Surgical Technology Examination Appleton & Lange 13-32 CST Exam Prep

234 Questions  I  By YourMainParadox
Please take the quiz to rate it.

CST Quizzes & Trivia
Surgical Technology Examination Appleton & Lange 13-32 CST exam prep

  
Changes are done, please start the quiz.


Questions and Answers

Removing question excerpt is a premium feature

Upgrade and get a lot more done!
  • 1. 
    160. The english surgeon who began the age of chemical control of the atmosphere was
    • A. 

      Ehrlich

    • B. 

      Madame curie

    • C. 

      Alexander

    • D. 

      Lister


  • 2. 
    161. Passage of fluid through a cell membrane is called
    • A. 

      Metosis

    • B. 

      Miosis

    • C. 

      Osmosis

    • D. 

      Symbiosis


  • 3. 
    162. Oxygen-dependent bacteria are said to be
    • A. 

      Anaerobic

    • B. 

      Bacillic

    • C. 

      Antibiotic

    • D. 

      Aerobic


  • 4. 
    163. The destruction of bacteria by white cells during the inflammatory process is called
    • A. 

      Symbiosis

    • B. 

      Mitosis

    • C. 

      Lymphocytosis

    • D. 

      Phagocytosis


  • 5. 
    165. staphylococcus aureus would most likely be transmitted by
    • A. 

      Urine

    • B. 

      Feces

    • C. 

      Nose and mouth

    • D. 

      Sex organs


  • 6. 
    166. Microbial death occurs when an organism is
    • A. 

      Reproducing at a slower rate

    • B. 

      Reduced in population

    • C. 

      No longer capable of reproduction

    • D. 

      Exposed to heat


  • 7. 
    167. What immune protection is available to the fetus
    • A. 

      Natural active

    • B. 

      Natural passive

    • C. 

      Active artificial

    • D. 

      Passive artificial


  • 8. 
    168. The clinical syndrome characterized by microbial invasion of the bloodstream is
    • A. 

      Superinfection

    • B. 

      Septicemia

    • C. 

      Cross-infection

    • D. 

      Cellulitis


  • 9. 
    169. A toxoid is
    • A. 

      An inactivated toxin

    • B. 

      A substance that elicits an immune responce

    • C. 

      A poison produced by an infectious agent

    • D. 

      A substance that the body recognizes as foreign, thus evoking an immune response


  • 10. 
    170. inflammatory exudate that is thick and yellow is termed
    • A. 

      Suppurative

    • B. 

      Fibrinous

    • C. 

      Serous

    • D. 

      Mucous


  • 11. 
    171. The body's first line of defense against the invasion of pathogens is
    • A. 

      The immune response

    • B. 

      Skin and mucous membrane linings

    • C. 

      Cellular and chemical responses

    • D. 

      Phagocytosis


  • 12. 
    172. rodlike shaped bacteria are identified microscopically as
    • A. 

      Bacilli

    • B. 

      Cocci

    • C. 

      Spirilla

    • D. 

      Spirochetes


  • 13. 
    173. a procedure used to remove damaged tissue that provides growth conditions for pathogens is called
    • A. 

      Incision and drainage

    • B. 

      Dessication

    • C. 

      Lysis of adhesions

    • D. 

      Debridement


  • 14. 
    174. herpes simplex is commonly called
    • A. 

      Cold sore

    • B. 

      Shingles

    • C. 

      Smallpox

    • D. 

      Chicken pox


  • 15. 
    175. all of the following descriptors refer to the inflammatory process except
    • A. 

      Heat

    • B. 

      Pain

    • C. 

      Vasoconstriction

    • D. 

      Edema


  • 16. 
    176. clostridium tetani causes
    • A. 

      Gangrene

    • B. 

      Nosocomial infection

    • C. 

      Lockjaw

    • D. 

      Malaria


  • 17. 
    177. a laboratory procedure useful in classifying bacteria using a staining procedure is
    • A. 

      Gram stain

    • B. 

      Iodine stain

    • C. 

      Acid fast stain

    • D. 

      Differential stain


  • 18. 
    178. a fulminating infection arising from necrotic tissue and spreading rapidly is
    • A. 

      Rabies

    • B. 

      Gas gangrene

    • C. 

      Pasteurellosis

    • D. 

      Tetanus


  • 19. 
    179. which bacteria is commonly found in soil
    • A. 

      Clostridium tetani

    • B. 

      Trypanosoma brucei

    • C. 

      Pediculus vestimenti

    • D. 

      Yersinia pestis


  • 20. 
    180. The bacteria that causes rheumatic fever is
    • A. 

      Escherichia coli

    • B. 

      Streptococcus

    • C. 

      Pseudomonas

    • D. 

      Staphylococcus


  • 21. 
    181. a severe allergic reaction possibly resulting in death is called
    • A. 

      Arthus reaction

    • B. 

      Hypersensibility

    • C. 

      Anaphylactic shock

    • D. 

      Autoimmune disease


  • 22. 
    182. What organism is responsible for a boil
    • A. 

      Staphylococcus aureus

    • B. 

      Clostridium perfringens

    • C. 

      Escherichia coli

    • D. 

      Neisseria


  • 23. 
    183. the organism most frequently found in burns is
    • A. 

      Clostridium perfringens

    • B. 

      Pseudomonas aeruginosa

    • C. 

      Clostridium tetani

    • D. 

      Hemolytic streptococci


  • 24. 
    184. a bacterial pathogen most frequently invading damaged skin is
    • A. 

      Staphylococcus aureus

    • B. 

      Clostridium tetani

    • C. 

      Pseudomonas septica

    • D. 

      Candida albicans


  • 25. 
    185. which type of wound would favor the development of gas gangrene
    • A. 

      Moist

    • B. 

      Necrotic

    • C. 

      Dry

    • D. 

      Warm


  • 26. 
    186. gas gangrene is caused by
    • A. 

      Fusobacterium

    • B. 

      Clostridium tetani

    • C. 

      Pseudomonas aeruginosa

    • D. 

      Clostridium perfringens


  • 27. 
    187. the bacteria highly resistant to sterilization and disinfection is
    • A. 

      Spores

    • B. 

      Fungus

    • C. 

      Gram-positive

    • D. 

      Pseudomonas


  • 28. 
    188. a bacteria found in the intestinal tract is
    • A. 

      Escherichia coli

    • B. 

      Bordetella pertussis

    • C. 

      Franciscella tularensis

    • D. 

      Neisseria gonorrhoeae


  • 29. 
    189. the burn classification that is characterized by a dry, pearly white, or charred-appearing surface is
    • A. 

      First

    • B. 

      Second

    • C. 

      Third

    • D. 

      Fourth


  • 30. 
    190. OSHA is a governmental regulating agency whose aim is to
    • A. 

      Provide guidlines to prevent transmission of blood-borne infections

    • B. 

      Execute requirements designed to prevent transmission of blood-borne pathogens in the work environment

    • C. 

      Require that communicable diseases be reported to a public health agency

    • D. 

      Train employees how to recognize and execute safe practices


  • 31. 
    191. Inflammation is characterized by pain, redness, heat, swelling, and loss of function. The redness can be attributed to
    • A. 

      Serum brought into the area

    • B. 

      Constriction of capillaries

    • C. 

      Vasodilation bringing more blood to the area

    • D. 

      Heat from metabolic reaction


  • 32. 
    192. removal of contaminated debris from a wound is called
    • A. 

      Decontamination

    • B. 

      Debridement

    • C. 

      Dehiscence

    • D. 

      Desiccation


  • 33. 
    193. the space caused by separation of wound edges is called
    • A. 

      Lag phase

    • B. 

      Evisceration

    • C. 

      Fibrous scarring

    • D. 

      Dead space


  • 34. 
    194. if tissue is approximated too tightly is can cause
    • A. 

      Ischemia

    • B. 

      Excessive scar tissue

    • C. 

      Keloids

    • D. 

      Adhesions


  • 35. 
    195. tensile strength of a wound refers to
    • A. 

      The suture strength

    • B. 

      Ability of tissue to resist rupture

    • C. 

      Wound contraction

    • D. 

      Tissue approximation


  • 36. 
    196. the substance that unites with thrombin to form fibrin, the basic structural material of blood clots is
    • A. 

      Fibrinogen

    • B. 

      Prothrombin

    • C. 

      Fibrin

    • D. 

      Thrombin


  • 37. 
    197. a cicatrix is
    • A. 

      An abscess

    • B. 

      A scar

    • C. 

      Pus

    • D. 

      A wound


  • 38. 
    199. a wound that is infected or one in which there is an excessive loss of tissue heals by
    • A. 

      Primary intention

    • B. 

      Secondary intention

    • C. 

      Third intention

    • D. 

      Fourth intention


  • 39. 
    200. a CDC guideline that addresses the care of "sharps" includes all of the following except
    • A. 

      Needles should always be recapped

    • B. 

      Needles should not be bent or broken by hand

    • C. 

      Needles should not be removed from disposable syringes

    • D. 

      Needles should be discarded in puncture-resistant containers for disposal


  • 40. 
    201. the type of wound healing that requires debridement is
    • A. 

      First

    • B. 

      Second

    • C. 

      Third

    • D. 

      Fourth


  • 41. 
    202. to promote healing, a surgical wound must have all of the following requisites except
    • A. 

      Suture closure of dead space

    • B. 

      Drains to remove fluid or air

    • C. 

      A moderately tight dressing

    • D. 

      Tight sutures to create tension


  • 42. 
    203. wound healing that employs a technique allowing the wound to heal from the bottom up is called
    • A. 

      Interrupted intention

    • B. 

      First intention

    • C. 

      Second intention

    • D. 

      Third intention


  • 43. 
    204. which body fluid is least likely to transmit HIV
    • A. 

      Blood

    • B. 

      Semen

    • C. 

      Saliva

    • D. 

      Spinal fluid


  • 44. 
    205. a band of scar tissue that binds together two anatomical surfaces that are normally separate from each other is called
    • A. 

      Keloid

    • B. 

      Adhesion

    • C. 

      Cicatrix

    • D. 

      Dehiscence


  • 45. 
    206. a drug that interferes with the blood clotting mechanism is
    • A. 

      Lidocaine

    • B. 

      Fentanyl

    • C. 

      Heparin

    • D. 

      Cefazolin


  • 46. 
    207. an mg is a measurement of
    • A. 

      Length

    • B. 

      Weight

    • C. 

      Volume

    • D. 

      Temperature


  • 47. 
    208. the solutions used intravenously to replace plasma when plasma is not available is
    • A. 

      0.9 % NaCl

    • B. 

      Dextrose 5% in water

    • C. 

      Lactated ringer's solution

    • D. 

      Dextran


  • 48. 
    209. an inch equals
    • A. 

      2.2 cm

    • B. 

      2.54 cm

    • C. 

      4.4 cm

    • D. 

      10 cm


  • 49. 
    210. how many milliliters are in 1 ounce
    • A. 

      10

    • B. 

      30

    • C. 

      75

    • D. 

      100


  • 50. 
    211. one gram equals
    • A. 

      100mg

    • B. 

      1000mg

    • C. 

      100mL

    • D. 

      1000mL


  • 51. 
    212. a drug used to increase blood pressure is
    • A. 

      Avitene

    • B. 

      Epinephrine

    • C. 

      Heparin

    • D. 

      Mannitol


  • 52. 
    213. the action of an anticholinergic drug is to reduce
    • A. 

      Heart rate

    • B. 

      Anxiety

    • C. 

      Nausea

    • D. 

      Secretions


  • 53. 
    214. the total volume in a 30-cc syringe is
    • A. 

      1 ounce

    • B. 

      2 ounces

    • C. 

      3 ounces

    • D. 

      4 ounces


  • 54. 
    215. Naloxone (narcan) is an example of a/an
    • A. 

      Narcotic antagonist

    • B. 

      Mydriatic

    • C. 

      Histamine

    • D. 

      Diuretic


  • 55. 
    216. avitene is
    • A. 

      Hemostatic

    • B. 

      Adrenergic

    • C. 

      Cycloplegic

    • D. 

      Mydriatic


  • 56. 
    217. an absorbable gelatin hemostatic agent that is often soaked in thrombin or epinephrine solution is
    • A. 

      Avitene

    • B. 

      Oxycel

    • C. 

      Nu-knit

    • D. 

      Gelfoam


  • 57. 
    218. Each of the following agents must be applied using dry gloves or instruments except
    • A. 

      Gelfoam

    • B. 

      Collastat

    • C. 

      Avitene

    • D. 

      Helistat


  • 58. 
    219. an anticoagulant given subcutaneously, intravenously, or as a flush is
    • A. 

      Nitroglycerin

    • B. 

      Dextran

    • C. 

      Heparin

    • D. 

      Thrombin


  • 59. 
    220. a drug that decreases the tendency of blood platelets to clot is
    • A. 

      Warfarin sodium

    • B. 

      Diazepam

    • C. 

      Lorazepam

    • D. 

      Midazolam HCI


  • 60. 
    221. an antibiotic used intraoperatively is
    • A. 

      Diazepam

    • B. 

      Ketoralac

    • C. 

      Cyclogyl

    • D. 

      Gentamicin


  • 61. 
    222. a topical antibiotic is 
    • A. 

      Bacitracin

    • B. 

      Ephedrine

    • C. 

      Ancef

    • D. 

      Keflex


  • 62. 
    223. which item is used on cut edges of bone to seal off oozing of blood
    • A. 

      Electroautery

    • B. 

      Silver nitrate

    • C. 

      Bone wax

    • D. 

      Epinephrine


  • 63. 
    224. the most common diuretic is
    • A. 

      Lasix

    • B. 

      Pronestyl

    • C. 

      Esoptin

    • D. 

      Cefadyl


  • 64. 
    225. an osmotic diuretic agent used to decrease cerebral edema and intraocular edema is 
    • A. 

      Diuril

    • B. 

      Fluosemide

    • C. 

      Papaverine

    • D. 

      Mannitol


  • 65. 
    226. a systemic agent used to control uterine hemorrhage is
    • A. 

      Protamine

    • B. 

      Pitocin

    • C. 

      Procainamide HCI

    • D. 

      Phenylephrine


  • 66. 
    227. steroids are used for 
    • A. 

      Reduction of fluid in body

    • B. 

      Reduction of body's need for oxygen

    • C. 

      Reduction of tissue inflammation and swelling

    • D. 

      Reduction of uterine constriction and contraction


  • 67. 
    228. solu-medrol is a(n)
    • A. 

      Antibiotic

    • B. 

      Myotic

    • C. 

      Mydriatic

    • D. 

      Anti-inflammatory


  • 68. 
    229. tubal patency may be tested by the installation of _________ into the uterine cavity.
    • A. 

      Balanced salt solution

    • B. 

      Chymar

    • C. 

      Methylene blue

    • D. 

      Gentian violet


  • 69. 
    230. a mydriatic drug, neo-synephrine, is used to
    • A. 

      Constrict the pupil

    • B. 

      Dilate the pupil

    • C. 

      Anesthetize the eye

    • D. 

      Lower intra-ocular pressure


  • 70. 
    231. Immobility of the eye, along with lowered intra-ocular pressure is facilitated by the use of
    • A. 

      Diprivan block

    • B. 

      Versed block

    • C. 

      Xylocaine block

    • D. 

      Retrobulbar block


  • 71. 
    232. miochol is a(n)
    • A. 

      Antihistamine

    • B. 

      Blood thinner

    • C. 

      Miotic

    • D. 

      Anti-inflammatory


  • 72. 
    233. an agent that keeps the cornea moist during surgery and is used for irrigation as well is
    • A. 

      Mannitol

    • B. 

      Miochol

    • C. 

      Chymar

    • D. 

      Bss


  • 73. 
    234. an artificial plasma-volume expander is
    • A. 

      Mannitol

    • B. 

      Dextran

    • C. 

      Ringer's solution

    • D. 

      Uromatic


  • 74. 
    235. an anticoagulant used in vascular surgery is
    • A. 

      Protamine sulfate

    • B. 

      Heparin

    • C. 

      Adrenalin

    • D. 

      Papavarine


  • 75. 
    236. heparin effects are reversed by
    • A. 

      Pitocin

    • B. 

      Phenylephrine

    • C. 

      Protamine sulfate

    • D. 

      Procainamine Hcl


  • 76. 
    237. the universal donor blood that may be given in extreme emergencies until the patient can by typed and crossmatched is
    • A. 

      A

    • B. 

      B

    • C. 

      O

    • D. 

      Ab


  • 77. 
    238. normal saline is used for laparotomy pack moistening and for intraperitoneal irrigation because it is
    • A. 

      Hypotonic

    • B. 

      Isotonic

    • C. 

      Hypertonic

    • D. 

      Hyperkalemic


  • 78. 
    239. levophed
    • A. 

      Increases cardiac output

    • B. 

      Decreases venous return to the heart

    • C. 

      Increases urine secretion

    • D. 

      Restores and maintains blood pressure


  • 79. 
    240. a drug used to treat metabolic acidosis is
    • A. 

      Inderal

    • B. 

      Pronestyl

    • C. 

      Sodium bicarbonate

    • D. 

      Isuprel


  • 80. 
    241. the last sensation to leave the patient during general anesthesia induction is
    • A. 

      Hearing

    • B. 

      Sight

    • C. 

      Feeling

    • D. 

      Smell


  • 81. 
    242. an ultrashort acting drug useful during intubation to produce paralysis and also to produce muscle relaxation when used in a dilute solution is
    • A. 

      Sublimaze

    • B. 

      Valium

    • C. 

      Versed

    • D. 

      Anectine


  • 82. 
    243. neuroleptoanalgesia combines
    • A. 

      A narcotic and an anticholinergic

    • B. 

      A tranquilizer and a narcotic

    • C. 

      An anti-inflammatory and a tranquilizer

    • D. 

      A muscle relaxant and a tranquilizer


  • 83. 
    244. a sedative- tranquilizer used to reduce anxiety and apprehension of the pre-op patient and as an adjunct to general anesthesia to reduce the amount and concentration of other more potent agents is
    • A. 

      Valium

    • B. 

      Marzicon

    • C. 

      Anectine

    • D. 

      Demerol


  • 84. 
    245. an antimuscarinic
    • A. 

      Controls pain

    • B. 

      Prevents nausea

    • C. 

      Limits salivation

    • D. 

      Reverses muscle relaxation


  • 85. 
    246. anesthesia given in a combination of several agents to obtain optimum results is called
    • A. 

      Regional anesthesia

    • B. 

      General anesthesia

    • C. 

      Conduction anesthesia

    • D. 

      Balanced anesthesia


  • 86. 
    247. a bolus is
    • A. 

      A small, intermittent dose intravenously

    • B. 

      A dose injected intramuscularly

    • C. 

      A rapid dose subcutaneously

    • D. 

      A dose injected all at once, intravenously


  • 87. 
    248. a drug used to soothe and relieve anxiety is a(n)
    • A. 

      Cholinergic

    • B. 

      Analgesic

    • C. 

      Sedative

    • D. 

      Narcotic


  • 88. 
    249. a bier block provides
    • A. 

      Anesthesia to a distal portion of an extremity

    • B. 

      Anesthesia below the diaphragm

    • C. 

      Anesthetic block surrounding a peripheral nerve

    • D. 

      Anesthetic block to a nerve group


  • 89. 
    250. Which inhalation agent is used for short procedures requiring no muscle relaxation
    • A. 

      Nitrous oxide

    • B. 

      Halothane

    • C. 

      Ethrane

    • D. 

      Forane


  • 90. 
    251. The most frequently used barbiturate for intravenous anesthesia is
    • A. 

      Ketamine

    • B. 

      Anectine

    • C. 

      Sublimaza

    • D. 

      Pentothal


  • 91. 
    252. halothane is also called
    • A. 

      Ethrane

    • B. 

      Penthrane

    • C. 

      Forane

    • D. 

      Fluothane


  • 92. 
    253. a method of anesthesia in which medication is injected into the subarachnoid space, affecting a portion of the spinal cord is called a
    • A. 

      Bier block

    • B. 

      Field block

    • C. 

      Nerve block

    • D. 

      Spinal block


  • 93. 
    254. the indication for an epidural would be
    • A. 

      Anorectal, vaginal, perineal, and obstetric procedures

    • B. 

      Lower intestinal procedures

    • C. 

      Upper gastrointestinal procedures

    • D. 

      Above-the-waist procedures


  • 94. 
    255. compazine is
    • A. 

      An antiemetic

    • B. 

      A sedative

    • C. 

      A tranquilizer

    • D. 

      An anticholinergic


  • 95. 
    256. pontocaine is
    • A. 

      Carbocaine

    • B. 

      Tetracaine HCl

    • C. 

      Marcaine

    • D. 

      Prilocaine HCl


  • 96. 
    257. which technique can be employed to prevent pain during an operative procedure or to relieve chronic pain
    • A. 

      Local infiltration

    • B. 

      Bier block

    • C. 

      Nerve block

    • D. 

      Field block


  • 97. 
    258. the most widely used local anesthetic is
    • A. 

      Carbocaine

    • B. 

      Marcaine

    • C. 

      Prilocaine

    • D. 

      Lidocaine


  • 98. 
    259. another name for adrenalin is
    • A. 

      Ephedrine

    • B. 

      Epinephrine

    • C. 

      Lidocaine

    • D. 

      Levophed


  • 99. 
    260. a vasoconstrictor that, when added to a local anesthetic agent, extends its life is
    • A. 

      Ephedrine

    • B. 

      Epinephrine

    • C. 

      Aramine

    • D. 

      Ethrane


  • 100. 
    261. the purpose of an LMA is
    • A. 

      To establish and maintain a patent airway

    • B. 

      To provide patient cooling

    • C. 

      To minitor body temperature

    • D. 

      To evaluate cardiac and venous status


  • 101. 
    262. a drug used to reverse hypotension is
    • A. 

      Isuprel

    • B. 

      Inderal

    • C. 

      Pronestyl

    • D. 

      Levophed


  • 102. 
    263. blood or fluid can be quickly delivered to a patient via
    • A. 

      Rapid infusion pump

    • B. 

      SARA

    • C. 

      Bair hugger

    • D. 

      Doppler


  • 103. 
    264. blood oxygenation can be monitored during surgery by means of a(n)
    • A. 

      Blood pressure monitor

    • B. 

      Arterial catheter

    • C. 

      Pulse oximeter

    • D. 

      CVP catheter


  • 104. 
    265. a drug that could be used to reverse the effect of muscle relaxants is
    • A. 

      Narcan

    • B. 

      Protamine sulfate

    • C. 

      Prostigmin

    • D. 

      Valium


  • 105. 
    266. arterial blood gases (ABGs) are commonly obtained by accessing the
    • A. 

      Femoral artery

    • B. 

      Carotid artery

    • C. 

      Radial artery

    • D. 

      Renal artery


  • 106. 
    267. which piece of equipment is of extreme importance when anesthesia induction begins?
    • A. 

      Oximeter

    • B. 

      Blood pressure apparatus

    • C. 

      Oxygen

    • D. 

      Suction


  • 107. 
    268. the minimum distance a nonsterile person should remain from a sterile field is
    • A. 

      6 inches

    • B. 

      1 foot

    • C. 

      2 feet

    • D. 

      3 feet


  • 108. 
    269. identify which of the following is not safe practice
    • A. 

      Discard opened sterile bottles

    • B. 

      Sterile persons drape first toward themselves, then away

    • C. 

      Sterile persons face sterile areas

    • D. 

      Sterile tables may be covered for later use


  • 109. 
    270. tables are considered sterile
    • A. 

      On the top and 2 inches below the table level

    • B. 

      Up to 2 feet off the ground

    • C. 

      On the top and in the area that has been pulled close to the sterile field

    • D. 

      Only on the top


  • 110. 
    271. at the end of the case, drapes should be
    • A. 

      Pulled off and placed in a hamper

    • B. 

      Rolled off and placed on the floor so they can be checked for instruments

    • C. 

      Rolled off and placed in a hamper

    • D. 

      Checked for instruments, rolled off, and placed in a hamper


  • 111. 
    272. if a solution soaks through a sterile drape
    • A. 

      Discard drape and replace it

    • B. 

      Cover wet area with impervious sterile drape or towel

    • C. 

      Cover wet area with at least two layers of fabric

    • D. 

      Fill out an incident report at the end of the case


  • 112. 
    273. the pounds of pressure necessary in a steam sterilizer set at 250F is
    • A. 

      15-17

    • B. 

      20-22

    • C. 

      22-25

    • D. 

      25-27


  • 113. 
    274. positive assurance that sterilization conditions have been achieved can only be obtained through
    • A. 

      Biologic control test

    • B. 

      Heat-sensitive tape

    • C. 

      Color change monitor

    • D. 

      Mechanical indicator


  • 114. 
    275. a wrapped tray of instruments is sterilized in a gravity displacement sterilizer at 250F for
    • A. 

      10 minutes

    • B. 

      15 minutes

    • C. 

      30 minutes

    • D. 

      40 minutes


  • 115. 
    276. the minimun exposure time for unwrapped instruments in a flash sterilizer that is set at 270F (132C) is
    • A. 

      2 minutes

    • B. 

      3 minutes

    • C. 

      5 minutes

    • D. 

      7 minutes


  • 116. 
    277. when steam is used to sterilize a rubber tubing or catheter
    • A. 

      The lumen must be dried thoroughly before the process begins

    • B. 

      A rubber band may be placed around it so it does not unwind

    • C. 

      It should be fan-folded before wrapping

    • D. 

      A residual of distilled water should be left inside the lumen


  • 117. 
    278. To be sterilized effectively, a linen pack must not weigh more than
    • A. 

      12 pounds

    • B. 

      14 pounds

    • C. 

      16 pounds

    • D. 

      18 pounds


  • 118. 
    279. Gravity displacement utilizes ___________ to destroy microorganisms
    • A. 

      Gas

    • B. 

      Radiation

    • C. 

      Gamma rays

    • D. 

      Steam


  • 119. 
    280. The process called cavitation occurs in the
    • A. 

      Moist heat sterilizer

    • B. 

      Ultrasonic cleaner

    • C. 

      High-speed pressure sterilizer

    • D. 

      Washer-sterilizer


  • 120. 
    281. All of the following statements regarding instrument sets are true EXCEPT
    • A. 

      Instruments must be placed in perforated trays

    • B. 

      Heavy instruments are placed on the bottom

    • C. 

      All instruments must be closed

    • D. 

      All detachable parts must be disassembled


  • 121. 
    282. All of the following statements regarding steam sterilization are true EXCEPT
    • A. 

      Flat packages are placed on the shelf on edge

    • B. 

      Small packages, placed one on top of the other, are criss-crossed

    • C. 

      Basins are placed on their sides

    • D. 

      Solutions may be autoclaved along with other items as long as they are on a shelf alone


  • 122. 
    283. Wrapped basin sets may be sterilized by steam under pressure at 250F for a minimum of
    • A. 

      5 minutes

    • B. 

      10 minutes

    • C. 

      15 minutes

    • D. 

      20 minutes


  • 123. 
    284. Which of the following statements regarding the sterilization of basin sets is true?
    • A. 

      Basins must be separated by a porous material if they are nested

    • B. 

      Sponges and linen may be packaged inside the basin to be sterilized

    • C. 

      Basins are placed flat in the autoclave

    • D. 

      Basins must always be placed on the top shelf of the autoclave in a combined load


  • 124. 
    285. Why would gas sterilization be chosen over steam sterilization?
    • A. 

      It is less expensive

    • B. 

      It is less damaging to items

    • C. 

      It is faster

    • D. 

      It is more effective


  • 125. 
    286. The chemical agent used in gas sterilization is
    • A. 

      Ethylene glycol

    • B. 

      Ethacrynate sodium

    • C. 

      Ethyl chloride

    • D. 

      Ethylene oxide


  • 126. 
    287. What chemical system uses peracetic acid as the sterilant?
    • A. 

      Ozone gas sterilization

    • B. 

      Steris

    • C. 

      Sterrad

    • D. 

      Vapor phase sterilizer


  • 127. 
    288. The lumen of a tubing undergoing ethylene oxide (EO) sterilization is
    • A. 

      Well lubricated

    • B. 

      Dried thoroughly

    • C. 

      Prepared with a residual of distilled water

    • D. 

      Prepared with a NaCl flush


  • 128. 
    289. Why is ethylene oxide diluted with an inert gas such as chlorofluorocarbon?
    • A. 

      It provides flame retardation

    • B. 

      It increases effectiveness

    • C. 

      It adds convenience and speed

    • D. 

      It adds humidity


  • 129. 
    290. The commercial name for glutaraldehyde is
    • A. 

      Peracetic acid

    • B. 

      Phenol

    • C. 

      Quats

    • D. 

      Cidex


  • 130. 
    291. A 30 minute, single use, sterilization system useful for endoscopes is
    • A. 

      Steris

    • B. 

      ETO

    • C. 

      Steam under pressure

    • D. 

      Cold sterilization


  • 131. 
    292. Which of the following is essential when using activated glutaraldehyde for sterilization?
    • A. 

      Items must be rinsed thoroughly in sterile water before use

    • B. 

      The solution must be heated in order to be effective

    • C. 

      The items must be thoroughly moistened before placement in solution

    • D. 

      The item must be air dried before use


  • 132. 
    293. What is the shelf life of Cidex
    • A. 

      Between 14 and 28 days

    • B. 

      7 days

    • C. 

      1 month

    • D. 

      Indefinite


  • 133. 
    294. In which procedure would the use of a high-level disinfectant be acceptable instrument preparation?
    • A. 

      Suction lipectomy

    • B. 

      Tracheotomy

    • C. 

      Cystoscopy

    • D. 

      Mediastinoscopy


  • 134. 
    295. In a high-speed flash sterilizer, unwrapped instruments are exposed for a minimum of
    • A. 

      1 minute

    • B. 

      3 minutes

    • C. 

      5 minutes

    • D. 

      10 minutes


  • 135. 
    296. To kill spores, an item must be immersed in a 2% aqueous solution of glutaraldehyde for
    • A. 

      20 minutes

    • B. 

      2 hours

    • C. 

      10 hours

    • D. 

      24 hours


  • 136. 
    297. When placing tubing in an activated glutaraldehyde solution, one should
    • A. 

      Use a shallow container

    • B. 

      Be certain that the interior of the tubing is completely filled

    • C. 

      Moisten it thoroughly before submersion

    • D. 

      B and C


  • 137. 
    298. What is the role of moisture in EO sterilization?
    • A. 

      The items will dry out during the process if no humidity is added

    • B. 

      The sterilizer will deteriorate from gas over a period of time if no moisture is added

    • C. 

      Dried spores are resistant to the gas, so they must be hydrated

    • D. 

      Moisture is not an essential element in gas sterilization


  • 138. 
    299. "Slow exhaust" in a gravity displacement steam sterilizer is used for
    • A. 

      Plastics

    • B. 

      Solutions

    • C. 

      Rubber

    • D. 

      Drape packs


  • 139. 
    300. Oil is best sterilized by
    • A. 

      Ethylene oxide

    • B. 

      STERIS

    • C. 

      Convection hot air

    • D. 

      Steam


  • 140. 
    301. What is the function of an aerator in EO sterilization?
    • A. 

      It is used to aerate items before sterilization

    • B. 

      It is a separate unit used to decrease the aeration time

    • C. 

      It is the last cycle in the EO sterilizer, which helps exhaust the gas and add air

    • D. 

      It adds air to the cycle, which is essential for obtaining item sterility


  • 141. 
    302. Ethylene oxide destroys cells by
    • A. 

      Interfering with the normal metabolism of the protein and reproductive processes

    • B. 

      Coagulating cell protein

    • C. 

      Converting ions to thermal and chemical energy causing cell death

    • D. 

      Shrinking the cell


  • 142. 
    303. Activated glutaraldehyde is used to disinfect endoscopes for
    • A. 

      5 minutes

    • B. 

      10 minutes

    • C. 

      20 minutes

    • D. 

      60 minutes


  • 143. 
    304. When using a high-level disinfectant, always
    • A. 

      Submerge items while wet

    • B. 

      Rinse items with sterile distilled water before using

    • C. 

      Soak items in saline before using

    • D. 

      Add hot diluent to activated agent


  • 144. 
    305. The chemical sterilant used in the STERIS method of sterilizing is
    • A. 

      Formaldehyde

    • B. 

      Cidex

    • C. 

      Ethylene oxide

    • D. 

      Peracetic acid


  • 145. 
    306. The Endoflush system
    • A. 

      Flushes out a vessel interior

    • B. 

      Initially cleans reusable channeled instruments

    • C. 

      Flushes debris from bladder

    • D. 

      Cleans and sterilizes endoscopes


  • 146. 
    307. Which of the following is not an acceptable wrapper for gas sterilization?
    • A. 

      Nylon

    • B. 

      Muslin

    • C. 

      Paper

    • D. 

      Plastic


  • 147. 
    308. Which of the following is the only acceptable plastic that can be used for a steam sterilization wrapper?
    • A. 

      Polyethylene

    • B. 

      Polypropylene

    • C. 

      Polyamide

    • D. 

      Polyvinyl chloride


  • 148. 
    309. All of the following statements regarding muslin wrappers are true EXCEPT
    • A. 

      Muslin must be laundered, even if unused, in order to rehydrate it

    • B. 

      A 140-thread count of unbleached muslin is used for wrappers

    • C. 

      Muslin is flexible and easy to handle

    • D. 

      Small holes can be repaired by stitching on a patch


  • 149. 
    310. Packages wrapped in muslin must have
    • A. 

      One thickness

    • B. 

      Two thicknesses

    • C. 

      Three thicknesses

    • D. 

      Four thicknesses


  • 150. 
    311. The maximum storage life for a muslin wrapped item in a closed cabinet is
    • A. 

      7 days

    • B. 

      14 days

    • C. 

      21 days

    • D. 

      30 days


  • 151. 
    312. An item dropped on the floor is considered safe only if
    • A. 

      It is wrapped in woven material

    • B. 

      It is enclosed in an impervious material

    • C. 

      It is used right away

    • D. 

      It is inspected carefully


  • 152. 
    313. When using a pour solution
    • A. 

      A portion may be poured and the cap replaced

    • B. 

      The contents must be used or discarded after the bottle is opened

    • C. 

      The cap may be replaced if it has not been placed on an unsterile surface

    • D. 

      The solution may be used the same case if the cap is not replaced


  • 153. 
    314. What is the standard safety margin on package wrappers?
    • A. 

      Up to the edge

    • B. 

      Less than 1 inch

    • C. 

      1 inch or more

    • D. 

      None of the above


  • 154. 
    315. When opening a wrapper, the circulator should open the top flap
    • A. 

      Toward self

    • B. 

      Away from self

    • C. 

      After the sides

    • D. 

      Over sterile field


  • 155. 
    316. When the scrub nurse opens an inner sterile wrapper
    • A. 

      The side nearest the body is opened first

    • B. 

      The side nearest the body is opened last

    • C. 

      The lateral areas are done first

    • D. 

      A or B


  • 156. 
    317. When flipping a sterile item onto the field, the circulator may
    • A. 

      Lean over the sterile field to shake item out of package

    • B. 

      Project item without reaching over the sterile field

    • C. 

      Shake item into sterile basin stand

    • D. 

      Lean over sterile linen pack and drop item onto it


  • 157. 
    318. The room temperature in an operating room (OR) should be
    • A. 

      Below 50F

    • B. 

      Below 60F

    • C. 

      Between 68 and 76F

    • D. 

      Between 80 and 86F


  • 158. 
    319. If an OR staff member wears eyeglasses
    • A. 

      The glasses should be wiped with an antiseptic solution before each operation

    • B. 

      The glasses should be soaked for 5 minutes in an antiseptic solution before the day begins

    • C. 

      The glasses should be wiped with an antiseptic solution daily

    • D. 

      No special care is necissary


  • 159. 
    320. Each statement regarding OR attire is true EXCEPT
    • A. 

      Lab coats worn out of the OR suite should be clean, closed, and knee length

    • B. 

      Scrub suits are always changed upon re-entry to the OR suite

    • C. 

      Scrub suits may be worn out of the OR uncovered, if they are changed upon OR re-entry

    • D. 

      Nonprofessional personnel and visitors must wear approved attire in the OR


  • 160. 
    321. The most effective protection from radiation of x-rays is a
    • A. 

      Lead apron

    • B. 

      Double thick muslin apron

    • C. 

      3-foot distance from the machine

    • D. 

      3-foot distance from patient


  • 161. 
    322. It is considered good technique to
    • A. 

      Change the mask only if it becomes moistened

    • B. 

      Hang the mask around the neck

    • C. 

      Criss-cross the strings over the head

    • D. 

      Handle the mask only by the strings


  • 162. 
    323. Sterile gloves
    • A. 

      Should be wiped off after donning to remove lubricant

    • B. 

      Need not be wiped off

    • C. 

      Should be wiped off only in septic cases

    • D. 

      Should be wiped off only in eye cases


  • 163. 
    324 Electrical cords should be
    • A. 

      Removed from outlets by the cord

    • B. 

      Wrapped tightly around equipment

    • C. 

      Removed from pathways so equipment is not rolled over them

    • D. 

      Disconnected from the unit before disconnection from the wall


  • 164. 
    325. Scatter radiation effects are directly related to
    • A. 

      Amount of radiation

    • B. 

      Length of exposure

    • C. 

      Accumulation of radioactive substances in OR room

    • D. 

      Amount of radiation and length of exposure time


  • 165. 
    326. When using a patient roller, how many people are necessary to move the patient safely and efficiently?
    • A. 

      Two

    • B. 

      Three

    • C. 

      Four

    • D. 

      Five


  • 166. 
    327. When moving the patient from the OR table, who is responsible for guarding the head and neck from injury
    • A. 

      Circulating nurse

    • B. 

      Scrub nurse

    • C. 

      Anesthesiologist

    • D. 

      Surgical technician


  • 167. 
    328. To move the patient from the transport stretcher to the OR table
    • A. 

      One person stands at the head, one at the foot, while the patient moves over

    • B. 

      One person stands next to the stretcher, one adjacent to the OR table, while the patient moves over

    • C. 

      One person stands next to the stretcher, stabilizing it against the OR table, while the patient moves over

    • D. 

      One person may stand next to the OR table and guide the patient toward him if stretcher wheels are locked


  • 168. 
    329. When moving a patient with a fracture in the OR, all of the following are true EXCEPT
    • A. 

      Extra personnel are necessary

    • B. 

      Support of the extremity should always be from below the site of fracture

    • C. 

      Lifters on the affected side support the fracture

    • D. 

      The surgeon should be present


  • 169. 
    330. Which statement is false regarding the position on the OR table?
    • A. 

      Elbow should not rest against the metal table

    • B. 

      Feet should be uncrossed

    • C. 

      Pillows provide support and comfort to prevent strain

    • D. 

      Safety strap is 4 inches below the knee


  • 170. 
    331. To avoid compromising the venous circulation, the restraint or safety strap should be placed
    • A. 

      At knee level

    • B. 

      At the midthigh area

    • C. 

      2 inches above the knee

    • D. 

      2 inches below the knee


  • 171. 
    332. A patient with a fractured femur is being moved to the OR table. Who is responsible for supporting and protecting the fracture site?
    • A. 

      The nurse assistant

    • B. 

      The physician

    • C. 

      The circulating nurse

    • D. 

      The scrub nurse


  • 172. 
    333. Crossing the patient's arms across his or her chest may cause
    • A. 

      Pressure on the ulnar nerve

    • B. 

      Interference with circulation

    • C. 

      Postoperative discomfort

    • D. 

      Interference with respiration


  • 173. 
    334. A precaution always taken when the patient is in the supine position is to
    • A. 

      Place the pillows under the knees for support

    • B. 

      Place the safety strap 3 to 4 inches below the knee

    • C. 

      Place the head in a headrest

    • D. 

      Protect the heels from pressure on the OR table


  • 174. 
    335. During lateral positioning, a
    • A. 

      Pillow is placed between the legs

    • B. 

      Sandbag is placed between the knees

    • C. 

      Rolled towel is placed under the bottom leg

    • D. 

      Sheet is folded flat between the legs


  • 175. 
    336. To prevent strain to the lumbosacral muscles and ligaments when the patient is in the lithotomy position
    • A. 

      The buttocks must not extend beyond the table edge

    • B. 

      The legs must be placed symmetrically

    • C. 

      The legs must be at equal height

    • D. 

      A pillow should be placed under the sacral area


  • 176. 
    337. The lithotomy position requires each of the following EXCEPT
    • A. 

      Patient's buttocks rest along the break between the body and leg sections of the table

    • B. 

      Stirrups are at equal height on both sides of the table

    • C. 

      Stirrups are at the appropriate height for the length of the patient's legs to maintain symmetry

    • D. 

      Each leg is raised slowly and gently as it is grasped by the toes


  • 177. 
    338. All of the following are requirements of the Kraske position EXCEPT
    • A. 

      Patient is prone with hips over the break of the table

    • B. 

      A pillow is placed under lower legs and ankles

    • C. 

      A padded knee strap is applied 2 inches above knees

    • D. 

      Arms are tucked in at sides


  • 178. 
    339. When using an armboard, the most important measure is to
    • A. 

      Support the arm at the intravenous site

    • B. 

      Strap the patient's hand to it securely

    • C. 

      Avoid hyperextension of the arm

    • D. 

      Avoid hypoextension of the arm


  • 179. 
    340. Anesthetized patients should be moved slowly to
    • A. 

      Prevent fractures

    • B. 

      Prevent circulatory overload

    • C. 

      Allow the respiratory system to adjust

    • D. 

      Allow the circulatory system to adjust


  • 180. 
    341. If the patient is in a supine position, the circulator must always
    • A. 

      Place a pillow between the knees

    • B. 

      Place a pillow under the knees

    • C. 

      See that the ankles and legs are not crossed

    • D. 

      See that the thoracic area is padded adequately


  • 181. 
    342. Extreme positions of the head and arm can cause injury to the
    • A. 

      Cervical plexus

    • B. 

      Radial nerve

    • C. 

      Ulnar nerve

    • D. 

      Brachial plexus


  • 182. 
    343. Ulnar nerve damage could result from
    • A. 

      Poor placement of the legs in stirrups

    • B. 

      Hyperextension of the arm

    • C. 

      Using mattress pads of varying thickness

    • D. 

      Placing an arm on an unpadded table edge


  • 183. 
    344. In the prone position, the thorax must be elevated from the OR table to prevent
    • A. 

      Compromised respiration

    • B. 

      Pressure areas

    • C. 

      Circulatory impairment

    • D. 

      Brachial nerve damage


  • 184. 
    345. The anesthesiologist closes the eyelids of a general anesthetic patient for all of the following reasons EXCEPT
    • A. 

      Prevent drying of the eye

    • B. 

      Prevent the patient from seeing the procedure

    • C. 

      Prevent eye trauma

    • D. 

      Protect the eye from anesthetic agents


  • 185. 
    346. Diastolic blood pressure refers to
    • A. 

      The force created by the contraction of the left ventricle of the heart

    • B. 

      The relaxation phase between heartbeats

    • C. 

      The first sound heard when taking the pressure on a manometer

    • D. 

      The high point of the cycle


  • 186. 
    347. Systolic blood pressure represents
    • A. 

      The pressure in the heart chambers, great vein, or close to the heart

    • B. 

      The relaxation phase between heartbeats

    • C. 

      The low point of the cycle

    • D. 

      The greatest force caused by the contraction of the left ventricle of the heart


  • 187. 
    348. Tachycardia is a(n)
    • A. 

      Heartbeat over 100 beats per minute

    • B. 

      Irregular heartbeat

    • C. 

      Thready, weak heartbeat

    • D. 

      Heartbeat less than 60 beats per minute


  • 188. 
    349. The most common artery used to feel the pulse is the
    • A. 

      Dorsalis pedis artery

    • B. 

      Femoral artery

    • C. 

      Radial artery

    • D. 

      Carotid artery


  • 189. 
    350. The body temperature taken orally is 98.6F. What is it in Celsius?
    • A. 

      37C

    • B. 

      52C

    • C. 

      110C

    • D. 

      212C


  • 190. 
    351. Which term indicates low or decreased blood volume?
    • A. 

      Anoxemia

    • B. 

      Hypovolemia

    • C. 

      Hypoxia

    • D. 

      Hypocapnia


  • 191. 
    352. If the surgeon wants to assess the patient's ability to void voluntarily via the urethra, yet sees the need for urinary drainage, he could use a
    • A. 

      Bonanno suprapubic catheter

    • B. 

      Foley catheter

    • C. 

      Urethral stent

    • D. 

      Perineal urethrostomy


  • 192. 
    353. When catheterizing a patient
    • A. 

      The patient must be shaved

    • B. 

      The tip of the catheter must be kept sterile

    • C. 

      Sterile technique is not necessary

    • D. 

      The bag must be maintained above table level


  • 193. 
    354. In which burn classification ate the skin and subcutaneous tissue destroyed?
    • A. 

      First

    • B. 

      Second

    • C. 

      Third

    • D. 

      Fourth


  • 194. 
    355. Uncontrolled increased positive pressure in one side of the thorax causes collapse of the opposite side, which is called
    • A. 

      Flail chest

    • B. 

      Chyne-Stokes syndrome

    • C. 

      Emphysema

    • D. 

      Mediastinal shift


  • 195. 
    356. Why is the obese patient at greater surgical risk that one of normal weight?
    • A. 

      Fat has poor vascularity

    • B. 

      Fluid and electrolyte balance is compromised

    • C. 

      Kidney function is altered

    • D. 

      Immune system lacks integrity


  • 196. 
    357. The patient has received preoperative medication. The action to be taken when this patient complains of dry mouth (thirst) and requests water would be to
    • A. 

      Provide the patient unlimited water for thorough hydration

    • B. 

      Restrict water to 2 ounces

    • C. 

      Restrict fluids completely and explain the reason for action of medication

    • D. 

      Report to the surgeon immediately


  • 197. 
    358. When drawing a blood sample for arterial blood gases (ABGs), what is considered a safe time lapse between blood drawing and analysis?
    • A. 

      10 minutes

    • B. 

      20 minutes

    • C. 

      30 minutes

    • D. 

      1 hour


  • 198. 
    359. A patient is on anticoagulant drugs. Which of the following tests may be done to check the clotting time of his or her blood?
    • A. 

      Serum amylase

    • B. 

      Complete blood count

    • C. 

      Bleeding time

    • D. 

      Prothrombin time


  • 199. 
    360. The preoperative urinalysis test done on a patient indicates that the specific gravity is 1.050. This
    • A. 

      Is within normal range

    • B. 

      Is below normal range and he or she is dehydrated

    • C. 

      Is above normal range and he or she is dehydrated

    • D. 

      Is indicative of sugar in the urine


  • 200. 
    361. A type and crossmatch is done
    • A. 

      On all surgical patients

    • B. 

      If the surgeon anticipates in advance of the operation that blood loss replacement may be necessary

    • C. 

      On all hospital patients

    • D. 

      In the OR


  • 201. 
    362. A patient scheduled for surgery has a hematocrit reading of 40% of whole blood volume. This is
    • A. 

      Within normal range

    • B. 

      Below normal range

    • C. 

      Above normal range

    • D. 

      Inconclusive


  • 202. 
    363. Inherited deficiencies of coagulation in which bleeding occurs spontaneously after minor trauma is
    • A. 

      Tay-Sachs disease

    • B. 

      Hemophilia

    • C. 

      Pernicious anemia

    • D. 

      Erythroblastosis fetalis


  • 203. 
    364. Preoperative chest x-rays
    • A. 

      Are not necessary for the surgical patient

    • B. 

      Are necessary only for the thoracic surgical patient

    • C. 

      Are necessary only on the surgical patient with a chronic cough

    • D. 

      Should be done on all surgical patients


  • 204. 
    365. An electrocardiogram is
    • A. 

      An electrical recording of the heart activity

    • B. 

      An x-ray defining heart structures

    • C. 

      An x-ray of the cardiac portion of the stomach

    • D. 

      A stress test on the heart


  • 205. 
    366. After being scheduled in the OR for a routine tonsillectomy, the nurse checking the chart of a patient notes that the hemoglobin is 9.0 g. This reading is
    • A. 

      Within normal range

    • B. 

      Below normal range

    • C. 

      Above normal range

    • D. 

      Inconclusive


  • 206. 
    367. A microscopic blood exam that estimates the percentages of each type of white cell is called a
    • A. 

      Red blood count

    • B. 

      White blood count

    • C. 

      Differential blood count

    • D. 

      Blood grouping


  • 207. 
    368. Which procedure is NOT absolutely necessary in patient identification?
    • A. 

      Identification by the anesthesiologist, who checks the wristband, chart, and operating schedule

    • B. 

      Identification by the surgeon before administration of an anesthetic

    • C. 

      Identification by the circulating nurse, who checks the wristband, chart, and operating schedule

    • D. 

      Identification by the scrub nurse before the procedure begins


  • 208. 
    369. Operative records documenting all aspects of perioperative care are required by
    • A. 

      JCHO

    • B. 

      OSHA

    • C. 

      ASTM

    • D. 

      CDC


  • 209. 
    380. Except for endotrachael tube installation, basic life support cannot be interrupted for more than
    • A. 

      1 minute

    • B. 

      2 to 3 minutes

    • C. 

      5 seconds

    • D. 

      30 seconds


  • 210. 
    371. External cardiac compression
    • A. 

      Restores and maintains oxygenation

    • B. 

      Provides pulmonary ventilation

    • C. 

      Provides oxygen to vital tissues

    • D. 

      Provides peripheral pulse


  • 211. 
    372. Which action is the responsibility of the scrub person during an intraoperative CPR effort?
    • A. 

      Remain sterile, keep track of counted items, and assist as necessary

    • B. 

      Document all medications given and draw up as necessary

    • C. 

      Start clock, guard sterile field

    • D. 

      Bring defibrillator into the room and reposition the patient


  • 212. 
    373. A patient was burned on the lip with a hot mouth gag. Which of the following actions would have prevented this incident?
    • A. 

      The circulator cooled the item in the sterilizer

    • B. 

      The scrub nurse warned the surgeon that the item was hot

    • C. 

      The scrub nurse cooled the item in a basin with sterile water

    • D. 

      The surgeon had checked the item before using it


  • 213. 
    374. A patient signs a permission form for surgery, but because of a language barrier he or she does not fully understand what she or he has signed. This could constitute a liability case for
    • A. 

      Assault and battery

    • B. 

      Lack of accountability

    • C. 

      Improper documentation

    • D. 

      Invasion of privacy


  • 214. 
    375. If a patient falls because he or she was left unattended, the OR team member could be cited in a lawsuit for
    • A. 

      Misconduct

    • B. 

      Assault

    • C. 

      Doctrine of Respondeat Superior

    • D. 

      Abandonment


  • 215. 
    376. Which is not considered a safe procedure when caring for dentures inadvertently sent to the OR?
    • A. 

      Place in a properly labeled container

    • B. 

      Place in a properly labeled denture cup

    • C. 

      Return to patient unit immediately and obtain a receipt, which is placed on the chart

    • D. 

      Wrap in a plastic bag and attach to the patients chart


  • 216. 
    377. A lack of care or skill that any nurse or technician in the same situation would be expected to use is the legal definition of
    • A. 

      Assault

    • B. 

      Abandonment

    • C. 

      Negligence

    • D. 

      Default


  • 217. 
    378. The legal doctrine that mandates every professional nurse and technician to carry out their duties according to national standards of care practiced throughout the country is the
    • A. 

      Doctrine of Res ipsa Loquitor

    • B. 

      Doctrine of Respondeat Superior

    • C. 

      Nurse Practice Act

    • D. 

      Doctrine of Reasonable Man


  • 218. 
    379. The doctrine of Respondeat Superior refers to
    • A. 

      The legal terms for assault and battery

    • B. 

      Invasion of privacy

    • C. 

      Employer liability for employee's negligent conduct

    • D. 

      Professional misconduct


  • 219. 
    380. Liability is a legal rule that
    • A. 

      Applies only in criminal actions

    • B. 

      Holds the hospital responsible for its personnel

    • C. 

      Holds each individual responsible for his or her own acts

    • D. 

      Has no significance in malpractice suits


  • 220. 
    381. A criteria that identifies, measures, monitors, and evaluates patient care is
    • A. 

      Audits

    • B. 

      Automated information systems

    • C. 

      Quality control circles

    • D. 

      Quality assurance programs


  • 221. 
    382. Each of the following applies to an incident report EXCEPT
    • A. 

      Notation is made on the patient's OR record

    • B. 

      Statement should be factual and non-interpretive

    • C. 

      Description includes action taken

    • D. 

      Details are complete and accurate


  • 222. 
    383. In which way could a patient's response to impending surgery exhibit itself?
    • A. 

      Tension and anxiety

    • B. 

      Fear and suspicion

    • C. 

      Anger and hostility

    • D. 

      All of the above


  • 223. 
    384. Excessive exposure to radiation can affect the
    • A. 

      Integumentary system

    • B. 

      Brain

    • C. 

      Reproductive organs

    • D. 

      Stomach


  • 224. 
    385. Radiation exposure of the staff is monitored with
    • A. 

      A homing device

    • B. 

      A Holter monitor

    • C. 

      Film badges

    • D. 

      A notation on each operative record


  • 225. 
    386. Ionizing radiation protection is afforded by the use of
    • A. 

      Iron

    • B. 

      Ebonized coating

    • C. 

      Zinc

    • D. 

      Lead


  • 226. 
    387. A potential safety hazard associated with laser surgery is
    • A. 

      Eye injury

    • B. 

      Electrical shock

    • C. 

      Carcinogenic activity

    • D. 

      Ionizing radiation exposure


  • 227. 
    388. An OR hazard that has been linked to increased risk of spontaneous abortion in female OR employees is exposure to
    • A. 

      X-ray control

    • B. 

      Radium

    • C. 

      Sterilization agents

    • D. 

      Waste anesthetic gas


  • 228. 
    389. Which virus can be transmitted by a needle puncture or splash in the eye?
    • A. 

      Hepatitis A

    • B. 

      Hepatitis B

    • C. 

      Non-A hepatitis

    • D. 

      Non-B hepatitis


  • 229. 
    390. While using this mixture, a scavenging system is used to collect and exhaust or absorb its vapors. It is called
    • A. 

      Glutaraldehyde

    • B. 

      Polypropylene

    • C. 

      Methyl methacrylate

    • D. 

      Halon


  • 230. 
    391. The best measure for staff protection against HIV is
    • A. 

      Handling all needles and sharps carefully

    • B. 

      Using barriers to avoid direct contact with blood and body fluids

    • C. 

      Immunization of all staff with vaccine

    • D. 

      A & B


  • 231. 
    392. Which body organ is most susceptible to laser injury
    • A. 

      Skin

    • B. 

      Gonads

    • C. 

      Eye

    • D. 

      Thyroid


  • 232. 
    393. How is inhalation of the laser plume best prevented?
    • A. 

      Double mask worn by a scrub team

    • B. 

      Filter on suction

    • C. 

      Laser on standby whenever possible

    • D. 

      Mechanical smoke evacuator on field


  • 233. 
    164. Bacteriostatic means
    • A. 

      To inhibit growth of microorganisms

    • B. 

      To destroy microorganisms

    • C. 

      To control microorganisms

    • D. 

      To inactivate microorganisms


  • 234. 
    198. keloids are
    • A. 

      A form of abscess

    • B. 

      An adhered serous membrane

    • C. 

      A raised, thickened scar

    • D. 

      A benign tumor


Back to top

Removing ad is a premium feature

Upgrade and get a lot more done!
Take Another Quiz
We have sent an email with your new password.