, only the cross of SS x ss will yield F1 progeny that all have straight wings. The genotype of such progeny is Ss. Crossing these to obtain the Fâ‚‚ generation will give a genotype of 1:2:1 for SS:Ss:ss, and a phenotype of 3:1 for straight:wrinkled.

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  • 20. 

    The first vertebrates were

    • A.

      Jawless fish.

    • B.

      Jawed fishes

    • C.

      Sharks

    • D.

      Bony fishes

    • E.

      Tunicates

    Correct Answer
    A. Jawless fish.
    Explanation
    The first jawless fishes arose during the Cambrian; they have descendants in modern lampreys and hagfish. Tunicates are chordates but not vertebrates.

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  • 21. 

    In an ecosystem, detritivores include

    • A.

      Lower green plants, such as bryophytes

    • B.

      Plant-eaters, such as deer

    • C.

      Algae

    • D.

      Flesh-eaters, such as wolves and lions

    • E.

      Fungi and bacteria

    Correct Answer
    E. Fungi and bacteria
    Explanation
    Choices A. and C. are producers. They harness the energy of sunlight in photosynthesis and channel the energy into the ecosystem through the food chain. Choices B. and D. are consumers—herbivores and carnivores, respectively. Wastes are called detritus. Fungi and bacteria (insects are another member of this group) as detritivores (decomposers) break down the wastes and dead bodies of other organisms

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  • 22. 

    In mice, there exists a gene for ear shape with two alleles: normal (T) and twisted (t). A cross has been made between two groups of mice. Both groups have the same genotype. The F1 progeny are 735 mice with normal ears and 265 mice with twisted ears. What is the genotype and phenotype of the parents?

    • A.

      Tt and twisted

    • B.

      Tt and normal

    • C.

      Tt and twisted

    • D.

      TT and normal

    • E.

      TT and twisted

    Correct Answer
    B. Tt and normal
    Explanation
    Choices A and E can be ruled out at once, since they offer the dominant homozygous choice E or heterozygous genotype paired with a recessive phenotype—this is clearly impossible. Choice C may also be eliminated, as all offspring from a tt x tt cross would be phenotypically recessive. The phenotypic ratio for the F1 is 735:265 for normal:twisted ears, or about 3:1. A 3:1 phenotypic ratio is associated with a 1:2:1 genotypic ratio, and both ratios will result from a crossing of heterozygotes parents, in this case, Tt x Tt. A Punnett square solution will verify this conclusion.

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  • 23. 

    In mice, there exists a gene for ear shape with two alleles: normal (T) and twisted (t). A cross has been made between two groups of mice. Both groups have the same genotype. The F1 progeny are 735 mice with normal ears and 265 mice with twisted ears. What are the genotypes of the progeny?

    • A.

      TT

    • B.

      TT and Tt

    • C.

      Tt and tt

    • D.

      TT and tt

    • E.

      TT, Tt, and tt

    Correct Answer
    E. TT, Tt, and tt
    Explanation
    A phenotype of 3:1, normal:twisted, always results from an underlying genotype of 1:2:1 for TT:Tt:tt.

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  • 24. 

    The complementary DNA sequence to this strand of DNA—A-T-C-C-G-T-A—would be

    • A.

      T-A-G-G-C-A-T.

    • B.

      T-A-C-C-G-T-A.

    • C.

      U-A-G-G-C-U-A

    • D.

      A-U-C-C-G-A-U

    • E.

      T-A-C-G-C-T-A.

    Correct Answer
    A. T-A-G-G-C-A-T.
    Explanation
    Complementary base pairing in forming new DNA is A-T and C-G. Choices C. and D. cannot be correct, and in fact do not exist, since they mix uracil (unique to RNA) and thymine (unique to DNA).

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  • 25. 

    Karyotyping can be used to diagnose which common genetic disorder?

    • A.

      Down syndrome

    • B.

      Hemophilia

    • C.

      Phenylketonuria

    • D.

      Alcoholism

    • E.

      Huntington's chorea

    Correct Answer
    A. Down syndrome
    Explanation
    Karyotyping involves taking photographs of chromosomes during metaphase in mitosis; normal and abnormal chromosomes can then be identified by appearance and numbers. Down syndrome in humans can be readily diagnosed, since it is a result of having a third chromosome number 21 accompanying the normal pair of chromosomes. This is termed a trisomy, specifically trisomy 21, referring to the three chromosomes. Other examples of trisomy are Patau syndrome (trisomy 13) and Edward's syndrome (trisomy 18). While a genetic factor is hypothesized as a factor in alcoholism, it is not proven, and in any case it does not change the karyotype. Hemophilia, Huntington's chorea, and phenylketonuria are known inherited disorders, but again, they do not affect the karyotype.

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  • 26. 

    Homologous structures share a common evolutionary origin. An example of homology would be

    • A.

      The wings of a bee and wings of a bird.

    • B.

      Human and octopus eyes, since they are anatomically very similar.

    • C.

      The pectoral fins of fish and wings of bats.

    • D.

      A lobster's leg and a frog's leg.

    • E.

      A form of hemoglobin found in plants and hemoglobin in vertebrate blood.

    Correct Answer
    C. The pectoral fins of fish and wings of bats.
    Explanation
    Pectoral fins and wings meet the tests of homology: they can be shown to have a common genetic and developmental origin. Each is a modification of the same basic anatomical structure, the vertebrate limb. The wings of bees and birds, by contrast, are functionally similar, but no more than that. Their evolutionary origins are individually unique, and there is no developmental commonality. In no sense do they share a common developmental or evolutionary origin. Human and octopus eyes are indeed anatomically similar, but like the other incorrect examples, they are distinct and separate innovations in evolution.

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  • 27. 

    The following graph:

    • A.

      Shows the rate of photosynthesis over a range of temperatures for C₄ plants (LINE ONE) versus C₃plants (LINE TWO).

    • B.

      Shows the rate of photosynthesis over a range of temperatures for C₃ plants (LINE ONE) versus C₄ plants (LINE TWO).

    • C.

      Shows the rate of photosynthesis over a range of temperatures for C₃ plants (LINE ONE) versus CAM plants (LINE TWO).

    • D.

      Contrasts cellular respiration rates in C₄ plants (LINE ONE) and C₃ plants (LINE TWO) over a range of ambient temperatures.

    • E.

      Cannot be interpreted without further information.

    Correct Answer
    A. Shows the rate of photosynthesis over a range of temperatures for C₄ plants (LINE ONE) versus C₃plants (LINE TWO).
    Explanation
    The x-axis is increasing temperature, and the y-axis shows the rate of photosynthesis measured as carbon dioxide uptake. Higher rates of photosynthesis will consume more carbon dioxide. In this study, the rate of carbon dioxide uptake by plants over a range of temperatures was measured as a way of determining how the rate of photosynthesis is affected by temperature. C₄ plants are known to be better adapted for carrying out photosynthesis at elevated environmental temperature than are C₃ plants. This is shown by the graph. C₄ (LINE ONE) plants continue to function well at higher temperatures, while C₃ (LINE TWO) plants show a decrease in photosynthesis carried out as temperatures become more extreme. Note that at the higher temperatures, the C₄ plants have a higher rate of photosynthesis compared with C₃ plants. The actual rate of C₄ carbon dioxide uptake is basically unchanged as the temperature increases, while the line for the C₃ plants falls off. At lower temperatures, the C₃ plants are more efficient than the C₄ plants.

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  • 28. 

    In the pancreas, insulin

    • A.

      And glucagon are secreted by pancreatic alpha cells.

    • B.

      And glucagon are secreted by pancreatic beta cells.

    • C.

      Is secreted by beta cells and glucagon by alpha cells.

    • D.

      Is secreted by alpha cells and glucagon by beta cells.

    • E.

      And glucagon are both secreted by pancreatic acinar cells (exocrine cells).

    Correct Answer
    C. Is secreted by beta cells and glucagon by alpha cells.
    Explanation
    Pancreatic juice (a digestive juice) is secreted by acinar cells (acini), as is suggested by their alternate name of exocrine cells. Hormones are endocrine, not exocrine, secretions. The bulk of the gland is made up of such cells. Within that tissue exists another tissue in islands or islets, called the islets of Langerhans, which secrete insulin (from beta cells) and glucagon (from alpha cells).

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  • 29. 

    A biologist is studying the transport of a certain type of molecule into a cell. The researcher finds that transport slows when the cells are poisoned with a chemical that inhibits energy production. Under normal circumstances the molecule under study is probably transported into the cell by

    • A.

      Simple diffusion

    • B.

      Facilitated diffusion

    • C.

      Active transport

    • D.

      Osmosis

    • E.

      Exocytosis

    Correct Answer
    C. Active transport
    Explanation
    An example is poisoning the process of ATP production or hydrolysis in a cell. This stops the sodium-potassium pump from moving Na+ and K+ ions across the cell membrane. This active transport pump is dependent on ATP for energy.

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  • 30. 

    The fibers in skeletal muscles are made up of many myofibrils surrounded by a membrane called

    • A.

      Sarcolemma

    • B.

      Sacculus

    • C.

      Sacrum

    • D.

      Synovial membrane

    • E.

      Sarcoplasmic reticulum

    Correct Answer
    A. Sarcolemma
    Explanation
    Sarcolemma is a plasma membrane surrounding groups of the myofibrils that make up striated (skeletal) muscle fibers. Without specific knowledge of the answer, choices A. and E. are likely candidates, as both contain sarco-, which is specific for terms relating to muscles. Sarcoplasmic reticulum is the endoplasmic reticulum of muscles. The sacculus is not involved with muscles but is part of the vertebrate inner ear.

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  • 31. 

    The kingdom Protista includes all of the following EXCEPT

    • A.

      Dinoflagellates

    • B.

      Forams (Foraminifera)

    • C.

      Euglenoids (Euglenophyta)

    • D.

      Diatoms

    • E.

      Yeasts

    Correct Answer
    E. Yeasts
    Explanation
    Yeasts, although once classified as plants, are now classified as members of the kingdom Fungi.

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  • 32. 

    Cell walls of chitin, sometimes with cellulose present, are characteristic of

    • A.

      Arthropods such as insects and lobsters.

    • B.

      Higher plants such as angiosperms.

    • C.

      Fungi

    • D.

      Prokaryotes

    • E.

      Algae

    Correct Answer
    C. Fungi
    Explanation
    While arthropods have a chitinous exoskeleton, they are animals and do not have cell walls. Plant (and algal) cell walls are made from cellulose. The cell walls of prokaryotes are not chitinous and are unlike those of any eukaryotes.

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  • 33. 

    What part of the mammalian nervous system is considered to act mainly during periods of stress, enabling a flight or fight reaction (faster heartbeat, deepened respiration, etc.)?

    • A.

      Somatic nervous system

    • B.

      Parasympathetic nervous system

    • C.

      Sympathetic nervous system

    • D.

      Autonomic nervous system

    • E.

      Central nervous system

    Correct Answer
    C. Sympathetic nervous system
    Explanation
    The sympathetic nervous system is usually identified with the flight or fight response. The other choices are incorrect or too general. For instance, the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems together make up the autonomic nervous system. The central nervous system consists of the brain and spinal cord. The somatic nervous system is made up of sensory and motor nerves and controls skeletal (voluntary, striated) muscles.

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  • 34. 

    What part of the nervous system generally works in a fashion antagonistic to the functions of the parasympathetic nervous system, when both affect the same organ?

    • A.

      Somatic nervous system

    • B.

      Parasympathetic nervous system

    • C.

      Sympathetic nervous system

    • D.

      Autonomic nervous system

    • E.

      Central nervous system

    Correct Answer
    C. Sympathetic nervous system
    Explanation
    The sympathetic nervous system and parasympathetic nervous system usually act in opposition to each other. The sympathetic nervous system causes dilation of the bronchioles, while the parasympathetic causes constriction. The sympathetic decreases the secretions of the stomach and reduces intestinal motility, while speeding up the heartbeat; the parasympathetic increases both secretions and motility but slows the heartbeat. Smooth and cardiac muscles, and most glands, are controlled by the contrasting and opposite information from these two parts of the autonomic nervous system.

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  • 35. 

    In what part of the nervous system are myelinated axons white and unmyelinated axons gray?

    • A.

      Somatic nervous system

    • B.

      Parasympathetic nervous system

    • C.

      Sympathetic nervous system

    • D.

      Autonomic nervous system

    • E.

      Central nervous system

    Correct Answer
    E. Central nervous system
    Explanation
    The colors of the axons form the basis for classifying regions of the CNS as made up of white or gray matter. In the brain, the gray matter is on the outside, and the white matter on the inside. In the spinal cord, the situation is reversed, with the gray matter on the inside, and white matter on the inside. Myelin is a fatty insulating material.

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  • 36. 

    In conifer trees, the male cone is ________ than the female cone and produces __________.

    • A.

      Smaller, megaspores

    • B.

      Smaller, microspores

    • C.

      Larger, megaspores

    • D.

      Larger, microspores

    • E.

      Smaller, motile sperm

    Correct Answer
    B. Smaller, microspores
    Explanation
    The cone size matches the size of the spores it produces. The larger female cones produce megaspores, while the smaller male cones produce microspores. Gymnosperms such as conifers and other higher plants do not have motile sperm, a characteristic associated with plants such as bryophytes, which require water or wet conditions for sperm to move.

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  • 37. 

    A climax community is

    • A.

      Made up of only hardwood trees and no softwoods.

    • B.

      Made up of softwood trees.

    • C.

      A stable biotic community, which is in dynamic equilibrium with current environmental conditions.

    • D.

      A biotic community that no longer changes in any way.

    • E.

      B. and C.

    Correct Answer
    C. A stable biotic community, which is in dynamic equilibrium with current environmental conditions.
    Explanation
    A climax community is in a state of dynamic equilibrium with its environment, meaning that it does change, but on average it will be almost the same. A climax forest will be predominantly hardwoods, but some softwoods (pines) will remain.

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  • 38. 

    The arthropod structures that remove nitrogenous wastes from the hemocoel are the

    • A.

      Melanocytes

    • B.

      Kidneys

    • C.

      Nephrons

    • D.

      Malpighian corpuscles

    • E.

      Malpighian tubules

    Correct Answer
    E. Malpighian tubules
    Explanation
    Kidneys and nephrons are vertebrate structures. A Malpighian corpuscle is a unit of the nephron consisting of the glomerulus and Bowmans capsule. Malpighian tubules remove wastes from the hemocoel to the intestine.

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  • 39. 

    During the processing of mRNA from its initial form to a mature transcript, _____ are cut out and a(n) _________ is added to the 3' end and a cap at the 5' end.

    • A.

      DNA nucleotides, cap

    • B.

      Introns, exon

    • C.

      Introns, poly-T tail

    • D.

      Introns, poly-A tail

    • E.

      Exons, poly-A tail

    Correct Answer
    D. Introns, poly-A tail
    Explanation
    Introns are removed, exons left (to be expressed, hence the name), and a cap and tail added to make mature mRNA.

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  • 40. 

    Breeding activities in birds are usually initiated in response to

    • A.

      Changes in temperature

    • B.

      Increasing day lengths

    • C.

      An internal clock that is independent of the environment.

    • D.

      The weather

    • E.

      The height of the sun's path as it travels from horizon to horizon

    Correct Answer
    B. Increasing day lengths
    Explanation
    Breeding activities in most birds are cued by the increasingly long days that occur in spring.

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  • 41. 

    Why do muscles suffer fatigue?

    • A.

      The tissues run out of glucose and cannot produce more ATP.

    • B.

      Lactic acid accumulates, raising the pH, and glycogen reserves are exhausted.

    • C.

      Lactic acid accumulates because of anaerobic activity, lowering the pH, and glycogen reserves are exhausted.

    • D.

      Glycogen reserves are exhausted.

    • E.

      Lactic acid accumulates because of anaerobic activity, lowering the pH, and glycogen reserves are exhausted; in aerobic activity depletion of glycogen puts a limit on muscular activity.

    Correct Answer
    E. Lactic acid accumulates because of anaerobic activity, lowering the pH, and glycogen reserves are exhausted; in aerobic activity depletion of glycogen puts a limit on muscular activity.
    Explanation
    During aerobic work (free oxygen is readily available), cells can derive energy from glucose and fatty acids and work for a long time, until glycogen stores are exhausted. In anaerobic exercise (free oxygen is not available in sufficient supply), the ability to work is much more limited, and fatigue sets in rapidly. Fermentation must be used as a source of ATP, producing lactic acid that builds up (lowering the pH), causing pain in the muscle. Since the ATP derived from glycogen is much less in anaerobic than aerobic work, glycogen is more quickly used up in anaerobic than aerobic activities. The combination of chemical changes and glycogen depletion soon causes the muscle to fatigue.

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  • 42. 

    There are ___ codons, of which _____ is (are) for start and ______ is (are) for stop.

    • A.

      64, one, three

    • B.

      16, one, three

    • C.

      64, three, one

    • D.

      16, three, three

    • E.

      64, two, one

    Correct Answer
    A. 64, one, three
    Explanation
    The genetic code is redundant and degenerate. If each mRNA codon consisted of one of the four RNA nucleotides, only four of the 20 amino acids could be coded for. If two nucleotides were used per codon, only 16 amino acids could be coded for, still falling four short. With three nucleotides per codon, 64 distinct codons exist, resulting in a surplus of codons. Of the 64 codons, 61 code for amino acids, one (AUG) codes for both start and the amino acid methionine, and three code for stop.

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  • 43. 

    The midpiece of a sperm contains numerous

    • A.

      Mitochondria

    • B.

      Ribosomes

    • C.

      Vesicles

    • D.

      A. and B

    • E.

      B. and C

    Correct Answer
    A. Mitochondria
    Explanation
    As expected of a cell that has to swim a long distance compared with its size, many energy-producing organelles are needed.

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  • 44. 

    Water and mineral nutrients are absorbed by a plant through

    • A.

      The root epidermis, often by protruding hairy roots.

    • B.

      The taproot, usually by small roots called root hairs.

    • C.

      The epidermis on roots, typically by epidermal root hairs.

    • D.

      Transpiration

    • E.

      Xylem tissues

    Correct Answer
    C. The epidermis on roots, typically by epidermal root hairs.
    Explanation
    Epidermal cells in the root absorb water, usually through projections from the cell (root hairs). These root hairs are parts of a cell, cytoplasmic extensions, and not small roots themselves. Xylem transports water within the plant but does not absorb water into the plant.

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  • 45. 

    Monoecious plants

    • A.

      Produce two seed leaves, parallel veins in leaves, and have flower parts in threes or multiples of three.

    • B.

      Produce one seed leaf and have flower parts in multiples of four or five.

    • C.

      Produce one seed leaf and have flower parts in threes or multiples of threes.

    • D.

      Have only male or female flowers on one plant.

    • E.

      Have male flowers and female flowers—each flower of one sex only—on each plant.

    Correct Answer
    E. Have male flowers and female flowers—each flower of one sex only—on each plant.
    Explanation
    Monoecious is analogous to the term hermaphrodite, which is used for animals having both sexes in one organism. Choice A. is a description of monocots, while choice B. describes dicots.

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  • 46. 

    A niche (ecological niche)

    • A.

      Is the ecological role a species plays in a biotic community.

    • B.

      Is the exact physical location of an individual in a habitat.

    • C.

      Is a concept that applies only to birds.

    • D.

      Is usually occupied by many related species, minimizing competition for resources.

    • E.

      Would be described by a biologist as identical to the organism's habitat.

    Correct Answer
    A. Is the ecological role a species plays in a biotic community.
    Explanation
    While niche is sometimes used loosely to describe the part of the habitat occupied by a species, this is not the correct biological use of the word. This rules out choices B. and E., while choice C. is clearly wrong. Choice D. would be correct if the phrasing were changed from occupied by many related species to occupied by one species. Niches do overlap sometimes, but usually organisms occupy different niches, minimizing competition. If two species do occupy the same niche, competition will soon get rid of one of them—this is known as competitive exclusion.

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  • 47. 

    Decomposer food chains start with

    • A.

      Animal wastes

    • B.

      Dead organisms

    • C.

      Sunlight

    • D.

      A. and B

    • E.

      A. and C

    Correct Answer
    D. A. and B
    Explanation
    Decomposers (detritivores) such as fungi, bacteria, insects, and soil organisms break down the wastes and remains of organisms that litter the ecosystem, and they release tied-up nutrients into the environment, where they are recycled by plants. Sunlight is the source of energy at the base of the herbivore food chain.

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  • 48. 

    Most inherited traits are affected both by genes and environment (nature versus nurture). Give an example of a human gene that is expressed without any environmental influence—that is, the phenotype results from the expression of the gene alone and is not affected by the environment.

    • A.

      Height

    • B.

      Weight

    • C.

      Blood type

    • D.

      Length of the femur

    • E.

      Skin color

    Correct Answer
    C. Blood type
    Explanation
    Height, weight, and femur length can all be affected by environmental factors such as diet. Skin color can be affected by exposure to the sun. Blood type is entirely predictable if the parents' blood types are known.

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  • 49. 

    This marine zone in one form is found in both tropical and subtropical regions, with relatively warm and shallow water, and contains calcium carbonate structures laid down by animals. This is the _____ ______.

    • A.

      Abyssal zone

    • B.

      Neritic zone

    • C.

      Euphotic zone

    • D.

      Coastal zone

    • E.

      Bathyal zone

    Correct Answer
    D. Coastal zone
    Explanation
    The sentence describes coral reefs. The classification coral reef zone is also sometimes used. The neritic zone lies over the continental shelves. It is sunlit, and photosynthesis occurs. Oxygen levels are high. The euphotic zone is made up of ocean waters down to the limit of sunlight penetration. Photosynthesis occurs here as well, resulting in high oxygen levels. The bathyal zone is deeper and darker than the euphotic zone and unable to support photosynthesis. Oxygen levels are therefore low. The deepest zone is the abyssal, where no light penetrates. It has low oxygen levels and is cold.

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  • 50. 

    Most commercial fishing is done in what zone?

    • A.

      Abyssal zone

    • B.

      Neritic zone

    • C.

      Euphotic zone

    • D.

      Coastal zone

    • E.

      Bathyal zone

    Correct Answer
    B. Neritic zone
    Explanation
    The abundance of algae and plants, and high oxygen levels, supports a varied and populous community.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2022
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Mar 20, 2009
    Quiz Created by
    Lvnagain
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