Phlebotomy National Practice Test

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 Phlebotomy National Practice Test
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  • 1. 
    What is quality assurance (Q.A.)

  • 2. 
    Briefly explain the area in which to draw a PKU test on an infant.

  • 3. 
    List the anatomy of the heart in the order of blood flow

  • 4. 
    You are asked to draw for reticulocyte Count, what tube do you use?
    • A. 

      Red, Lt. Blue

    • B. 

      Green

    • C. 

      Lavender, Lt. Blue

    • D. 

      Lavender


  • 5. 
    You are asked to draw for Cortisol AM, General Health Panel and Partial Thromboplastine Time (PTT) what is the order of draw
    • A. 

      Red, Lt. Blue Tiger top & Lavender

    • B. 

      Lt. Blue, Tiger top

    • C. 

      Tiger top, red, Lt.blue

    • D. 

      Lt. Blue, Tiger top, green


  • 6. 
    You are asked to draw for Blood Urean Nitrate (BUN), Bilirubin direct and CBC what is the proper order of draw?
    • A. 

      Tiger Top, Lt. Blue

    • B. 

      Red, Lt. Blue, Tiger Top

    • C. 

      Tiger Top, Lavender

    • D. 

      Green, Tiger Top, pink


  • 7. 
    Whole Blood
    • A. 

      Blood from which all elements have been removed and replaced

    • B. 

      Blood from which none of the essential platelet elements have been removed

    • C. 

      Blood from which none of the elements have been removed

    • D. 

      Blood that is whole, complete and not void of white blood cells


  • 8. 
    Who usually draws an ABG?
    • A. 

      Patient, respratory therapist

    • B. 

      Phlebotomist, nurse

    • C. 

      Doctor, respiratory therapist, plebotomist

    • D. 

      Doctor, nurse, respiratory therapist


  • 9. 
    White Cell Count
    • A. 

      The number of WBC's (Basophils) found in the perepheral blood and measured per cubic meter

    • B. 

      The number of WBC's (leukocytes) found in the peripheral blood and measured per cubic millimeter

    • C. 

      The number of Platelets (leukocytes) found in the blood measured per millimeter

    • D. 

      None of the above


  • 10. 
    Which way should the belvel be facing when entering in the arm?
    • A. 

      Downward

    • B. 

      Sideways

    • C. 

      Upwards

    • D. 

      At a 90 degree angle


  • 11. 
    Which tube(s) contain anticoagulants?
    • A. 

      Lavender, Green, Blue, Lt. Blue Grey

    • B. 

      Pink, green, Grey, Blue, Royal Blue

    • C. 

      Mint Green, Lanvender, Blue, Lt. Blue

    • D. 

      None of the above


  • 12. 
    Which tube are lead levels drawn in?
    • A. 

      Green

    • B. 

      Royal Blue

    • C. 

      Lavender

    • D. 

      Red and Lt. Blue


  • 13. 
    Which test would have the highest priority if all were received at the same time? Stat CBC in ICUASAP ESR in ERTimed cultures in the outpatient labSTAT CBS in labor and delivery
    • A. 

      STAT CBS in labor and delivery

    • B. 

      Stat CBC in ICU

    • C. 

      ASAP ESR in ER

    • D. 

      Timed cultures in the outpatient lab


  • 14. 
    What tube(s) contain an anticoagulant?
    • A. 

      Lavender, Green, Blue, Lt. Blue, Grey

    • B. 

      Pink, Grey Royal Blue, Green Lt. Blue

    • C. 

      Red, Gold, Tiger Top, Brown, Lavender

    • D. 

      Tiger top, Royal Blue, Mint Green, Lavender


  • 15. 
    What tube would you draw a APPT in?
    • A. 

      Lavender

    • B. 

      Lt. Blue

    • C. 

      Red, tiger top

    • D. 

      Grey


  • 16. 
    What tube does an ESR (erthrocyte Sedimentation Rate) go into?
    • A. 

      Lt. Blue and red

    • B. 

      Green

    • C. 

      Lavender

    • D. 

      Tiger top


  • 17. 
    What tube does a "Lytes" panel go in?
    • A. 

      Lavender

    • B. 

      Green

    • C. 

      Red

    • D. 

      Lt. Blue


  • 18. 
    What tube contains an antiglycolytic agent?
    • A. 

      Lt. Blue

    • B. 

      Green

    • C. 

      Lavender

    • D. 

      Grey


  • 19. 
    What section of the lab would process a CBC?
    • A. 

      Chemistry

    • B. 

      Hematology

    • C. 

      Serology

    • D. 

      Microbiology


  • 20. 
    What section of the lab would a pink top tube go?   What are the additive(s) in the pink top tube?
    • A. 

      Chemisty - EDTA

    • B. 

      Serology - Sodium Citrate

    • C. 

      Hematology - EDTA

    • D. 

      Blook Bank - EDTA


  • 21. 
    What sample needs to be run within 15 minutes of collection?
    • A. 

      PTT

    • B. 

      ABG

    • C. 

      PKU

    • D. 

      OGTT


  • 22. 
    What is the proper way to identify a patient?
    • A. 

      Arm band, color of eyes, birthday and spouce

    • B. 

      Name and social number

    • C. 

      Credit card number and address

    • D. 

      Patient id number name and birthday


  • 23. 
    What is the most important thing to remember when doing a capillary puncture?
    • A. 

      PPE, mask, google and microscope panes

    • B. 

      Excessively milking the finger during a skin puncture can result in full tubes for testing. Also hemolysis and contamination of the specimen with tissue cells

    • C. 

      Excessively milking the finger during a skin puncture can result in hemolysis and contamination of the specimen with tissue fluids

    • D. 

      Hemolysis and contamination of the specimen with tissue fluids due to not enough excessive milking of the finger


  • 24. 
    What is the most important thing to remember when creating a blood slide/smear?
    • A. 

      Thick, long edge

    • B. 

      Thin, straight edge

    • C. 

      Dirty slide with a thin, feathered edge

    • D. 

      Thin, feathered edge


  • 25. 
    What is the most common cause for blood culture contamination?
    • A. 

      Improper order of draw and contamined needles

    • B. 

      Contaminated tubes and improper skin care

    • C. 

      Improper skin preperation

    • D. 

      Improper patient verification


  • 26. 
    What is the main difference between arterial and venous blood?
    • A. 

      Arterial blood is dexenogated venous blood is oxygentated

    • B. 

      Arterial blood is oxgenated venous blood is deoxygentated

    • C. 

      Arterial blood is red Venous blood is blue

    • D. 

      None of the above


  • 27. 
    What is the difference between Plasma and Serum?
    • A. 

      Plasma is red Serum is white

    • B. 

      Plasma fluid portion of blood in which cellular components are suspended. Serum is the clear liquid portion of blood that separates out after clotting has taken place

    • C. 

      Serum fluid portion of blood in which cellular components are suspended. Plasma is the clear liquid portion of blood that separates out after clotting has taken place

    • D. 

      Serum is red Plasma is white


  • 28. 
    What is the correct way to end a venipuncture procedure?
    • A. 

      Tourniquet, cotton ball, tube

    • B. 

      Tourniquet, finger with cotton ball, tube

    • C. 

      Tourniquet, tube, cotton ball

    • D. 

      Needle, cotton ball, tourniquet


  • 29. 
    What is the correct order of draw for a BCX, APTT, CBC, ESR, LYTES and CMP?
    • A. 

      BCX - Red with iodine, aerobic & anerobic bottles APTT - Lt. Blue CMP - Tiger Top LYTES - Dark Green CBC - Lavender ESR - Lavender

    • B. 

      BCX - Blue with iodine, aerobic & anerobic bottles APTT - Red & Lt. Blue CMP - Grey LYTES - mint green CBC - Pink ESR - Lavender

    • C. 

      BCX - Red APTT - Mint Green CMP - Tiger Top LYTES - Dark Blue CBC - Lt. Blue ESR - Green

    • D. 

      None of the above


  • 30. 
    What is the additive in a Lt. Blue top tube?
    • A. 

      Sodium Citrical

    • B. 

      Sodium Chloride

    • C. 

      Sodium Citrate

    • D. 

      Sodium - salt


  • 31. 
    What is another name for winged infusion set?
    • A. 

      Ladybug

    • B. 

      Buttercup

    • C. 

      Butterfly

    • D. 

      Beetle bug


  • 32. 
    What is a nosocomial infection?
    • A. 

      Nose bleeding with soreness

    • B. 

      Patientcare setting acquired infections

    • C. 

      Healthcare setting acquired infections

    • D. 

      Heathcare giver to patient acquired infections


  • 33. 
    What is a multidraw needle used for?
    • A. 

      To draw multiple tubes in several different patients during a venipuncture

    • B. 

      To draw multiple draws in one day on the same patient during a venipuncture

    • C. 

      To draw multiple tubes during a venipuncture on the same patient

    • D. 

      To draw one large tube of blood multiple times on one patient during a venipuncture


  • 34. 
    What is a fomite?
    • A. 

      An imaginary object that transports microoganisms

    • B. 

      An inanimate object that transport microoganisms

    • C. 

      An inanimate object that tansport patients

    • D. 

      A small child that transports microoganisms


  • 35. 
    What is a Capillary defined as?
    • A. 

      A monoscript blood vessel

    • B. 

      Microscopic blood vessel

    • C. 

      Microwaved blood vessel

    • D. 

      Manipulted blood vessel


  • 36. 
    What are the arteries and veins in the arm a phlebotomist should know?
    • A. 

      Median Cubical vein, Cephalic artery, Basillic capillary

    • B. 

      Basic vein, Median Cubital vein, Cephalic artery

    • C. 

      Basted vein, Midevel Cubic vein, Cephalic vein, NO atreries

    • D. 

      Basilic Vein, Cephalic Vein, Medial Cubital, NO arteries


  • 37. 
    Vacutainer System
    • A. 

      Combination of Vacutainer holder, syringe, needle and sample tubes which allows for a more measured method of blood drawing

    • B. 

      Combination of Vacutainer holder, needle and sample tubes which allows for a more automated method of drawing blood

    • C. 

      Combination of Vacutainer tubes, needle and sample holder which allows for a more automated method of drawing blood

    • D. 

      Combination of Vacutainer syringe, needle, holder and sample tubes which allows for a more automated method of drawing blood


  • 38. 
    Vacutainer Needle
    • A. 

      Needle used to attach to a Vacutainer Holder. The needle has a male thread on one end which screws into the holder. The holder, tube and needle comprise the Vacutainer system, used to draw multiple tubes of blood with one venipuncture

    • B. 

      Needle used to attach to a Vacutainer tube and holder. The needle has a male thread on one end which screws into the holder. The holder, tube and needle comprise the Vacutainer system, used to draw multiple tubes of blood with one venipuncture

    • C. 

      Needle used to attach to a Vacutainer syringe and tube. The needle has a male thread on one end which screws into the holder. The holder, tube and needle comprise the Vacutainer system, used to dray multiple tubes of blood with one venipuncture

    • D. 

      Needle used to attach to a Vacutainer Syringe and Holder. The needle has a male thread on one end which screws into the holder. The holder, tube and needle comprise the Vacutainer system, used to draw multiple tubes of blood with one venipuncture


  • 39. 
    Universal precautions
    • A. 

      Name used to describe a prevention stategy in which all blood and potential infectious materials are treated as if they are, in fact, infectious, regardless of the perceived status of the source individual

    • B. 

      Name used to describe a prevention stategy in which most blood and potential infectious Fomite materials are treated as if they are, in fact, infectious, regardless of the perceived status of the source individual

    • C. 

      Name used to describe a protest stategy in which all blood and potential infectious animals ans materials are treated as if they are, in fact, infectious, regardless of the perceived status of the source individual

    • D. 

      Name used to describe a prevention log and procedure in which all blood and potential infectious materials are treated as if they are, in fact, infectious, regardless of the perceived status of the source individual


  • 40. 
    Under a patiets bill of rights, can a patient decline medical treatment?
    • A. 

      Most of the time

    • B. 

      Yes, all the time

    • C. 

      No, they are ill

    • D. 

      Yes and no, it depends on the illness


  • 41. 
    Trauma
    • A. 

      Injury of underlying tissue caused by probing of the needle

    • B. 

      Injury that required immediate medical attention due to inacurate needle draw

    • C. 

      Injury that relates to tissue bruising due to inaccurate quage of needle

    • D. 

      None of the above


  • 42. 
    Tourniquet
    • A. 

      Constricitve band used for venipuncture, blood aspiration and intravenous injections

    • B. 

      Plastic band that easily breaks, mainly used for patient's with blood disease

    • C. 

      Nylon band used to make embolysism, intravenious medicine injuctions

    • D. 

      Constrictive rubber tied in a knot used for patient's needing medical attention


  • 43. 
    Tortuos veins are
    • A. 

      Perfect for blood clotting, suseptible for infection

    • B. 

      Impaired blood flow, suseptible for thin clot matter

    • C. 

      Impaired blood flow, suseptible for infection

    • D. 

      Impaired blood flow, suseptible for agitation


  • 44. 
    Tort
    • A. 

      Wrongful death of a patient

    • B. 

      Wrongful procedure that interferes with working conditions and caused injury

    • C. 

      Wrongful act that results in injury to one person by another

    • D. 

      Wrongful dietary food that cause illness


  • 45. 
    Thrombophlebitis
    • A. 

      Inflammation of a vein with formation of a clot

    • B. 

      Inflammation of a artery with the formation of fibrin and colligen

    • C. 

      Inflammation of a capillary with the formation of a clot that moves

    • D. 

      Inflammation of a vein with formation of a bruise


  • 46. 
    Thixotropic gel forms a
    • A. 

      Wall between the Serum and the Cells

    • B. 

      Path for the Serum and the Cells

    • C. 

      Circle around the Serum and the Cells

    • D. 

      Barrier between the Serum and the Cells


  • 47. 
    The Sharps container is overflowing; what is the appropriate response?
    • A. 

      This is not a job for a phlebotomist to determine how and when this needs to be emptied. Jeez!

    • B. 

      Be sure you have the proper PEP equipment, open lid, run with the open container to your break room and throw container way in a regular waste can.

    • C. 

      Wear appropriate PPE, close the lid, hand-carry to the nearest medical waste accumulated pickup container, be sure the container is lined with a RED biohazzard bag. Fill out the Medical Waste Accumulated log. Remove your gloves and WASH YOUR HANDS!

    • D. 

      Wear appropriate PPE, close the lid, hand-carry to the nearest medical waste accumulated pickup container, be sure the container is lined with a RED & BLACK biohazzard bag. Fill out the Medical Waste Accumulated log. Remove your gloves and SPIT on YOUR HANDS!


  • 48. 
    The "great toe" is the
    • A. 

      Big toe

    • B. 

      Middle toe

    • C. 

      Small toe

    • D. 

      All toes


  • 49. 
    Sodium Floride keeps
    • A. 

      Cellulite molecule in tact for 5 days

    • B. 

      Cellulose molecule in tact for 4 days

    • C. 

      Glucerine cell molecule in tact for 3 days

    • D. 

      Gloucose molecule in tact for 3 days


  • 50. 
    Sodium Citrate is in what tube color?
    • A. 

      Red

    • B. 

      Lt. Blue

    • C. 

      Green

    • D. 

      Grey


  • 51. 
    Sodium Citrate
    • A. 

      Sodium citrate is effective as an anticoagulant due to binding calcium in the specimin

    • B. 

      Sodium citrate is effective as an anticoagulant due to not binding calcium properties in the specimin

    • C. 

      Sodium citrate is good for salting foods because is binds calcium

    • D. 

      Sodium citrate makes it easy for blood draws because it binds calcium in the blood before test


  • 52. 
    Silica (glass particles) are in what tube color?
    • A. 

      Red

    • B. 

      Lt. Blue

    • C. 

      Lavender

    • D. 

      Tiger top


  • 53. 
    Serum
    • A. 

      Referring to blood, the dark liquid portiion of blood that separates out before clotting has taken place

    • B. 

      Referring to blood, the clear liquid portion of blood that hinders separation so clotting may take place

    • C. 

      Referring to blood, the clear liquid portion of blood that separates out after clottong has taken place

    • D. 

      Referring to plasma, the clear liquid portion the separates blood from serum


  • 54. 
    Septicemia
    • A. 

      Systemic infection associated with the presence of paracite organisms introduces during a venipuncture

    • B. 

      Systemic infection associated with the presence of antibodie organisms introduced during a venipuncture

    • C. 

      Systemic infection associated with the controlled presence of pathogenics introduced during a venipuntcure

    • D. 

      Systemic infection associated with the presence of pathogenic organism introduced during a venipuncture


  • 55. 
    Scleroses veins are
    • A. 

      Hard and flexible

    • B. 

      Hard and cord like

    • C. 

      Soft and Spungie like

    • D. 

      Spungie and hard like


  • 56. 
    PTT is the abbreviation for:
    • A. 

      Partial Theraputic Time

    • B. 

      Partial Thrombin Test

    • C. 

      Partial Thromboplastine Time

    • D. 

      Partial Participation Time


  • 57. 
    PT is the abbreviation for:
    • A. 

      Prothrombin Test

    • B. 

      Proparticle Test

    • C. 

      Protest Time

    • D. 

      Prothrombin Time


  • 58. 
    PT & PTT tests are drawn from what tube?
    • A. 

      Green

    • B. 

      Grey

    • C. 

      Tiger top

    • D. 

      Lt. Blue


  • 59. 
    Point-of-care  (POCT)
    • A. 

      Diagnostic care given upon admittance into the ER

    • B. 

      Diagnostic testing given after the patient went to the restroom

    • C. 

      Diagnostic testing at or near the site of patient care

    • D. 

      Diagnosis provided to patient at or near the site of bed


  • 60. 
    Platelets
    • A. 

      Also known as thrombocyte, this is a particulate component of the blood, approximatley 2-4 microns in diameter and known for it's involvement in blood coagulation. This structure has no nucleus or DNA, is formed by breaking off the cytoplasm of the parent cell, known as megakaryocyte in the bone marrow.

    • B. 

      Also known as thrombocyte tissue, this is a particulate component of the blood, approximatley 6-8 microns in diameter and known for it's inhibiting involvement in blood coagulation. This structure has several nucleus or DNA, is formed by breaking off the cytoplasm of the parent cell, known as megakaryocyte in the bone tissue.

    • C. 

      Also known as thrombocyte, this is the one and only component of the blood, approximatley 2-4 microns in diameter and known for it's involvement in blood coagulation. This structure has one nucleus and DNA, is formed by breaking off the cytoplasm of the parent cell, known as megakaryocyte in the bone marrow.

    • D. 

      Also known as thrombocyte, this is a particulate structure of the blood, approximatley 2-4 microns per cubic meter and known for it's involvement in blood coagulation. This structure has no nucleus or DNA, is formed by breaking off the cytoplasm of the parent cell, known as megakaryocyte in the bone marrow.


  • 61. 
    Plasma
    • A. 

      The fluid portion of the serum in which the cells are suspended. Plasma is different than serum.

    • B. 

      The fluid liquid of the whole blood in which the cellular components are surpessed. Plasma is different than serum

    • C. 

      The fluid portion of the blood in which the cellular components are suspended. Plasma is different than serum.

    • D. 

      The cellular components that are released for suspension in the fluid portion of the serum. Plasma is different than serum


  • 62. 
    Pink tube is used for
    • A. 

      Cellular Blood Banking

    • B. 

      Blood Banking

    • C. 

      Blood Tubes Banking

    • D. 

      Banking


  • 63. 
    Phlebitis
    • A. 

      Inflamation of a vein as a result of repeated venipuncture on that vein

    • B. 

      Inflamation of an artery as a result of repeated stress on that vein

    • C. 

      Inflamation of RBC's as a result of repeated venipunture on that arm

    • D. 

      None of the above


  • 64. 
    Petechiae
    • A. 

      Tiny raised red spots that appear on the skin from ruptured RBC's due to strangulation because tourniquest being left on to long and or to tight.

    • B. 

      Tiny non-raised red spots that appear on the skin from rupturing of the capillaries due to the tourniquest being left on to long and or to tight

    • C. 

      Large non-raised red spots that apprear on the epidumus. These may be caused by infection and the tourniquest being left on to long and or to tight

    • D. 

      None of the above


  • 65. 
    Patient is being treated for cancer; what section of the hospital would they be in?
    • A. 

      Serology

    • B. 

      Oncology

    • C. 

      Pediatrics

    • D. 

      None of the above


  • 66. 
    Pathogen
    • A. 

      Any microoganism the produces germs

    • B. 

      Any microoganism that products disinfectants

    • C. 

      Any microoganism that produces basophils

    • D. 

      Any microoganism that produces disease


  • 67. 
    Oncology
    • A. 

      Study and treatment of colitis

    • B. 

      Study and treatment of cancer

    • C. 

      Study and treatment of calcium poisioning

    • D. 

      Study and treatment of contagious material


  • 68. 
    NPO means
    • A. 

      Next Priority

    • B. 

      Nothing By Mouth

    • C. 

      Fasting

    • D. 

      Newborn


  • 69. 
    Nosocomial
    • A. 

      Healthcare setting acquired pendants

    • B. 

      Healthcare setting acquired infection knowledge

    • C. 

      Healthcare setting aquired intervenious infections

    • D. 

      Healthcare setting aquired infections


  • 70. 
    Negligence (four elements)
    • A. 

      Duty of care, being proactive to a hazard, protecting the patient from falling so that no injury occurs

    • B. 

      Duty: of care, Derelict: breach of duty of care, Indirect cause: Legally recognizable injury that occurs as a result of the breach of duty of care

    • C. 

      Duty: of care, Derelict: breach of duty of care, Direct cause: Legally recognizable injury that occurs as a result of the breach of duty of care. Damage: Wrongful activity must have caused injury because of another's failure to live up to a required duty of care

    • D. 

      None of the above


  • 71. 
    Multi-Sample Adapter
    • A. 

      A device used with a butterfly and Vacutainer holder to inhibit the withdrawal of multiple tubes of blood during a venipuncture

    • B. 

      A device used with a butterfly and Vacutainer holder to allow for the withdrawal of multiple tubes of blood during a venipuncture.

    • C. 

      A device used with a needle, tubing and Vacutainer holder to control the blood levels input into multiple tubes of blood during a venipuncture

    • D. 

      A device used with a butterfly and Vacutainer tube and needle to inhibit the withdrawal of multiple tubes of blood during a venipuncture


  • 72. 
    Lipemic
    • A. 

      After blood is coagulated and seperated in a centrifuge the serum/plasma portion is milky in appearance

    • B. 

      After blood is spun and mixed in the centrifuge the serum/plasma is white is color and appearance

    • C. 

      After blood is spun and seperated in a certrifuge the serum/plasma portion is milky in appearance

    • D. 

      After blood is spun and seperated in a centrifuge making the substance white and milky in color


  • 73. 
    Lavender Tubes contain
    • A. 

      SST

    • B. 

      EDTA

    • C. 

      Sodium Citrate

    • D. 

      Sodium Heparin


  • 74. 
    Latic Acid sample must be
    • A. 

      Warmed

    • B. 

      Frozen

    • C. 

      Room temp

    • D. 

      Chilled


  • 75. 
    Invasion of privacy
    • A. 

      Release of medical records without the patient's knowledge and permission

    • B. 

      Release of medical records with the patient's knowledge and consent

    • C. 

      Release of medical records to sale for money with the patient's knowledge

    • D. 

      Release of medical records to partner, sibling, spouce and employer with patient's consent but not permission


  • 76. 
    Informed Consent
    • A. 

      Giving the patient adequate information concerning the method, risk and consequences to a specific procedure. Expected outcome and alternatives

    • B. 

      Giving the patient inadequate information concerning the method, risk and consequences to a specific procedure. Expected outcome and alternatives

    • C. 

      Giving the patient most of the adequate information concerning the method, risk and consequences to a specific procedure. Expected outcome and alternatives

    • D. 

      Giving the patient some adequate information concerning the method, risk and consequences to a specific procedure. Expected outcome and alternatives


  • 77. 
    Indirect Infection
    • A. 

      An infection transmitted through body fluids to blood

    • B. 

      An infection transmitted through blood to plasma

    • C. 

      An infection transmitted from person to person

    • D. 

      An infection transmitted through plasma to body fluids


  • 78. 
    If you were to pierce your index finger with a used needle; what is the correct responce?
    • A. 

      Yell at the patient for being so careless, wash area with non-abrasive soap for no less than 20 min. Bandage finger, tell your co-worker what a jerk your patient was. Complete exposure incident form.

    • B. 

      Wash exposed area for 15 minimum, with anti-bacterial soap. Report exposure to the patient and demand they are tested for illness. Complete exposure incident form. Pray Pray Pray

    • C. 

      Wash exposed area thoroughly with hot water, using antibacterial soap for 15 minutes. Report incident to your manager or supervisor ASAP. Complete the exposure incident form

    • D. 

      Call your family members to plan your funeral. Report incident to your manager or supervisor, wash area with water and bleach. Complete the exposure form and call the press


  • 79. 
    If you draw a sample culture and sensitivity, what section of the lab would receive that?
    • A. 

      Urinalysis

    • B. 

      Hemodialysis

    • C. 

      Metobolic

    • D. 

      Microbiology


  • 80. 
    If someone is admitted to the emergency department unconscious how do we identify them, until they can be property identified?
    • A. 

      DOE chart that provide a hospital id number, medical record number and identificate band and lables.

    • B. 

      DOE information is given on a base by base cases, generally you yell or slap the patient to wake them up so they can tell you the requested information

    • C. 

      DOE log is kept in the breakroom, you would refer to that when something this rare happens

    • D. 

      DOE identification is not important, what is improtant is that you has a great draw and got all needed blood and then some


  • 81. 
    If a person is having a vosovagal episode, what is the most important thing the phloebotomist needs to do?
    • A. 

      Call the nurse, lay patient on the left side on a cold floor

    • B. 

      Lay the patient on their back, knees bent once that is done run for cover, hide and scream fire

    • C. 

      Get the needle out of the arm, lay patient on their back with feet raised

    • D. 

      Get the tourniquet off the arm, needle out of the arm, cotton ball. Then lay the patient on the floor with their feet proped


  • 82. 
    If a patient is on an asprin regimen; what would be most affected?
    • A. 

      Clotting agent in tube to not work most of the time

    • B. 

      Clotting time

    • C. 

      Oncology results and time

    • D. 

      DOE documentation time


  • 83. 
    If a patient declines medical treatment; what is the first thing you do?
    • A. 

      Advise the patient that you will be fined if they do not allow you to complete the doctor request

    • B. 

      Advise the patient that you understand their concern, and document the declined procedure and notify the nurse

    • C. 

      Advise the patient that they are sick, and that they need to have medical attention.

    • D. 

      Advise the patient that you are going to let them lose this opportunity allowing you provide outstanding service.


  • 84. 
    If a patient asks you what tests their physician has ordered; do you tell them?
    • A. 

      This is only on a need to know basis, and they do not need to know

    • B. 

      This information is highly classified, they need to have authorized permission before you can advise them of the tests requested

    • C. 

      This information is to be given to the patient upon request

    • D. 

      This information is to be given to the patient upon request of the nurse


  • 85. 
    If a patient asks you for test results; what do you do?
    • A. 

      Give them to the patient, after all, it is their information. Sharing is caring

    • B. 

      Direct them to ask the physician, do not provide results

    • C. 

      Advise them you will contact their family before you provide the results

    • D. 

      Give them the results, but tell them you are not "medically qualified"; so this way they cannot sue you under the "good samaritin law".


  • 86. 
    Hypoglycemia
    • A. 

      Abnormally low estrigin level

    • B. 

      Abnormally low sugar level

    • C. 

      Abnormally high testorgin level

    • D. 

      Abnormally high surgar level


  • 87. 
    Hyerglycemia
    • A. 

      Abnormally low sodium levels

    • B. 

      Abnormally high blood sugar levels

    • C. 

      Abnormally low blood sugar levels

    • D. 

      Adnormally formed blood sugar levels


  • 88. 
    How long can the tourniquest remain on the arm during the venipuncture?
    • A. 

      1.5 minute

    • B. 

      2 minute

    • C. 

      1 minute

    • D. 

      .5 minute


  • 89. 
    Heparin
    • A. 

      An anticoagulant that acts ti unhibit a number of coagulation factors especially hematopics especially factor Y. Heparin is formed in the liver and kidney

    • B. 

      An anticoagulant that acts to inhibit a number of coagulation factors, especially factor Ax. Heparin is formed in the brain and directed to the liver.

    • C. 

      An anticoagulant that acts to inhibit a number of coagulation factors, especially factor Xa. Heparin is formed in the liver.

    • D. 

      An anticoagulant that acts to enable a number of coagulation factors, especially factor Xxa. Heparin is formed in the liver.


  • 90. 
    Hemolyze
    • A. 

      Count of destructed RBC's in a given amount of blood released into the circulating blood

    • B. 

      Breaking of WBC's membrane releasing free agents into the circulation blood

    • C. 

      Breaking of Platelets membrane releasing free plasama into the circulating blood

    • D. 

      Breaking of RBC's membrane releasing free hemoglobin into the circulating blood


  • 91. 
    Hemoglobin
    • A. 

      Oxygen Cloride carrying pigment of the red blood cells

    • B. 

      Oxygen carrying pigment of the red and white blood cels

    • C. 

      Oxygen carrying pigment of the red blood cells

    • D. 

      White blood cells carrying pigment


  • 92. 
    Hemoconcentration
    • A. 

      Increased in the fluid contact of the blood (plasma), resulting in an increase in concentration. This is determined by an increase in the hematocrit. Caused by a filteration of plasma into the body tissues and ofter created by dehydration

    • B. 

      Decrease in the fluid contact of the blood (plasma), resulting in an decrease in concentration. This is determined by an increase in the hematocrit. Caused by a filteration of plasma into the body tissues and ofter created by dehydration

    • C. 

      Decrease in the fluid content of the blood (plasma), resulting in an increase in concentration. This is determined by an increase in the hematocrit. Caused by a filteration of plasma into the body tissues and ofter created by dehydration

    • D. 

      None of the above


  • 93. 
    Hematuria
    • A. 

      Blood in stool

    • B. 

      Blood in mouth/nose

    • C. 

      Blood in liver/bladder/kidney

    • D. 

      Blood in urine


  • 94. 
    Hematoma
    • A. 

      Localized collection of RBC's within the tissue due to leakage from the wall of a blood vessel producing a redish discoloration

    • B. 

      Localized collection of blood within the tissue due to leakage from the wall of a blood vessel producing a bluish discoloration

    • C. 

      Localized collection of plasma within the tissue due to leakage from the wall of a blood vessel producing a greenish discoloration

    • D. 

      Localized collection of platelets within the tissue due to leakage from the wall of a blood vessel producing a bluish discoloration


  • 95. 
    Hematocrit measures ____________ in a given volume of whole bood
    • A. 

      Red Blood Cell's (RBC'S)

    • B. 

      White Blood Cell's (WBC)

    • C. 

      Platelets and Red Blood Cells (RBC's)

    • D. 

      White blood Cell's (WBC's) and Platelets


  • 96. 
    Green tubes have what additives?
    • A. 

      No addative except Sodium & Lithium Heparin

    • B. 

      Sodium Heparin, Ammonium & Silica Heparin

    • C. 

      Sodium Heparin, Lthium Heparin & Ammonium Ion

    • D. 

      Heparin, Citrate & Lithium Heparin


  • 97. 
    Good Samaritan Law
    • A. 

      Law deals with rendering 1st aid by health care professionals at the scene of an accident or sudden injury. Provide medical care within the scope of training without fear of being sued for negligence

    • B. 

      Law deals with rendering medical diagnosis and transportation by health care professionals at the scene of an accident or sudden injury. Provide medical care within the scope of training without fear of being sued for negligence

    • C. 

      Law deals with rendering health care professionals incapable at the scene of an accident or sudden injury. Provide medical care within the scope of training without fear of being sued for negligence

    • D. 

      None of the above


  • 98. 
    Glucose
    • A. 

      Protien measured in blood and urine specimens to determine the presence or absence of diabetes. Glucose is the end product of carbohydrate metabolism and is the cheif source of energy in all dead organisms

    • B. 

      Sugar measured in serum and urine specimens to determine the presence or absence of diabetes. Glucose is the end product of carbohydrate metabolism and is the cheif source of energy in all living organisms

    • C. 

      Sugar measure in blood and urine specimens to determine the presence or absence of diabetes. Glucose is the end product of carbohydrate metabolism and is the cheif source of energy in all living organisms

    • D. 

      Glucose is the end product of carbohydrate metabolism and is the cheif source of energy in all dead organisms. It also determins the sugar needed to provide diabetic analysis


  • 99. 
    FUO
    • A. 

      Fever Of Union Oponents

    • B. 

      Fever Of Units Origin

    • C. 

      Fever Of Unknown Orbits

    • D. 

      Fever Of Unknown Origin


  • 100. 
    Fomite is:
    • A. 

      Portal of infection of germs

    • B. 

      Inantimate object that kills germs

    • C. 

      Inantimate object that spreads germs

    • D. 

      Person to person contact


  • 101. 
    Fibrinogen
    • A. 

      The protien from which fibrin is formed/generated in normal blood clotting

    • B. 

      The protien from which fibrin is gathered/implanted in normal blood clotting

    • C. 

      The protien from which fiber is formed/generated in normal blood clotting

    • D. 

      The protien that is given to blood in abnormal clotting to bind to calcium


  • 102. 
    EDTA
    • A. 

      Calcium Citrate binding agent used as an anticoagulant

    • B. 

      Calcium binding agent used as an anticoagulant

    • C. 

      Citric binding agent used as a coagulant

    • D. 

      Calcium binding agent that is used for laboratory coagulation


  • 103. 
    Edema is
    • A. 

      Excessive fat between tissue

    • B. 

      Excessive heat distribution of tissue

    • C. 

      Excessive Sodium between tissue

    • D. 

      Excessive water between tissue


  • 104. 
    Cyanotic
    • A. 

      Redish skin color due to excess oxygen

    • B. 

      Bluish skin color due to carbon dioxide

    • C. 

      Redish skin color due to lack of oxygen

    • D. 

      Bluish skin color due to lack of oxygen


  • 105. 
    CDC
    • A. 

      Centers for Diptheria Control and Prevention

    • B. 

      Centers for Diarehia Control and Prevention

    • C. 

      Centers for Disease Control and Policy

    • D. 

      Centers for Disease Control and Prevention


  • 106. 
    Capillary samples are collected normally from which part of the body?
    • A. 

      Armpit, heel

    • B. 

      Thumb and 1st finger

    • C. 

      Heel, scalp or ring finger knuckle

    • D. 

      Midder or ring finger


  • 107. 
    Butterfly
    • A. 

      A small needle which clamps onto the arm with tubing

    • B. 

      A small insect that bites

    • C. 

      A small needle with two plastic wings and tubing

    • D. 

      A large needle with two plastic wings and tubing


  • 108. 
    Blood culters are drawn to indentify what in the blood stream?
    • A. 

      Patience identity and allergies

    • B. 

      Microwaveable organisms

    • C. 

      Microoganisms

    • D. 

      Mold and mildew


  • 109. 
    Before someone donates whole blood; what test is done?
    • A. 

      Hemoglobin

    • B. 

      Hpv

    • C. 

      Hemotology

    • D. 

      Hematocrit


  • 110. 
    BCX or C&S What items do you need for the draw?
    • A. 

      2 (Airobic) bottles, Iodine, Red tube, cotton ball

    • B. 

      2 bottles (none specified), Iodine, cotton ball

    • C. 

      2 bottles Airobic & Antiarobic, Iodine, cotton ball

    • D. 

      Iodine, Aniairobic bottles lav tube, cotton ball


  • 111. 
    BCX or C&S are drawn in what tube?
    • A. 

      Lavender

    • B. 

      Grey

    • C. 

      Tiger top

    • D. 

      Red


  • 112. 
    Basilic Vein
    • A. 

      Large vein on outter side of bicep

    • B. 

      Small vein on the inner side of bicep

    • C. 

      Large vein in the middle of the arm

    • D. 

      Large vein on the inner side of the bicep


  • 113. 
    Basal means
    • A. 

      Patient has slept, excercised and eaten in 5 hours

    • B. 

      Patient has eaten and excersiced within 12 hours

    • C. 

      Patient fasting and no excercise for 5 hours

    • D. 

      Patient fasting and no excercise for 12 hours


  • 114. 
    All Healthcare workers are required to vaccinate for which virus?
    • A. 

      HPV

    • B. 

      HBV

    • C. 

      HAV

    • D. 

      HIV


  • 115. 
    ABG (Arterial Blood Gas)
    • A. 

      Analyses test for RBC's, oxygen, PH and in addition to blood bicarbonate

    • B. 

      Analyses test arterial for WBC's, carbon dioxide, PH, in addition to blood oxygen

    • C. 

      Analyses arterial blood for oxygen, carbon dioxide, bicarbonate content in addition to blood PH

    • D. 

      Analyses arterial blood for carbon dioxide, glucose, bicarbonate content in addition to blood PH


  • 116. 
    A physician orders a drug screen, what bodily fluid would we collect from the patient?
    • A. 

      Stool

    • B. 

      Blood

    • C. 

      Urine and blood

    • D. 

      Urine


  • 117. 
    A Hematocrit is
    • A. 

      Always done before blood donation

    • B. 

      Always done Always

    • C. 

      Always done on newborns

    • D. 

      Always given upon request


  • 118. 
    A group of test ordered as one is often described as what? (I.E. - CMP)
    • A. 

      Profile or pinhead

    • B. 

      Profile or panel

    • C. 

      Pinhead or petiti

    • D. 

      None of the above


  • 119. 
    A "Lytes" panel consists of what electrolytes?
    • A. 

      Sodium, Citrate, Calcium, Potassium & Cloride

    • B. 

      Sodium, Potassium, Bleach, Calcium, Phosphate & Lithium

    • C. 

      Sodium, Potassium, Chloride, Calcium & Phosphate

    • D. 

      Sodium, Chloride, Floride, Calcium, Potassium & Phosphate


  • 120. 
    55% of blood is
    • A. 

      Formed elements

    • B. 

      Sodium, Calcium and Potassium

    • C. 

      Plasma & RBC's

    • D. 

      Plasma


  • 121. 
    45% of blood is
    • A. 

      Informal blood clotting

    • B. 

      Fibrin

    • C. 

      Formed sodium elements

    • D. 

      Formed cellular elements


  • 122. 
    Do veins have valves
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 123. 
    Port of entry is what?
    • A. 

      Docks for boats and fishermen

    • B. 

      Allows the infectious agent access to the susceptible host

    • C. 

      Allows the intervention of access to the suspecting host

    • D. 

      Allows you to know where the port of entry is for a microoganism


  • 124. 
    Common infectious entry sites are what?
    • A. 

      Aging skin, ears, mouth and nose, mucous membrane and body systems exposed to the external environment such as the respiratory, gastrointestinal and reproductive

    • B. 

      Broken skin, mouth, nose, mucous membrane and body systems exposed to the external environment such as the respiratory, gastrointestinal and reproductive

    • C. 

      Broken skin, mucous membrane and body systems exposed to the external environment such as the respiratory, gastrointestinal and reproductive

    • D. 

      Broken skin, mucous membrane and body systems that are not exposed to the external environment such as the respiratory, gastrointestinal and reproductive


  • 125. 
    What is medical asepsis?
    • A. 

      Destruction of pathogenic microorganisms after they leave the body

    • B. 

      Destruction of phosphate microwave pathogens after they leave the body

    • C. 

      Reduced amount of pathogenic microorganisms before and after they leave the body

    • D. 

      Recycled microorganisms after they leave the body


  • 126. 
    When removing PPE what order do you use?
    • A. 

      Mask, gown and then gloves

    • B. 

      Gown, mask and then gloves

    • C. 

      Gloves, gown and then mask

    • D. 

      Gloves, mask and then gown


  • 127. 
    Mode of transmission is defined as
    • A. 

      Specific ways in which pathogens travel from the reservoir to the susceptible host

    • B. 

      Specific routine in which microorganisms move from the reservoir to the suspecting host

    • C. 

      Specific ways in which microorganisms travel from the reservoir to the susceptible host

    • D. 

      Specific ways in which dust travel from the reservoir to the susceptible fomite or host


  • 128. 
    Monocytes are also known as
    • A. 

      The smallest large WBC's and their numbers decrease in intracellular infection and tuberculosis

    • B. 

      The most important WBC's and their numbers increase in intrastellar infection and tuberculosis

    • C. 

      The largest WBC's and their numbers increase in intracellular infection and tuberculosis

    • D. 

      The longest WBC's and their numbers increase in intracellular infection and tuberculosis


  • 129. 
    Antecubital Fossa is defined as
    • A. 

      The "pitch" or impression opposite the elbow

    • B. 

      The "ditch" or impression opposite the elbow

    • C. 

      The glitch" or imersonation opposite the elbow

    • D. 

      The "tick" or imagination opposite the elbow


  • 130. 
    Lymphocytes
    • A. 

      Numbers increase in viral infection and they play a role in immunity

    • B. 

      Numbers decrease in viral infection and and they play a role in community pathogens

    • C. 

      Numbers increase in immunity because they play a role in infecting virally

    • D. 

      Numbers incease more in bacterial infection and they play a role in immunity


  • 131. 
    What is the function of a Leukocyte
    • A. 

      Provide a barackade against pathogens

    • B. 

      Provide a screen of protective cells against infectious material

    • C. 

      Provide the bones protection from microorganisms and fungi

    • D. 

      Provide the body protection against infection


  • 132. 
    Fistula is
    • A. 

      Semi-permanent connection between a vein and pulomonry artery

    • B. 

      Surical incision into the vein for blood dialysis

    • C. 

      Artificial permanet surgical connection between an artery and a vein

    • D. 

      All natural permanent implated connection for the vein and artery


  • 133. 
    The heart has three layers; what are the names in order?
    • A. 

      Epicardium, myocardium and endocardium

    • B. 

      Myocardium, endocardium and epicardium

    • C. 

      Endocardium, myocardium and epicardium

    • D. 

      Epidualcardium, myoclinicardium and epyipencardium


  • 134. 
    Professionalism:DependabilityHonestIntergirtyEmpathy and CompassionProfessional AppearanceInterpersonal Skills

  • 135. 
    List five types of mode of transmission

  • 136. 
    Light-sensitive specimens are?
    • A. 

      Blilibong, beta-cortazone, vitamins A & D12 and porphyrins

    • B. 

      Biliruben, beta-carotene, vitamins A & B6 and porohyrins

    • C. 

      Ammonia, biliruben, vitamins E & A and platelets

    • D. 

      Sodium, LYTES, chloride and RBC's


  • 137. 
    Graft is:
    • A. 

      Artificial permanet surgical connection between veins

    • B. 

      All natural permanent implated connection for the vein and artery

    • C. 

      Semi-permanent connection between a vein and pulomonry artery

    • D. 

      Artificial permanet surgical connection between an artery and a vein


  • 138. 
    How long does it take for the blood in the system to make a complete circulation in the body?
    • A. 

      2 minutes

    • B. 

      1 minute

    • C. 

      1 hour

    • D. 

      5 minutes


  • 139. 
    What vein is commonly used to draw blood from for an obese patient?
    • A. 

      Basilic vein

    • B. 

      Median cephalic vein

    • C. 

      Cephalic vein

    • D. 

      The vein of choice does not apply


  • 140. 
    Agents are what?
    • A. 

      Infectious microorganisms that can be classified into four groups: Viruses Bacteria Fungi Parasite

    • B. 

      Infectious microorganisms that can be classified into four groups: Viruses Bracial Fungi Parachute

    • C. 

      Infectious microorganisms that can be classified into four groups: Viruses Bacteria Fomite Paranormal

    • D. 

      Infectious microorganisms that can be classified into four groups: Verse Backup Fungi Parasite


  • 141. 
    Portal of exit
    • A. 

      The method in which an infectious agent leaves it's pond

    • B. 

      The method in which an intergolatic agent leaves it's reservoir

    • C. 

      The method in which an infectious agent leaves it's reservoir

    • D. 

      The method in which an immature agent moves out


  • 142. 
    Blood composes how much of a persons body weight?
    • A. 

      5-9 %

    • B. 

      7-9%

    • C. 

      6-10%

    • D. 

      4-7%


  • 143. 
    The average person weighing 155 pounds has approximately __________ liters of blood in their system.
    • A. 

      6-7 liters

    • B. 

      5-6 pints

    • C. 

      4-7 liters

    • D. 

      5-6 liters


  • 144. 
    If a person donates 500 ml of blood how many weeks does it take for your body to replenish the amount lost?
    • A. 

      8 to 12 weeks

    • B. 

      7 to 9 weeks

    • C. 

      4 to 6 weeks

    • D. 

      6 to 8 weeks


  • 145. 
    What do Eosinophils do?
    • A. 

      First on the scene during an allergic reaction

    • B. 

      First most of the time on the scene during an allergic reactions

    • C. 

      Always last on the scene and first to leave during an allergic reaction

    • D. 

      Arrives on scene when allergies affect breathing


  • 146. 
    What are antigens?
    • A. 

      These are a substance that is able to produce an immune response and will react with a specific antibody. The antibodies will either copilot or destroy the antigens

    • B. 

      They are a substance that is able to produce ann immune response and will react with a specific antibody. The antibodies will either inhibit or destroy the antigens

    • C. 

      These are a substance that is able to recycle an immune response and will react with a specific antibody. The antibodies will either inhibit or destroy the antigens

    • D. 

      These are a substance that is able to reproduce an immune response and will react with a specific antibody. The antibodies will either patronize or destroy the antigens


  • 147. 
    A person may donate how much blood in one sitting?
    • A. 

      250 ml

    • B. 

      500 ml

    • C. 

      520 ml

    • D. 

      600 ml


  • 148. 
    What are Neutrophils?
    • A. 

      Pathogenic cells - they engulf and digest bacteria

    • B. 

      Pathogenic cells - the encamp and destroy microorganisms

    • C. 

      Plastic cells - they entertain people with tricks

    • D. 

      None of the above


  • 149. 
    What do Basophils cary?
    • A. 

      Oxygen to the capillaries to help control allergies

    • B. 

      Citric acid to help control allergies

    • C. 

      Hysterectomy to help control allergies

    • D. 

      Histamine to help control allergies


  • 150. 
    Many types of WBC's are in human blood?
    • A. 

      Four

    • B. 

      Five to seven

    • C. 

      Five

    • D. 

      Four to six


  • 151. 
    HIV
    • A. 

      Hereditary immino acid blood

    • B. 

      Human immunoeffective virus

    • C. 

      Human immunodeficiency virus

    • D. 

      Human immunodetoxigen virus


  • 152. 
    Bloodborne pathogens are:
    • A. 

      Viruses or bacteria that are carried in blood and can cause disease in people

    • B. 

      Viruses or bacteria that are carried in blood and can heal disease in people

    • C. 

      Viruses or bacteria that are carried in body fluids and can cause disease in people

    • D. 

      Viruses or fungi that are carried in blood and can cause disease in people


  • 153. 
    What  types of antigens are there?
    • A. 

      A and AB

    • B. 

      A and OB

    • C. 

      A and B

    • D. 

      O and A -


  • 154. 
    What are the two tiers or levels of precautions?
    • A. 

      Stanard precautions and transmission-based precautions

    • B. 

      Suptitute precautions and mode of transmission-based precautions

    • C. 

      Simple precautions and transmission fluid pathogens

    • D. 

      None of the above


  • 155. 
    Contact precautions are designed to do what?
    • A. 

      May increase the risk of transmission of microoganisma by indirect contact

    • B. 

      Reduction in the transmission of pathogens by direct and indirect contact

    • C. 

      PPE equipement reduces the risk of pathogens by no contact to skin

    • D. 

      Reduce the risk of transmission of microorganisms by direct and indirect contact


  • 156. 
    Needles should nver be
    • A. 

      Thrown in the trash

    • B. 

      Recapped

    • C. 

      Broken and reused

    • D. 

      None of the above


  • 157. 
    Allergic reaction is a
    • A. 

      Deadly recation to pathogens

    • B. 

      Physical reaction

    • C. 

      Physical retardation

    • D. 

      Mental illness


  • 158. 
    Standard precautions presume that all patients
    • A. 

      Are healthy may be infected with blood-borne pathogens

    • B. 

      Are infected with Hep B and HIV only

    • C. 

      Are usually infected with blood-borne pathogens

    • D. 

      Infective for blood-borne pathogens


  • 159. 
    Airborne precautions are designed to do what?
    • A. 

      Reduce the risk of airbone transmission of infectious agents

    • B. 

      Increase the availability to precaution by being the infected agent

    • C. 

      Stabalize the risk of precaution by being subjected to an infected agent

    • D. 

      Universally reduce the risk or availability to transmit infectious pathogens by being the infected agent


  • 160. 
    Droplet precaustions are designed to do what?
    • A. 

      Reduce the risk by tansporting the infected agent by dropping them off

    • B. 

      Reduce the risk of droplet transmission of infectious agents

    • C. 

      Increase the risk of droplet transmission of infectious agents

    • D. 

      Remove and reduce the risk of droplet transmission of infectious agents


  • 161. 
    Disinfection is the _____________ procedure used in medical asepsis using various chemicals that can be used to destroy many pathogenic microoganisms
    • A. 

      Third

    • B. 

      Fifth

    • C. 

      Fourth

    • D. 

      Second


  • 162. 
    You are asked to draw the following test:hematocritAlbuminCreatineDirect CoombsWhat is the correct order of draw?
    • A. 

      Tiger top, Lavender, Red

    • B. 

      Red, Royal Blue, Green, Lavender

    • C. 

      Red, Tiger Top Lavender

    • D. 

      Lt. blue, Tiger Top, Lavener


  • 163. 
    You are asked to draw the following testRotavirusT4 ThyroxineMagnesiumLithiumWhat is the proper order of draw?
    • A. 

      Red X 2, Tiger Top, Green

    • B. 

      Red, Tiger Top, Lavender

    • C. 

      Red, Tiger Top

    • D. 

      Red, Lt. Blue


  • 164. 
    You are asked to draw for the following tests:Complete Blood Count with Auto DiffEstrogens - totalGlucoseUric AcidWhat is the correct order of draw?
    • A. 

      Tiger Top, Green Grey

    • B. 

      Red, Lt Blue, Grey

    • C. 

      Tiger Top, Grey

    • D. 

      Grey


  • 165. 
    What is the "order of draw" by tube color?
    • A. 

      Red, Royal Blue, Green. Lavender, grey, Tiger Top, Lt Blue

    • B. 

      Red, Lt. Blue Green, Lavender, Tiger Top, Grey, Royal Blue

    • C. 

      Red Lt. Blue, Tiger Top, Green, Lavender, Grey, Royal Blue

    • D. 

      Red, Lt. Blue, Lavender, Green, Tiger Top, Royal Blue Grey


  • 166. 
    What is additive(s)  are in the mint green tube?
    • A. 

      Sodium Citrate, lithium, Sodium Heparin

    • B. 

      Sodium Heparin, Lithium Heparin, Ammonuim ion

    • C. 

      EDTA

    • D. 

      Pottasium Floride, Sodium Clohide


  • 167. 
    What tests are done using the Lt. Blue tube:
    • A. 

      PTT and PTA

    • B. 

      PTT and ESP

    • C. 

      PTT and TB

    • D. 

      PTT and PT


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