Pathology Exam 1 Review.

120 Questions  I  By Ajsellner on March 20, 2009
Most questions taken from Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease 7th ed.

  

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1.  Which watershed area is most sensitive to infarction?
A.
B.
C.
D.
2.  What is the 11th cranial nerve?
3.  What cells are most sensitive to hypoxia?
A.
B.
C.
D.
4.  Which cells/areas are most sensitive to hypoxia? (select all that apply)
A.
B.
C.
D.
5.  What regions are examined for herniation when there is an increased cranial pressure? (select all that apply)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
6.  Psammoma Bodies are seen in which neoplasm?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
7.  If a skull is fractured, what artery is potentially severed?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
8.  If the Middle Meningeal Artery is lacerated with a skull fracture, what kind of hematoma will occur?
A.
B.
C.
9.  What is the usual source for a Subdural Hematoma? 
A.
B.
C.
10.  What congenital anomaly is: The defective development of both lungs resulting in decreased weight, volume, and acini compared to the body and gestational age?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
11.  Pulmonary sequestration is:
A.
B.
C.
12.  What is the most common pleural tumor?
A.
B.
C.
13.  Which type of Atelectasis is irreversible?
A.
B.
C.
14.  What is the most common cause of hemodynamic (aka cardiogenic) pulmonary edema?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
15.  What are "heart failure" cells; Histologically seen in pulmonary edema?
A.
B.
C.
16.  What is the most common cause of pneumothorax?
A.
B.
C.
D.
17.  Viral infection typically causes _____ pneumonia.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
18.  Golden pneumonia occurs due to?
A.
B.
C.
D.
19.  Which one does not work to fill in the blanks:   _______ pneumonia is caused by ______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
20.  Which disease presents radiographically as "White-out"?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
21.  What is the commonest infection?
A.
B.
22.  Nasal polyps are?
A.
B.
23.  What type of epithelium does the false cord have in adults?
A.
B.
C.
D.
24.  What type of epithelium do the ventricles (of glottis) have?
A.
B.
25.  Histologically, at what level glands (goblet cells) no longer present?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
26.  At what level do Clara Cells first appear?
A.
B.
C.
D.
27.  The ____ cord has glands, while the ____ has muscle.
A.
B.
28.  Alveolar macrophages are also known as?
A.
B.
C.
D.
29.  The most common primary lung cancer is?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
30.  What causes restrictive pulmonary disease?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
31.  Which primary bronchus is most prone to aspiration?
A.
B.
32.  Which type of atelectasis is characterized by a loss of surfactant?  Is also often seen in ARDS.
A.
B.
C.
33.  What type of Emphysema is: The acini are uniformly enlarged from the level of the respiratory bronchiole to the terminal alveoli?
A.
B.
C.
34.  Chronic bronchitis is clinically defined as " a persistant cough with sputum production for at least _____ months in at least ___ consecutive years, in the absence of any other identifiable cause"
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
35.  Which diagnosis is aided by the demonstration of an elevated eosinophil count in the blood, Curschmann spirals, and Charcot-Leyden crystals in the sputum?
A.
B.
C.
D.
36.  Idiopathic pulmonary hypertension is occasionally associated with a mutation of the bone morphogenetic protein receptor type 2 (BMPR2), however, it is most commonly sporadic in __?
A.
B.
C.
D.
37.  Panacinar emphysema is associated with?
A.
B.
C.
D.
38.  Select all that apply.  The lesion(s) associated with bronchitis are:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
39.  What is the most common cause of bronchiectasis?
A.
B.
C.
D.
40.  Which bacteria causes a green-blue purulent exudate?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
41.  Almost 60% of Lobar pneumonias are caused by:
A.
B.
C.
D.
42.  _______ is a pediatric emergency that causes life-threatening acute lower respiratory tract infections and meningitis.
A.
B.
C.
D.
43.  Malformation of urethral groove on the dorsal aspect of the penis is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
44.  Which of the following is not carcinoma in Situ
A.
B.
C.
D.
45.  A nonspecific infection on the glans penis and prepuce:
A.
B.
C.
D.
46.  Benign epithelial porliferation caused by HPV?
A.
B.
C.
D.
47.  Carcinoma in Situ presented as a single or multiple, shity red, sometimes velvety plaque on the glans and prepuce.
A.
B.
C.
D.
48.  Malformation of urethral groove on the ventral aspect of the penis
A.
B.
C.
D.
49.  Abnormally small orifice in the prupuce (frequently secondary to inflammation):
A.
B.
C.
D.
50.  Carcinoma in Situ presenting as a thickened, gray white plaque over the shaft of the penis:
A.
B.
C.
D.
51.  Abnormal, painful swelling of the glans penis after forceful retraction of a phimotic prepuce:
A.
B.
C.
D.
52.  Cryptorchidism, failure of testes descent, usually occurs_____?
A.
B.
53.  Testicular atrophy is secondary to all of the following except
A.
B.
C.
D.
54.  Nonspecific epididymitis and orchitis are often associated with:
A.
B.
C.
D.
55.  What is a rare blistering disease that presents as a verrucous plaque in flexural areas?
A.
B.
C.
D.
56.  Tinea pedis is also known as?
A.
B.
C.
D.
57.  Impetigo is usally resulting from a staph or strep infxn and usually occurs in the Stratum ____?
A.
B.
C.
D.
58.  Panniculitis is inflammation of?
A.
B.
C.
D.
59.  Epidermalysis bullosa is associated with?
A.
B.
C.
D.
60.  What blistering disease occurs in the elderly?
A.
B.
C.
D.
61.  The Birbeck granule is associated with what dz?
A.
B.
C.
D.
62.  Stevens-Jonson syndrome is a form of what in children?
A.
B.
C.
D.
63.  T/F, Strawberry hemangiomas normally metastisize.
A.
B.
64.  Which is not a pigmentation and melanocyte disorder?
A.
B.
C.
D.
65.  In Clark and Breslow staging, which depth of invasion corresponds to a 1b stage?
A.
B.
C.
D.
66.  Adnexal skin tumors include the following except?
A.
B.
C.
D.
67.  Erythema nodosum is a form of panniculitis or inflammation that principally affects what?
A.
B.
C.
D.
68.  The lesion that occur mainly on the face, scalp, and upper trunk (bullous dz) are the?
A.
B.
C.
D.
69.  Xanthomas over the achilles tendon and finger extensor tendons are?
A.
B.
C.
D.
70.  (skin) What stage does the initial papillary invasion fall under?
A.
B.
C.
D.
71.  In the CNS, which cell is responsible for structural support, contribution to the Blood brain barrier and acts as the metabolic buffers/detoxifiers
A.
B.
C.
D.
72.  What is the pathologic change that is defined as: An intense eosinophilia of the perinuclear cytoplasm and pyknosis of the nucleus that follows acute anoxia or ischemia.
A.
B.
C.
D.
73.  In the CNS the common pathophysiologic complications are:
A.
B.
C.
D.
74.  T/F.  In a subfalcine herniation, cingulate gyrus herniates under the falx, which may compromise the anterior cerebral artery.
A.
B.
75.  The herniation that may result in compression of the medulla and may compromise cardiorespiratory centers is the:
A.
B.
C.
D.
76.  Which cerebral edema is commonly seen with CVAs, trauma, tumors and infections (with preferential involvement of white matter)
A.
B.
C.
D.
77.  T/F. In infants an children in whom fusion of the cranial bones has not yet occurred, hydrocephalus produces hypoplasia of the head.
A.
B.
78.  A blockage anywhere along the ventricular system, most often the aqueduct or the foramina of Monro is a _____ hydrocephalus.
A.
B.
C.
D.
79.  T/f. Subarachnoid hemorrhage occur most often with rupture of a berry aneurysm.
A.
B.
80.  The routes of entry of organisms/infections into the nervous system is most commonly through?
A.
B.
C.
D.
81.  The blood brain barrier breaks down in which of the following?
A.
B.
C.
D.
82.  Which is not a result of cerebral edema?
A.
B.
C.
D.
83.  Multiple small brain infarcts often associated with hypertension may cause dementia.
A.
B.
84.  Venous drainage system of brain courses through dural sinuses, but there is no lymphatic drainage?
A.
B.
85.  Picks disease and alzheimer's dz can always be distinguished by neurological exam?
A.
B.
86.  When subaracchnoid hemorrhage is detected at autopsy, the circle of willis should be carefully examined for a berry aneurysm.
A.
B.
87.  Multiple sclerosis is more prevalent in souther latitudes.
A.
B.
88.  Cystic renal dysplasia is sporadic and non-familial from metanephric differentiation?
A.
B.
89.  Where is an ectopic kidney normally found?
A.
B.
C.
D.
90.  What autosomal dominant, bilateral kidney disease (that accounts for 10% of chronic renal failure) causes cysts?
A.
B.
C.
D.
91.  What medullary kidney dz causes multiple cystic dilations in collecting ducts of medulla?
A.
B.
C.
D.
92.  What medullary kidney dz causes small cysts associated with cortical tubular atrophy and interstitial fibrosis?
A.
B.
C.
D.
93.  Where are simple renal cysts found and are they multiple or single?
A.
B.
C.
D.
94.  What are the hallmarks of glomerular dz?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
95.  What is the most common form of Nephronophthisis?
A.
B.
C.
D.
96.  Acquired cystic dz is often iatrogenic, what is it commonly associated with?
A.
B.
C.
D.
97.  Which of the following is not a pattern of glomerular dz?
A.
B.
C.
D.
98.  Alport syndrome, thin membrane dz and Fabry dz are secondary, hereditary forms of glomerulonephritis?
A.
B.
99.  Which infection causes non-post streptococcal acute proliferative glomerulonephritis?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
100.  RPGN is autoimmune and idiopathic.
A.
B.
101.  What is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in adults?
A.
B.
C.
D.
102.  Which of the following is not a common route in which bacteria reach the prostate in acute bacterial prostatitis?
A.
B.
C.
D.
103.  What is the most common form of prostatits
A.
B.
C.
D.
104.  Hydrocele, hematocele, chylocele, spermatocele, and vericocele are all lesions of the:
A.
B.
C.
D.
105.  Local accumulation of blood within a dilated vein in the spermatic cord:
A.
B.
C.
D.
106.  All of the following are histologically identical tumors found in different locations except?
A.
B.
C.
D.