PTCB Law Review

56 Questions  I  By Vtracy1110
Please take the quiz to rate it.

PTCB Quizzes & Trivia
Law & Ethics review for PTCB Exam

  
Changes are done, please start the quiz.


Questions and Answers

Removing question excerpt is a premium feature

Upgrade and get a lot more done!
  • 1. 
    The drug enalapril belongs in which of the following classification groups?
    • A. 

      Beta blocker

    • B. 

      ACE inhibitor

    • C. 

      NSAID

    • D. 

      Antiemetic


  • 2. 
    A prescription for which of the following medications could  not be written with refills?
    • A. 

      Nifedipine

    • B. 

      Lorazepam

    • C. 

      Methylphenidate

    • D. 

      Hydrocodone/acetaminophen


  • 3. 
    Diphenhydramine is the generic name for which of the following drugs?
    • A. 

      Benadryl

    • B. 

      Dramamine

    • C. 

      Bentyl

    • D. 

      Soma


  • 4. 
    What document is used as proof of receipt of a controlled substance, according to the DEA?
    • A. 

      Packing slip

    • B. 

      Invoice

    • C. 

      Purchase order

    • D. 

      DEA form 222a


  • 5. 
    Prescription medications are often refered to as _________________ drugs because of the federal law that requires the packaging to display the following message: "Federal Law prohibits dispensing without a prescription"
    • A. 

      Controlled

    • B. 

      Legend

    • C. 

      Prescription

    • D. 

      None of the above


  • 6. 
    The portion of the retail price of a prescription that the patient must pay is known as the:
    • A. 

      Deductable

    • B. 

      Co-pay

    • C. 

      Average wholesale price

    • D. 

      None of the above


  • 7. 
    According to the Controlled Substance Act, in what class of controlled medication is Lortab 5?
    • A. 

      V

    • B. 

      IV

    • C. 

      III

    • D. 

      II


  • 8. 
    Medications that are prepackaged into unit-dose or unit of use containers must have the following information included on the package labeling:
    • A. 

      Patients name, dispensing date, name of medication and directions for use

    • B. 

      Medication name and strength, lot number, and expiration date

    • C. 

      Medication name and strength, lot number, and directions for use

    • D. 

      None of the above


  • 9. 
    According to federal law, what is the maximum number of refills permitted for a schedule III controlled substance?
    • A. 

      Six refills within 1 year

    • B. 

      Three refills within 90 days

    • C. 

      Five refills within six months

    • D. 

      No refills are allowed


  • 10. 
    In the NDC 69907-3110-01, what do the numbers 3110 identify?
    • A. 

      Manufacturer

    • B. 

      Drug product

    • C. 

      Package size

    • D. 

      Number of tablets in the bottle


  • 11. 
    The trade name for glipizide is:
    • A. 

      Diabinese

    • B. 

      Micronase

    • C. 

      Glucophage

    • D. 

      Glucotrol


  • 12. 
    KCL supplements are most often used in combination with:
    • A. 

      Labetalol

    • B. 

      Lisinopril

    • C. 

      Naproxen

    • D. 

      Furosemide


  • 13. 
    Na is the chemical symbol for which of the following elements?
    • A. 

      Nitrogen

    • B. 

      Nickel

    • C. 

      Copper

    • D. 

      Sodium


  • 14. 
    The federal law enaccted in 1970 that requires the use of child-resistant safety caps on all dispensing containers unless otherwise desired by the patient is known as the:
    • A. 

      Controlled Substances Act

    • B. 

      Poison Prevention Act

    • C. 

      Bueller-Farris Act

    • D. 

      Harrison Narcotic Act


  • 15. 
    If one your pharmacy's patients has had an adverse drug reaction, ____________ should be used to report it.
    • A. 

      The HCFA form

    • B. 

      The MedWatch form

    • C. 

      The Universal Claim Form

    • D. 

      DEA from 222c


  • 16. 
    What schedule of controlled substances does the drug Darvocet N-100 fall under?
    • A. 

      II

    • B. 

      III

    • C. 

      IV

    • D. 

      V


  • 17. 
    A list of medications that a physician may prescribe from within a given setting is called:
    • A. 

      An MSDS

    • B. 

      A formulary

    • C. 

      A closed panel of drugs

    • D. 

      An open system


  • 18. 
    Of the drugs listed, which one could not be phoned in or filled with refills added?
    • A. 

      Hydrocodone

    • B. 

      Acetaminophen

    • C. 

      Codeine

    • D. 

      Gabapentin


  • 19. 
    A drug subject to a ___________ recall would not likely cause harm to the patient, since this recall class is the least severe.
    • A. 

      Class I

    • B. 

      Class II

    • C. 

      Class III

    • D. 

      Class V


  • 20. 
    The form used fro ordering schedule II narcotics is known as:
    • A. 

      DEA form 240

    • B. 

      DEA form 222c

    • C. 

      DEA form 121

    • D. 

      DEA form 121


  • 21. 
    The Orange Book is most often used to find:
    • A. 

      Generic equivalents

    • B. 

      Direct prices

    • C. 

      Therapuetic equivalents

    • D. 

      Manufacturer's standards


  • 22. 
    Of the following tasks involved in a pharmacy practice, which is a pharmacy technician allowed by law to perform?
    • A. 

      Giving or receiving a verbal copy

    • B. 

      Counseling a patient on the use of a medication

    • C. 

      Receiving a verbal order from a provider

    • D. 

      Filling a unit dose cart


  • 23. 
    What organization requires that oral products be stored seperate from inhaled products, topical preparations be separated from injectables, and so on?
    • A. 

      ASHP

    • B. 

      PTCB

    • C. 

      APHA

    • D. 

      JCAHO


  • 24. 
    OBRA 90 is an acronym for the:
    • A. 

      Omnibus Budget Recommendation Act of 1990

    • B. 

      Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1990

    • C. 

      Omni Bus Reconciliation Act of 1990

    • D. 

      Omni Bus Recognition Act of 1990


  • 25. 
    The only drug approved to treat high blood pressure during pregnancy is:
    • A. 

      Lidocaine

    • B. 

      Clonidine

    • C. 

      Metoprolol

    • D. 

      Methyldopa


  • 26. 
    The only hypertensive drug available as a transdermal delivery system is:
    • A. 

      Nicotine

    • B. 

      Clonidine

    • C. 

      Nitroglycerin

    • D. 

      Lidocaine


  • 27. 
    The ____________ provides guidelines for the recall of devices that could cause serious adverse effects.
    • A. 

      Safe Medical Devices Act

    • B. 

      Kefauver-Harris Amendment

    • C. 

      Durham-Humphrey Amendment

    • D. 

      Medical Device Amentdme


  • 28. 
    In pharmacies, how may controlled substanced be stored?
    • A. 

      Controlled sustances may be stored in an unlocked cabinet

    • B. 

      Controlled substances may be stored in a securely locked, substaintially contructed cabinet

    • C. 

      Controlled substances (schedule III thru V) may be stored on the pharmacy shelves among noncontrolled substances in a manner designed to deter theft.

    • D. 

      Both b and c


  • 29. 
    The __________ was a direct result of the thalidomide disaster and made manufactureres more accountable for their products.
    • A. 

      Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act

    • B. 

      Medical Device Amendment

    • C. 

      Durham-Humphrey Amendment

    • D. 

      Kefauver-Harris Amendment


  • 30. 
    The agency that oversees the Controlled Substanced Act is the:
    • A. 

      Central Intelligemce Agency

    • B. 

      Armed forces

    • C. 

      Food and Drug Administration

    • D. 

      Drug Enforcement Administration


  • 31. 
    All of the following are true statements except:
    • A. 

      All controlled substances must be inventoried on the day the pharmacy first dispenses controlled substances

    • B. 

      The inventory of schedule II medications requires an exact count or measure whereas other schedules may be estimated

    • C. 

      Prescriptions are the primary records of acquisition by a pharmacy

    • D. 

      The begining inventory plus all acquisitions minus dispensing by prescriptions or to other practioners should equal the current inventory count


  • 32. 
    The _________ gave tax incentives to manufacturers to encourage them to develop medications for rare diseases or conditions
    • A. 

      Orphan Drug Act

    • B. 

      Medical Device Amendment

    • C. 

      Kefauver-Harris Amendment

    • D. 

      Durham-Humphrey Amendment


  • 33. 
    The __________ deals with the safety and effectiveness of life-sustaining or life supporting devices.
    • A. 

      Prescription Drug Marketing Act

    • B. 

      Medical Device Amendment

    • C. 

      Durham-Humphrey Amendment

    • D. 

      Kefauver-Harris Amendment


  • 34. 
    The maximum allowable cost that an insurer will pay per tablet or dispensing unit for a given product is the:
    • A. 

      Co-payment

    • B. 

      Deductable

    • C. 

      U & C

    • D. 

      MAC


  • 35. 
    A substance with a high potiental for abuse that has no currently accepted medical use in the United States and for which there is a lack of accepted safety-for-use data would be classified as:
    • A. 

      C-IV

    • B. 

      C-III

    • C. 

      C-II

    • D. 

      C-I


  • 36. 
    The __________ requires that most prescription drugs be dispensed in childproof containers.
    • A. 

      Poison Prevention Act

    • B. 

      Safe Medical Devices Act

    • C. 

      Prescription Drug Marketing Act

    • D. 

      Medical Device Amendment


  • 37. 
    The __________ placed all hormones that prompte muscle growth or are similar to testosterone under the Controlled Substance Act.
    • A. 

      Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act

    • B. 

      Medical Device Amendment

    • C. 

      Anabolic Steroid Control Act

    • D. 

      Poison Prevention Act


  • 38. 
    The ____________ prohibits the sale of drug samples and reimportation of prescriptions and establishes fair pricing guidelines.
    • A. 

      Orphan Drug Act

    • B. 

      Prescription Drug Marketing Act

    • C. 

      Durham-Humphrey Amendment

    • D. 

      Kefauver-Harris Amendment


  • 39. 
    Certian controlled substances do not bear the federal caution legend and may be sold without a prescription. These products have small quanties of controlled substances included in them and may be sold if certain requirements are met and the proper records kept. The restrictions on such saled include the following except:
    • A. 

      The sale must be made by the pharmacist or a certified pharmacy technician

    • B. 

      The purchaser must be at least 18 and must either be known to the pharmacist or have substantial identification

    • C. 

      Not more than 8oz or more than 48 doseage units of any substance containing opium may be furished to the purchaser in any 48hr period. Not more than 4oz or 24 doseage units of any other controlled substance may be sold in any 48hr period

    • D. 

      Pharmacists must maintain a record in a bound book regarding the sale


  • 40. 
    The _________ was directed toward recipients of Medicare and  Medicaid. Pharmacists must offer consultation under this regulation
    • A. 

      Durham-Humphrey Amendment

    • B. 

      Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act

    • C. 

      Prescription Drug Marketing Act

    • D. 

      Orphan Drug Act


  • 41. 
    The _________ created the legend class of drugs.
    • A. 

      Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act

    • B. 

      Medical Device Amendment

    • C. 

      Durham-Humphrey Amendment

    • D. 

      Kefauver-Harris Amendment


  • 42. 
    How long is a C-III prescription valid from the time it's written?
    • A. 

      90 days

    • B. 

      1 yr

    • C. 

      6 months

    • D. 

      30 days


  • 43. 
    How many controlled substance scheduled exist?
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      6

    • D. 

      5


  • 44. 
    How many hours are concidered redily retrievable?
    • A. 

      24hrs

    • B. 

      48hrs

    • C. 

      72hrs

    • D. 

      12hrs


  • 45. 
    How many refills are permitted on a prescription for Accutane?
    • A. 

      6

    • B. 

      0

    • C. 

      12

    • D. 

      1


  • 46. 
    How often is a biennieal inventory?
    • A. 

      Every yr

    • B. 

      Every 6 months

    • C. 

      Every 2 yrs

    • D. 

      Every 5yrs


  • 47. 
    Whar DEA form is used to destroy controlled substances?
    • A. 

      DEA Form 41

    • B. 

      DEA Form 222c

    • C. 

      DEA Form 106

    • D. 

      DEA Form 210


  • 48. 
    Which DEA Form is used to report a theft of controlled substances?
    • A. 

      DEA Form 411

    • B. 

      DEA Form 106

    • C. 

      DEA Form 222a

    • D. 

      DEA Form 210


  • 49. 
    What is the maximum number of diffrent C-II medications taht can be ordered at one time?
    • A. 

      5

    • B. 

      10

    • C. 

      15

    • D. 

      No limit


  • 50. 
    What is the generic name for Prevacid?
    • A. 

      Omeprazole

    • B. 

      Lansoprazole

    • C. 

      Ranitidine

    • D. 

      Pantoprazole


  • 51. 
    What is the generic name for Oxy Contin?
    • A. 

      Oxycodone/acetaminophen

    • B. 

      Hydrocodone

    • C. 

      Oxycodone

    • D. 

      Fentanyl


  • 52. 
    What is the generic name for lortab
    • A. 

      Propoxy-n/acetaminophen

    • B. 

      Hydrocodone/acetaminophen

    • C. 

      Codeine/acetaminophen

    • D. 

      Oxycodone/acetaminophen


  • 53. 
    What is the generic name for Glucophage?
    • A. 

      Rosiglitazone

    • B. 

      Glipizide

    • C. 

      Glyburide

    • D. 

      Metformin


  • 54. 
    What is the generic name for Isoptin?
    • A. 

      Ramipril

    • B. 

      Losartan

    • C. 

      Clonidine

    • D. 

      Verapamil


  • 55. 
    What is the generic name for Lasix?
    • A. 

      Furosemide

    • B. 

      Warfarin

    • C. 

      Benazapril

    • D. 

      Losartan


  • 56. 
    What is the generic name for Calan?
    • A. 

      Nifedipine

    • B. 

      Verapamil

    • C. 

      Losartan

    • D. 

      Lisinopril


Back to top

Removing ad is a premium feature

Upgrade and get a lot more done!
Take Another Quiz
We have sent an email with your new password.