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Physics 101

50 Questions
Physics Quizzes & Trivia

Over EXAM #2

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    If you push an object a given distance, while applying twice the force, you do
    • A. 

      Half as much work

    • B. 

      Four times as much work

    • C. 

      The same amount of work

    • D. 

      Twice as much work

  • 2. 
    A job is done slowly, while an identical job is done quickly. Both jobs require the same amount of work, but different amounts of 
    • A. 

      Power

    • B. 

      Effort

    • C. 

      Energy

    • D. 

      None of these

  • 3. 
    A bow is drawn so that it has 40 J of potential energy. When fired, the arrow will ideally have a kinetic energy that is
    • A. 

      40 J

    • B. 

      Less than 40 J

    • C. 

      More than 40 J

    • D. 

      Impossible to predict without additional information

  • 4. 
    The ball rolling down an incline has its maximum potential energy at
    • A. 

      Halfway down

    • B. 

      The bottom

    • C. 

      A quarter of the way down

    • D. 

      The top

  • 5. 
    Which has greater kinetic energy, a car traveling at 30 km/hr or a car of half the mass traveling at 60 km/hr?
    • A. 

      The 60 km/hr car

    • B. 

      The 30 km/hr car

    • C. 

      Both have the same kinetic energy

    • D. 

      More information is needed about the distance traveled

  • 6. 
    • A. 

      90%

    • B. 

      18%

    • C. 

      30%

    • D. 

      81%

    • E. 

      None of these

  • 7. 
    A TV set is pushed a distance of 2 m with a force of 20 N. How much work is done on the set?
    • A. 

      2J

    • B. 

      800 J

    • C. 

      10 J

    • D. 

      20 J

    • E. 

      40 J

  • 8. 
    A car moves 4 times as fast as another identical car. Compared to the slower car, the faster car has
    • A. 

      8 times the KE

    • B. 

      4 times the KE

    • C. 

      16 times the KE

    • D. 

      12 times the KE

  • 9. 
    When a car is braked to a stop, its kinetic energy is transformed to 
    • A. 

      Potential energy

    • B. 

      Energy of motion

    • C. 

      Heat

    • D. 

      Energy of rest

    • E. 

      Stopping energy

  • 10. 
    Do 100 J of work in 50 s and your power output is
    • A. 

      1/2 W

    • B. 

      4 W

    • C. 

      5000 W

    • D. 

      2 W

    • E. 

      50 W

  • 11. 
    An object lifted 10 meters gains 200 J of potential energy. If the same object is lifted 20 meters, its potential energy gain is 
    • A. 

      Four times as much

    • B. 

      Half as much

    • C. 

      The same

    • D. 

      Twice as much

    • E. 

      More than four times as much

  • 12. 
    An object that has kinetic energy must be
    • A. 

      Falling

    • B. 

      Moving

    • C. 

      At rest

    • D. 

      At an elevated position

    • E. 

      None of these

  • 13. 
    A ball player wishes to determine pitching speed by throwing a ball horizontally from an elevation of 5 m above the ground. The player sees the ball land 25 m down range. What is the player's pitching speed?
    • A. 

      About 10 m/s

    • B. 

      About 25 m/s

    • C. 

      About 20 m/s

    • D. 

      About 5 m/s

    • E. 

      None of these

  • 14. 
    A river 100 m wide flows due south. A boat that goes 1 m/s relative tot he water is pointed due east as it crosses from the west bank. The boat crosses in
    • A. 

      50 s

    • B. 

      200 s

    • C. 

      100 s

    • D. 

      141 s

  • 15. 
    Which of the following is electrically neutral?
    • A. 

      Neutron

    • B. 

      Proton

    • C. 

      Electron

    • D. 

      Ion

    • E. 

      None of these

  • 16. 
    The volume of matter comes mostly from its
    • A. 

      Electrons

    • B. 

      Neutrons

    • C. 

      Protons

  • 17. 
    If a gram of antimatter meets a kilogram (1000g) of matter, the amount of mass to survive is
    • A. 

      1.1 kilograms

    • B. 

      999 grams

    • C. 

      1 gram

    • D. 

      1 kilogram

  • 18. 
    What makes an element distinct?
    • A. 

      The number of neutrons

    • B. 

      The number of electrons

    • C. 

      The number of protons

    • D. 

      The total mass of all the particles

    • E. 

      None of these

  • 19. 
    In an electrically neutral atom, the number of protons in the nucleus is balanced by an equal number of
    • A. 

      Quarks

    • B. 

      Neutrons

    • C. 

      Orbital electrons

    • D. 

      All of these

    • E. 

      None of these

  • 20. 
    The smallest particle of those listed below is 
    • A. 

      A molecule

    • B. 

      A quark

    • C. 

      A proton

    • D. 

      A neutron

    • E. 

      An atom

  • 21. 
    Solid matter is mostly empty space. The reason solids don't fall through one another is because
    • A. 

      Of nuclear forces

    • B. 

      Of gravitational forces

    • C. 

      Of electrical forces

    • D. 

      Atoms are constantly vibrating, even at absolute zero

    • E. 

      None of these

  • 22. 
    If one neutron is added to a helium nucleus, the result is
    • A. 

      Helium

    • B. 

      Lithium

    • C. 

      Boron

    • D. 

      Hydrogen

    • E. 

      Beryllium

  • 23. 
    Like a transverse wave, a longitudinal wave has
    • A. 

      Amplitude, wavelength, and speed

    • B. 

      Amplitude, frequency, and wavelength

    • C. 

      Amplitude, frequency, wavelength, and speed

    • D. 

      Wavelength, speed, and frequency

    • E. 

      Amplitude, frequency, and speed

  • 24. 
    The vibrations of a transverse wave move in a direction
    • A. 

      That changes with speed

    • B. 

      Along the direction of wave travel

    • C. 

      At right angles to the direction of wave travel

  • 25. 
    Radio waves travel at the speed of light, 300,000,000 m/s. The wavelength of a radio wave received at 100 megahertz is
    • A. 

      30 m

    • B. 

      3.0 m

    • C. 

      300 m

    • D. 

      0.3 m

    • E. 

      None of these

  • 26. 
    If the frequency of a certain wave is 10 hertz, its period is
    • A. 

      0.1 second

    • B. 

      100 seconds

    • C. 

      10 seconds

    • D. 

      None of the above choices are correct

  • 27. 
    A wave travels an average distance of 6 meters in one second. What is the wave's velocity?
    • A. 

      Less than 0.2 m/s

    • B. 

      6 m/s

    • C. 

      1 m/s

    • D. 

      3 m/s

    • E. 

      More than 6 m/s

  • 28. 
    A child wings to and fro on a playground swing. If the child stands rather than sits, the time for a to-and-fro swing is
    • A. 

      Lengthened

    • B. 

      Unchanged

    • C. 

      Shortened

  • 29. 
    If at  concert you run toward the orchestra, the frequency of the sound you hear will be 
    • A. 

      Increased

    • B. 

      Decreased

    • C. 

      Neither decreased nor increased

  • 30. 
    The approximate range of human hearing is
    • A. 

      40 hertz to 40,000 hertz

    • B. 

      20 hertz to 20,000 hertz

    • C. 

      10 hertz to 10,000 hertz

    • D. 

      Actually all of these- depends on the hearing ability of the person

  • 31. 
    We are best at hearing
    • A. 

      Infrasonic sound

    • B. 

      Ultrasonic sound

    • C. 

      Both infrasonic and ultrasonic sounds

    • D. 

      None of the above choices are true

  • 32. 
    A sound wave is a 
    • A. 

      Transverse wave

    • B. 

      Longitudinal wave

    • C. 

      Standing wave

    • D. 

      Shock wave

    • E. 

      None of the above choices are correct

  • 33. 
    The speed of a sound wave in air depends on
    • A. 

      Its wavelength

    • B. 

      Its frequency

    • C. 

      The air temperature

    • D. 

      All of the above choices are correct

    • E. 

      None of the above choices are correct

  • 34. 
    The object with the highest natural frequency is a 
    • A. 

      Large bell

    • B. 

      Small bell

    • C. 

      Medium size bell

  • 35. 
    Caruso is said to have made a crystal chandelier shatter with his voice. This is a demonstration of
    • A. 

      An echo

    • B. 

      Interference

    • C. 

      Beats

    • D. 

      Resonance

    • E. 

      Sound refraction

  • 36. 
    Sound waves can interfere with one another so that no sound results
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

    • C. 

      Either true or false, depending on the air temperature

  • 37. 
    The phenomenon of beats results from sound
    • A. 

      Reflection

    • B. 

      Refraction

    • C. 

      Interference

    • D. 

      All of these

    • E. 

      None of these

  • 38. 
    Resonance can be looked at as forced vibration with the
    • A. 

      Matching of wave amplitudes

    • B. 

      Matching of constructive and destructive interference

    • C. 

      Minimum beat frequency

    • D. 

      Least amount of energy input

    • E. 

      Maximum amount of energy input

  • 39. 
    An explosion occurs 34 km away. Since sound travels at 340 m/s, the time it takes fr the sound to reach you is
    • A. 

      0.1 second

    • B. 

      10 seconds

    • C. 

      20 seconds

    • D. 

      1 second

    • E. 

      More than 20 seconds

  • 40. 
    The beat frequency produced when a 240 hertz tuning fork and a 246 hertz tuning fork are sounded together is
    • A. 

      12 hertz

    • B. 

      6 hertz

    • C. 

      240 hertz

    • D. 

      245 hertz

    • E. 

      None of the above choices are correct

  • 41. 
    A general rule for estimating the distance in kilometers between an observer and a lightning bolt is to count the number of seconds between seeing the lightning and hearing it, and dividing by
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      4

    • D. 

      5

    • E. 

      None of these

  • 42. 
    A piano tuner knows that a key on the piano is tuned to the frequency of his tuning fork when he strikes them at the same time and the number of beats he hears each second is
    • A. 

      0

    • B. 

      1

    • C. 

      2

    • D. 

      3

    • E. 

      4

  • 43. 
    The period of the second hand on a clock is
    • A. 

      3600 seconds

    • B. 

      1/60 second

    • C. 

      12 hours

    • D. 

      1 second

    • E. 

      60 seconds

  • 44. 
    The amplitude of a particular wave is 1 meter. The top-to-bottom distance of the disturbance is
    • A. 

      2 m

    • B. 

      1 m

    • C. 

      0,5 m

    • D. 

      None of these

  • 45. 
    You dip your finger repeatedly into water and make waves. If you dip your finger more frequently, the wavelength of the waves
    • A. 

      Lengthens

    • B. 

      Shortens

    • C. 

      Stays the same

  • 46. 
    An object that completes 10 vibrations in 20 seconds has a frequency of
    • A. 

      2 hertz

    • B. 

      200 hertz

    • C. 

      0.5 hertz

  • 47. 
    Wave interference occurs for
    • A. 

      Light waves

    • B. 

      Water waves

    • C. 

      Sound waves

    • D. 

      All of the above choices are correct

    • E. 

      None of the above choices are correct

  • 48. 
    The Doppler effect is characteristic of
    • A. 

      Sound waves

    • B. 

      Water waves

    • C. 

      Light waves

    • D. 

      All of the above choices

    • E. 

      None of the above choices

  • 49. 
    A bow wave is produced when a wave source moves
    • A. 

      Faster than the waves it produces

    • B. 

      Nearly as fast as the waves it produces

    • C. 

      A fast as the waves it produces

  • 50. 
    The pendulum with the greatest frequency is the pendulum with the
    • A. 

      Shortest period

    • B. 

      Greatest amplitude

    • C. 

      Shortest period and the shortest length

    • D. 

      Shortest length

    • E. 

      Shortest amplitude