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Nims Foreword And Statement Of Purpose Sections

59 Questions
Nims Foreword And Statement Of Purpose Sections

Incident Command System (ICS) Model Procedures Guide for Incidents Involving Structural Firefighting, High-Rise, Multi-Casualty, Highway, and Managing Large Scale Incidents Using NIMS-ICS. 36197.

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    When, where, and why was FIRESCOPE developed?
    • A. 

      In California in the 1970's to address resource management needs associated with large scale wildland fires.

    • B. 

      In California In the 1960's-1970's to address resource management needs associated with large scale wildland fires and earthquake concerns.

    • C. 

      In Arizona in the 1980's to address the fire services concern about lack of incident command procedures.

    • D. 

      In Washington DC in 2000 to address homeland security issues.

  • 2. 
    When and where was Fireground Command (FGC) developed?
    • A. 

      In California in the 1970's.

    • B. 

      In Phoenix in the 1970's.

    • C. 

      In Washington DC in 2000

    • D. 

      In Arizona in the 1980's

  • 3. 
    When did the "Consortium" become a legally incorporated, not-for-profit corporation?
    • A. 

      1972

    • B. 

      1986

    • C. 

      1999

    • D. 

      2005

  • 4. 
    What was the first work of the Consortium?
    • A. 

      Model Procedures Guide for Wildland Firefighting.

    • B. 

      Special Operations

    • C. 

      Model Procedures Guide for Structural Firefighting.

    • D. 

      Model Procedures Guide for Mass Casualty Incidents.

  • 5. 
    In 2006, the NIMS Consortium consolidated all models into _______document(s).
    • A. 

      One

    • B. 

      Two

    • C. 

      Three

    • D. 

      Four

  • 6. 
    Which of the following was NOT one of the changes made to the Model Procedures Guide made by the NIMS Consortium?
    • A. 

      Uses ICS rather than IMS.

    • B. 

      Discontinued use of the word "sector".

    • C. 

      Information Officer changed to Public Information Officer.

    • D. 

      Added Joint Information Center and Joint Information System.

    • E. 

      Added Groups and Divisions.

  • 7. 
    In how many places may the term intelligence/investigation appear?
    • A. 

      One place

    • B. 

      Four places.

    • C. 

      Seven places.

    • D. 

      Three places.

  • 8. 
    Which of the following is NOT one of the places where the term Intelligence/Investigation may appear?
    • A. 

      As a Unit/Technical Specialist within the planning section.

    • B. 

      As a Branch within the Operations Section.

    • C. 

      As a Branch within the Logistics Section.

    • D. 

      An Officer within the Command staff.

    • E. 

      As a separate General Staff Section.

  • 9. 
    Which of the following are items of Accountability in the NIMS-ICS?
    • A. 

      Check-in, IAP, Unity of Command, Span of Control, Resource Tracking, Check-Out.

    • B. 

      Check-in, IAP, Unity of Command, Span of Control, Resource Tracking, Deployment.

    • C. 

      Check-in, Tactical Worksheet, Unity of Command, Span of Control, Resource Tracking, Deployment.

    • D. 

      Check-in, IAP, Single Command, Span of Control, Resource Tracking, Deployment.

  • 10. 
    Assisting agencies (i.e., those agencies providing resources, but without jurisdiction) interface with the Incident Commander through-
    • A. 

      The liaison officer.

    • B. 

      Staging.

    • C. 

      Base.

    • D. 

      Operations.

  • 11. 
    The intent of the NIMS Consortium is to:
    • A. 

      Ensure all jurisdictions adhere to the same basic ICS principles.

    • B. 

      Create laws and procedures to consolidate information.

    • C. 

      Bring together information to place a higher emphasis on safety.

    • D. 

      Address all procedures of command in all emergency services.

  • 12. 
    Eye, face, and hearing protection needs to be worn-
    • A. 

      Whenever it is appropriate for protection.

    • B. 

      When decibel levels continuously exceed 90 dba.

    • C. 

      Whenever ordered by command staff.

    • D. 

      On all fire incidents.

  • 13. 
    The incident commander shall provide for additional accountability officers based on the size, complexity, or needs of the incident.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 14. 
    The Safety Officer reports directly to-
    • A. 

      The IC

    • B. 

      Operations

    • C. 

      The unit Leader

    • D. 

      Nobody

  • 15. 
    Which of the following medical mass-casualty incidents require incident scene accountability?
    • A. 

      Those involving fire or rescues from collapse areas.

    • B. 

      Threats of violence

    • C. 

      Darkness

    • D. 

      Environmental conditions

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 16. 
    What is the NFPA Satndard on Emergency Services Incident Management System?
    • A. 

      1500

    • B. 

      1962

    • C. 

      1561

    • D. 

      1651

  • 17. 
    Which of the following can declare Emergency Traffic?
    • A. 

      Any Member who is in trouble.

    • B. 

      IC

    • C. 

      Division/Group Supervisor

    • D. 

      Any of the above

  • 18. 
    When a member has declared an emergency traffic message, this person should use terms such as:
    • A. 

      Responder down

    • B. 

      Man down

    • C. 

      Firefighter down

    • D. 

      Any of the above as identified in SOG's

  • 19. 
    Which standard requires "All Clear Resume Radio Traffic" to be used?
    • A. 

      NFPA 1500

    • B. 

      NFPA 1561

    • C. 

      OSHA 1247 part B

    • D. 

      OSHA 1501

  • 20. 
    What is the minimum number of members to be assigned to a RIC?
    • A. 

      3

    • B. 

      1

    • C. 

      2

    • D. 

      4

  • 21. 
    Typically RIC's are not assigned to medical or wildland fire incidents.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 22. 
    Which of the following is NOT a choice in the NFPA standard  1500 to indicate how a fire department could deploy a team of four members initially at the scene of a structure fire?
    • A. 

      Team leader and one responder advance a line, pump operator and other member become standby members.

    • B. 

      Team leader and pump operator enter the IDLH atmosphere, remaining responders remain outside as backup members.

    • C. 

      Team leader and one responder enter the IDLH atmosphere, pump operator becomes IC and remains outside with remaining responder.

    • D. 

      Two responders enter the IDLH atmosphere and team leader and pump operator remain outside as backup members.

  • 23. 
    When will the incident no longer be considered to be in the initial stage?
    • A. 

      Once a second crew is assigned or operating in the hazardous atmosphere.

    • B. 

      When the fire has progressed beyond the incipient stage.

    • C. 

      After all of first due assignment apparatus is on scene and ready for assignment.

    • D. 

      Once the first crew is assigned or operating in the hazardous atmosphere.

  • 24. 
    When an incident progresses beyond the initial stage, members assigned as a RIC may perform other functions as long as abandoning those functions will not jeopardize safety and health.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 25. 
    Once an incident expands to the point where additional resources are requested by the IC, which of the following would be true about a dedicated RIC?
    • A. 

      On-scene members designated and dedicated as RIC crew.

    • B. 

      On-scene crew or company located for rapid deployment and dedicated as RIC crew.

    • C. 

      During responder rescue operations, RIC crews stay in tact.

    • D. 

      Any of the above.

  • 26. 
    The purpose of_________________is to evaluate and assist personnel who may be suffering from the effects of sustained physical exertion during emergency operations.
    • A. 

      Triage

    • B. 

      Rehab

    • C. 

      A and B

    • D. 

      The medical group

  • 27. 
    Where would a member report if they are in need of treatment at medical facilities?
    • A. 

      Triage

    • B. 

      Treatment

    • C. 

      Rehab

    • D. 

      Transport

  • 28. 
    Which of the following is/are not critical components of rehab?
    • A. 

      Nourishment

    • B. 

      Rest & recovery

    • C. 

      Medical evaluation and treatment

    • D. 

      Accountability

    • E. 

      Counseling

  • 29. 
    Of the following, which  MUST be included when developing a SOP for crew rehabilitation?
    • A. 

      Nourishment

    • B. 

      Rest and Recovery

    • C. 

      Medical Evaluation andTreatment

    • D. 

      Accountability

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 30. 
    CISM is generally considered a scaled response based on-
    • A. 

      Severity of incident, number of victims, time involved.

    • B. 

      Complexity of incident, resources available

    • C. 

      Type of incident, numbers involved, needs.

    • D. 

      Needs of responders, needs of victims, resources available

  • 31. 
    The manner in which CISM response is delivered will depend upon-
    • A. 

      The organization and the jurisdiction.

    • B. 

      SOG's

    • C. 

      Severity of the incident.

    • D. 

      Immediate needs of members effected.

  • 32. 
    Which of the following statements is most accurate regarding multi-agency or multi-jurisdictional incidents?
    • A. 

      The primary jurisdiction should include the needs of all responders in CISM plans or response.

    • B. 

      The agency with the best established CISM should include the needs of all responders in CISM plans or response.

    • C. 

      All agencies should include the needs of all responders in CISM plans or response.

    • D. 

      All of the above.

  • 33. 
    The IAP for a medical incident must always provide a strong emphasis on-
    • A. 

      Personal safety

    • B. 

      Overall safety

    • C. 

      Incident stabilization

    • D. 

      Biomedical hazard protection

  • 34. 
    Which of the following is said to be true regarding the separation, collection, and tagging of personal effects of the patient?
    • A. 

      It is mandatory.

    • B. 

      It is strongly recommended.

    • C. 

      It is nearly impossible during mass casualty incidents.

    • D. 

      It is mandatory for incidents involving 10 or mare patients.

  • 35. 
    The Following question deals with National Wildfire Group Safety Procedures:A situation where an individual has determined that they cannot undertake an assignment as given and is unable to negotiate an alternative solution is termed:
    • A. 

      Refusal

    • B. 

      Risk Denial

    • C. 

      Turndown

    • D. 

      Breach of Duty

  • 36. 
    The Following question deals with National Wildfire Group Safety Procedures: What is the most appropriate means to document a turndown?
    • A. 

      Using the criteria outlined in the Risk Management Process.

    • B. 

      Radio log with dispatch

    • C. 

      Matter Of Form

    • D. 

      That form which is outlined in department SOGs.

  • 37. 
    The Following question deals with National Wildfire Group Safety Procedures:How else should turndowns be documented if an unsafe act was committed or there is an unresolved safety hazard?
    • A. 

      By submitting a SAFENET (ground hazard)

    • B. 

      By submitting a SAFLIIGHT (aviation hazard)

    • C. 

      By submitting a SAFECOM (aviation hazard)

    • D. 

      A and B

    • E. 

      A and C

  • 38. 
    The Following question deals with National Wildfire Group Safety Procedures: Which of the following is NOT true about the use of a SAFENET or SAFECOM form?
    • A. 

      They stop an operation from being carried out.

    • B. 

      Provides timely identification of hazards to chain of command.

    • C. 

      Raises risk awareness for leaders and subordinates.

    • D. 

      Promotes accountability

  • 39. 
    Where do flare-ups generally occur?
    • A. 

      In thick brush

    • B. 

      In previously burned areas

    • C. 

      In deceptively light fuels.

    • D. 

      In deceptively heavy fuels.

  • 40. 
    Where do most incidents relating to tragedies occur?
    • A. 

      Smaller fires

    • B. 

      Unpreddicable fires

    • C. 

      Isolated portions of larger fires

    • D. 

      A and B

    • E. 

      A and C

  • 41. 
    Which of the following is most accurate about flare-ups or blowups?
    • A. 

      They are predictable.

    • B. 

      Most fires are innocent in appearance before they occur.

    • C. 

      They can be prevented.

    • D. 

      They can be avoided.

  • 42. 
    What does the acronym LCES represent?
    • A. 

      Locate, Confine, Extinguish, Size-up.

    • B. 

      Lookout, Communication, Escape Route, Safety Zone

    • C. 

      Lightweight Construction Effecting safety

    • D. 

      Location, Conditions, Escape, Security

  • 43. 
    What is the best definition of a Safety Zone?
    • A. 

      An area of safe refuge requiring special protection to survive.

    • B. 

      An area at least 75 feet from the seat of the fire.

    • C. 

      An area of safe refuge not requiring special protection to survive.

    • D. 

      An area at a minimum of 200 feet upwind.

  • 44. 
    Who developed LCES?
    • A. 

      The National Parks System

    • B. 

      A member of the United states Forest Service after being involved in several fatal fires.

    • C. 

      NIMS

    • D. 

      NFPA

  • 45. 
    What three items did the Los Angeles Fire Department add to LCES?
    • A. 

      Location, Conditions, Safety Equipment.

    • B. 

      Location, Conditions, Needs.

    • C. 

      Accountability, Conditions, Location.

    • D. 

      Command, Accountability, Location.

  • 46. 
    The company officer operating a hoseline with their crew may be described as having-
    • A. 

      Tunnel vision.

    • B. 

      Moth to flame syndrome

    • C. 

      Surrounding vision.

    • D. 

      Accountability vision.

  • 47. 
    The company officer's responsibility to maintain awareness of what the fire is doing all around a crew while operating at an incident is-
    • A. 

      Accounability.

    • B. 

      Lookout

    • C. 

      Safety awareness

    • D. 

      Surrounding vision

  • 48. 
    Which member operating immediately outside the structure gets the big picture?
    • A. 

      The engineer

    • B. 

      The IC

    • C. 

      The Safety Officer

    • D. 

      The Fire Officer.

  • 49. 
    What is more important than establishing the best location for access?
    • A. 

      Determining the closest water supply.

    • B. 

      Identifying the best location with sufficient area to exit.

    • C. 

      Establishing a two-in two-out situation.

    • D. 

      Determining the best area for a secondary access.

  • 50. 
    What will become a focal point for operations by the balance of the assignment?
    • A. 

      The location that you select to initiate operations as a first arriving company.

    • B. 

      The location of the seat of the fire.

    • C. 

      A proper command implementation.

    • D. 

      The location of victim rescue.

  • 51. 
    In regard to conditions, what is the most important decision?
    • A. 

      Deciding what the smoke is telling you.

    • B. 

      Determining either an offensive or defensive attack.

    • C. 

      Determining an escape route.

    • D. 

      Knowing when to regroup and consider the risk vs. gain.

  • 52. 
    What should be a standard procedure for engineers once lines are in operation?
    • A. 

      Set-up a quartz light to highlight the doorway.

    • B. 

      Establish a secondary means of egress.

    • C. 

      Set up a back-up line.

    • D. 

      Provide horizontal ventilation by breaking out windows.

  • 53. 
    Facades and mezzanines are not normally located above rolling steel doors.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 54. 
    At a structure fire where is the safety zone or refuge area typically located?
    • A. 

      In an area free of the products of combustion but close to the working area.

    • B. 

      On the exterior

    • C. 

      The floor below

    • D. 

      A stairwell

  • 55. 
    In certain situations a safe refuge may be located above a fire in a highrise.  At a minimum, how many floors must this area be above the fire?
    • A. 

      Two floors

    • B. 

      Three floors

    • C. 

      Four floors

    • D. 

      Five floors

  • 56. 
    According to the Firescope Handbook, how many "watch-out" situations have been established for working in the wildland?
    • A. 

      5

    • B. 

      12

    • C. 

      18

    • D. 

      22

  • 57. 
    According to the Firescope Handbook, How many "watch-out" situations have been identified for interior structure firefighting?
    • A. 

      18

    • B. 

      23

    • C. 

      12

    • D. 

      9

  • 58. 
    What is one of the most effective ways to time-stamp an incident?
    • A. 

      By announcement by the IC at 15 minute intervals.

    • B. 

      Recognize the amount of time it typically takes before your low air warning sounds.

    • C. 

      By starting an incident clock on arrival.

    • D. 

      By using the dispatch center.

  • 59. 
    Where does the following Rule of Engagement come from: Responders shall not be committed to interior offensive firefighting operations in abandoned or derelict buildings.
    • A. 

      United Kingdom

    • B. 

      LA Fire Department

    • C. 

      IAFC

    • D. 

      Seattle Fire Department

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