Related Topics
Take Another Quiz

Pathology Exam 1 Review.

119 Questions
Pathology Quizzes & Trivia

Most questions taken from Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease 7th ed.

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Which watershed area is most sensitive to infarction?
    • A. 

      Between Anterior and Middle cerebral arteries

    • B. 

      Between Middle and Posterior cerebral arteries

    • C. 

      Between left and right Anterior cerebral arteries

    • D. 

      Between Medial and Lateral cerebreal arteries

  • 2. 
    What is the 11th cranial nerve?
  • 3. 
    What cells are most sensitive to hypoxia?
    • A. 

      Astrocytes

    • B. 

      Neurons

    • C. 

      Ependymal

    • D. 

      Oligodendroglial

  • 4. 
    • A. 

      Sommer's sector of Hippocampus

    • B. 

      Purkinje cells of cerebellum

    • C. 

      Pyramidal neurons in the neocortex

    • D. 

      Basal ganglia neurons of the claustrum

  • 5. 
    • A. 

      Cingulate gyrus

    • B. 

      Uncus

    • C. 

      Cerebellar Tonsils

    • D. 

      Pons

    • E. 

      Medulla

  • 6. 
    • A. 

      Astrocytoma

    • B. 

      Chordoma

    • C. 

      Meningioma

    • D. 

      Craniopharyngioma

    • E. 

      Glioblastoma Multiforme

  • 7. 
    If a skull is fractured, what artery is potentially severed?
    • A. 

      External Carotid

    • B. 

      Lingual

    • C. 

      Facial

    • D. 

      Occipital

    • E. 

      Middle Meningeal

  • 8. 
    If the Middle Meningeal Artery is lacerated with a skull fracture, what kind of hematoma will occur?
    • A. 

      Epidural

    • B. 

      Subdural

    • C. 

      Subarachnoid

  • 9. 
    What is the usual source for a Subdural Hematoma? 
    • A. 

      Bridging veins

    • B. 

      Berry Aneurysms

    • C. 

      Superior Sagittal sinus

  • 10. 
    What congenital anomaly is: The defective development of both lungs resulting in decreased weight, volume, and acini compared to the body and gestational age?
    • A. 

      Agenesis

    • B. 

      Pulmonary Sequestration

    • C. 

      Pulmonary Hypoplasia

    • D. 

      Congenital pulmonary airway malformation (CPAM)

    • E. 

      Atresia

  • 11. 
    Pulmonary sequestration is:
    • A. 

      A hamartomatous lesion of the lung

    • B. 

      Presence of a discrete mass of lung tissue without any normal connection to the airway system

    • C. 

      Abnormal detachment of primitive foregut and most often located in the hilum or middle mediastinum.

  • 12. 
    What is the most common pleural tumor?
    • A. 

      Metastatic from lung, breast, or ovary

    • B. 

      Mesothelioma

    • C. 

      Squamous Cell CA

  • 13. 
    • A. 

      Resorption(aka obstruction)

    • B. 

      Compression

    • C. 

      Contraction

  • 14. 
    What is the most common cause of hemodynamic (aka cardiogenic) pulmonary edema?
    • A. 

      Right Sided CHF

    • B. 

      Left Sided CHF

    • C. 

      Cor Bovinum

    • D. 

      Pulmonary valve insufficiency

    • E. 

      Tricuspid valve stenosis

  • 15. 
    What is the most common cause of pneumothorax?
    • A. 

      Ruptured blebs

    • B. 

      Trauma

    • C. 

      Infection

    • D. 

      Smoking

  • 16. 
    Viral infection typically causes _____ pneumonia.
    • A. 

      Golden

    • B. 

      Hemorrhagic

    • C. 

      Abscess

    • D. 

      Interstitial

    • E. 

      Lobar

  • 17. 
    Golden pneumonia occurs due to?
    • A. 

      Lipofuschin inclusions

    • B. 

      Staphylococcus

    • C. 

      Obstruction

    • D. 

      Viral

  • 18. 
    Which one does not work to fill in the blanks:   _______ pneumonia is caused by ______.
    • A. 

      Golden; Obstruction

    • B. 

      Abscess; Staph

    • C. 

      Hemorrhagic; pseudomonas

    • D. 

      Community acquired; viral

    • E. 

      Broncho; Staph

  • 19. 
    Which disease presents radiographically as "White-out"?
    • A. 

      TB

    • B. 

      Lobar Pneumonia

    • C. 

      ARDS

    • D. 

      Pancoast tumors

    • E. 

      Pleuritis

  • 20. 
    What is the commonest infection?
    • A. 

      Cold

    • B. 

      UTI

  • 21. 
    Nasal polyps are?
    • A. 

      Neoplastic

    • B. 

      Inflammatory response to allergy

  • 22. 
    What type of epithelium does the false cord have in adults?
    • A. 

      Pseudostratified columnar

    • B. 

      Simple squamous

    • C. 

      Stratified squamous non-keratinized

    • D. 

      Stratified squamous keratinized

  • 23. 
    What type of epithelium do the ventricles (of glottis) have?
    • A. 

      Psuedostratified columnar

    • B. 

      Stratified squamous

  • 24. 
    Histologically, at what level glands (goblet cells) no longer present?
    • A. 

      Trachea

    • B. 

      Bronchi

    • C. 

      Large Bronchioles

    • D. 

      Terminal Bronchioles

    • E. 

      Alveoli

  • 25. 
    At what level do Clara Cells first appear?
    • A. 

      Trachea

    • B. 

      Bronchi

    • C. 

      Bronchioles

    • D. 

      Alveoli

  • 26. 
    The ____ cord has glands, while the ____ has muscle.
    • A. 

      True; false

    • B. 

      False; true

  • 27. 
    Alveolar macrophages are also known as?
    • A. 

      Langerhan's cells

    • B. 

      Kultchitsky cells

    • C. 

      Dust cells

    • D. 

      Kupfer cells

  • 28. 
    The most common primary lung cancer is?
    • A. 

      Adenocarcinoma

    • B. 

      Squamous cell carcinoma

    • C. 

      Small cell undifferentiated

    • D. 

      Large cell undifferentiated

    • E. 

      Metastatic, usually from GI

  • 29. 
    What causes restrictive pulmonary disease?
    • A. 

      Bronchiectasis

    • B. 

      Chronic Bronchitis

    • C. 

      Emphysema

    • D. 

      Asthma

    • E. 

      IPF

  • 30. 
    Which primary bronchus is most prone to aspiration?
    • A. 

      Right

    • B. 

      Left

  • 31. 
    Which type of atelectasis is characterized by a loss of surfactant?  Is also often seen in ARDS.
    • A. 

      Obstructive

    • B. 

      Compression

    • C. 

      Patchy

  • 32. 
    What type of Emphysema is: The acini are uniformly enlarged from the level of the respiratory bronchiole to the terminal alveoli?
    • A. 

      Centrilobular

    • B. 

      Panacinar

    • C. 

      Distal acinar

  • 33. 
    Chronic bronchitis is clinically defined as " a persistant cough with sputum production for at least _____ months in at least ___ consecutive years, in the absence of any other identifiable cause"
    • A. 

      2;2

    • B. 

      2;3

    • C. 

      3;2

    • D. 

      3;3

    • E. 

      1;2

  • 34. 
    Which diagnosis is aided by the demonstration of an elevated eosinophil count in the blood, Curschmann spirals, and Charcot-Leyden crystals in the sputum?
    • A. 

      Bacterial Pneumonia

    • B. 

      Tuberculosis

    • C. 

      Asthma

    • D. 

      Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA)

  • 35. 
    Idiopathic pulmonary hypertension is occasionally associated with a mutation of the bone morphogenetic protein receptor type 2 (BMPR2), however, it is most commonly sporadic in __?
    • A. 

      Children

    • B. 

      Prebubescent females

    • C. 

      Post-menopausal females

    • D. 

      20-40 yr old females

  • 36. 
    Panacinar emphysema is associated with?
    • A. 

      Smoking

    • B. 

      Alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency

    • C. 

      Scarring due to inflammation or infection

    • D. 

      Trauma

  • 37. 
    Select all that apply.  The lesion(s) associated with bronchitis are:
    • A. 

      Glandular hypertrophy

    • B. 

      Goblet cell hyperplasia

    • C. 

      Mucous production

    • D. 

      Muscular hypertrophy

    • E. 

      Fibrosis

  • 38. 
    What is the most common cause of bronchiectasis?
    • A. 

      Necrotizing (via pneumonia)

    • B. 

      Obstruction (tumor, foreign bodies, mucous plugs)

    • C. 

      Congenital (cystic fibrosis)

    • D. 

      Idiopathic

  • 39. 
    Which bacteria causes a green-blue purulent exudate?
    • A. 

      Pseudomonas

    • B. 

      Streptococcus

    • C. 

      Klebsiella

    • D. 

      Staphylococcus

    • E. 

      Haemopholis

  • 40. 
    Almost 60% of Lobar pneumonias are caused by:
    • A. 

      Streptococcus pn. and Haemopholis inf.

    • B. 

      Strep and Staph

    • C. 

      Pneumococcus and Pseudomonas

    • D. 

      Klebsiella and E. coli

  • 41. 
    _______ is a pediatric emergency that causes life-threatening acute lower respiratory tract infections and meningitis.
    • A. 

      Staphylococcus aureus

    • B. 

      Haemophilus influenzae

    • C. 

      Streptococcus pneumoniae

    • D. 

      Moraxella catarrhalis

  • 42. 
    Malformation of urethral groove on the dorsal aspect of the penis is:
    • A. 

      Epispadias

    • B. 

      Hypospadias

    • C. 

      Phimosis

    • D. 

      Paraphimosis

  • 43. 
    Which of the following is not carcinoma in Situ
    • A. 

      Bown disease

    • B. 

      Bowen disease

    • C. 

      Bowenoid papulosis

    • D. 

      Condyloma acuminatum

  • 44. 
    A nonspecific infection on the glans penis and prepuce:
    • A. 

      Cryptorchidism

    • B. 

      Balanoposthitis

    • C. 

      Epispadias

    • D. 

      Chylocele

  • 45. 
    Benign epithelial porliferation caused by HPV?
    • A. 

      Erythroplasia of queyrat

    • B. 

      Bowenoid papulosis

    • C. 

      Condyloma acuminatum

    • D. 

      Bowen disease

  • 46. 
    Carcinoma in Situ presented as a single or multiple, shity red, sometimes velvety plaque on the glans and prepuce.
    • A. 

      Bowen disease

    • B. 

      Erythroplasia of queyrat

    • C. 

      Bowenoid papulosis

    • D. 

      Condyloma acuminatum

  • 47. 
    Malformation of urethral groove on the ventral aspect of the penis
    • A. 

      Epispadias

    • B. 

      Hypospadias

    • C. 

      Phimosis

    • D. 

      Paraphimosis

  • 48. 
    Abnormally small orifice in the prupuce (frequently secondary to inflammation):
    • A. 

      Epispadias

    • B. 

      Hypospadias

    • C. 

      Phimosis

    • D. 

      Paraphimosis

  • 49. 
    Carcinoma in Situ presenting as a thickened, gray white plaque over the shaft of the penis:
    • A. 

      Bowen disease

    • B. 

      Erythroplasia of queyrat

    • C. 

      Bowenoid papulosis

    • D. 

      Condyloma acuminatum

  • 50. 
    Abnormal, painful swelling of the glans penis after forceful retraction of a phimotic prepuce:
    • A. 

      Epispadias

    • B. 

      Hypospadias

    • C. 

      Balanoposthitis

    • D. 

      Paraphimosis

  • 51. 
    Cryptorchidism, failure of testes descent, usually occurs_____?
    • A. 

      Unilaterally

    • B. 

      Bilaterally

  • 52. 
    Testicular atrophy is secondary to all of the following except
    • A. 

      Hypopituitarism

    • B. 

      Klinefelter syndrome

    • C. 

      Malnutrition

    • D. 

      Vascular disease

  • 53. 
    Nonspecific epididymitis and orchitis are often associated with:
    • A. 

      UTI

    • B. 

      Getting kicked in the balls

    • C. 

      Tumor

    • D. 

      Genetic defect.

  • 54. 
    What is a rare blistering disease that presents as a verrucous plaque in flexural areas?
    • A. 

      Pemphigus Vulgaris

    • B. 

      Bullous Pemphigoid

    • C. 

      Pemphigus Vegitans

    • D. 

      Bullous disease

  • 55. 
    Tinea pedis is also known as?
    • A. 

      Athlete's foot

    • B. 

      Athlete's jumper knee

    • C. 

      Frostbite on toes

    • D. 

      Tophus

  • 56. 
    Impetigo is usally resulting from a staph or strep infxn and usually occurs in the Stratum ____?
    • A. 

      Spinosum

    • B. 

      Granulosum

    • C. 

      Corneum

    • D. 

      Germinativum

  • 57. 
    Panniculitis is inflammation of?
    • A. 

      Capillaries

    • B. 

      Epidermis

    • C. 

      Subcutaneous tissue

    • D. 

      All cells

  • 58. 
    Epidermalysis bullosa is associated with?
    • A. 

      Metabolic disorders

    • B. 

      Birthing trauma

    • C. 

      Acne

    • D. 

      Urticarial type blistering disease

  • 59. 
    What blistering disease occurs in the elderly?
    • A. 

      Porphyria

    • B. 

      Dermatitis herpetiformis

    • C. 

      Bullous pemphigoid

    • D. 

      Lichen planus

  • 60. 
    The Birbeck granule is associated with what dz?
    • A. 

      Mastocytosis

    • B. 

      Histiocytosis X

    • C. 

      Mycosis fungoides (CTCL)

    • D. 

      Lupus

  • 61. 
    Stevens-Jonson syndrome is a form of what in children?
    • A. 

      Erythema Multiforme

    • B. 

      Lichen planus

    • C. 

      Photosensitive dermatitis

    • D. 

      Mastocytosis

  • 62. 
    T/F, Strawberry hemangiomas normally metastisize.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 63. 
    Which is not a pigmentation and melanocyte disorder?
    • A. 

      Melasma

    • B. 

      Lentigo

    • C. 

      Dysplastic Nevi

    • D. 

      Syringioma

  • 64. 
    In Clark and Breslow staging, which depth of invasion corresponds to a 1b stage?
    • A. 

      1.5mm

    • B. 

      0.76mm

    • C. 

      4.0mm

    • D. 

      5.5mm

  • 65. 
    Adnexal skin tumors include the following except?
    • A. 

      Cylindroma

    • B. 

      Leukoplakia

    • C. 

      Syringoma

    • D. 

      Eccrine poroma

  • 66. 
    Erythema nodosum is a form of panniculitis or inflammation that principally affects what?
    • A. 

      Connective tissue septa

    • B. 

      Fat lobules

    • C. 

      Acrochordon

    • D. 

      WEN

  • 67. 
    The lesion that occur mainly on the face, scalp, and upper trunk (bullous dz) are the?
    • A. 

      Pemphigus vulgaris

    • B. 

      Psoriasis

    • C. 

      Mastocytosis

    • D. 

      Pemphigus foliaceous

  • 68. 
    Xanthomas over the achilles tendon and finger extensor tendons are?
    • A. 

      Eruptive Xanthoma

    • B. 

      Tendinous X

    • C. 

      Plane xanthoma

    • D. 

      Tuberous x

  • 69. 
    (skin) What stage does the initial papillary invasion fall under?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 70. 
    In the CNS, which cell is responsible for structural support, contribution to the Blood brain barrier and acts as the metabolic buffers/detoxifiers
    • A. 

      Glia

    • B. 

      Astrocytes

    • C. 

      Microglia

    • D. 

      Ependyma

  • 71. 
    What is the pathologic change that is defined as: An intense eosinophilia of the perinuclear cytoplasm and pyknosis of the nucleus that follows acute anoxia or ischemia.
    • A. 

      Axonal Reaction

    • B. 

      Intraneuronal Deposits

    • C. 

      Acute Cell injury

    • D. 

      Subfalcine

  • 72. 
    In the CNS the common pathophysiologic complications are:
    • A. 

      Herniations, cerebral edema, and hydrocephalus

    • B. 

      Spinal cord injury and cerbrovascular dz

    • C. 

      Demyelinating disease and degenerative dz

    • D. 

      Tumors, traumas, and infections

  • 73. 
    T/F.  In a subfalcine herniation, cingulate gyrus herniates under the falx, which may compromise the anterior cerebral artery.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 74. 
    The herniation that may result in compression of the medulla and may compromise cardiorespiratory centers is the:
    • A. 

      Transtentorial herniation

    • B. 

      Tonsillar herniation

    • C. 

      Subfalcine herniation

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 75. 
    Which cerebral edema is commonly seen with CVAs, trauma, tumors and infections (with preferential involvement of white matter)
    • A. 

      Vasogenic edema

    • B. 

      Interstitial edema

    • C. 

      Spongiform encephalopathies

    • D. 

      Cytotoxic edema

  • 76. 
    T/F. In infants an children in whom fusion of the cranial bones has not yet occurred, hydrocephalus produces hypoplasia of the head.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 77. 
    A blockage anywhere along the ventricular system, most often the aqueduct or the foramina of Monro is a _____ hydrocephalus.
    • A. 

      Communicating

    • B. 

      Ischemic

    • C. 

      Noncommunicating

    • D. 

      Metastatic

  • 78. 
    T/f. Subarachnoid hemorrhage occur most often with rupture of a berry aneurysm.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 79. 
    The routes of entry of organisms/infections into the nervous system is most commonly through?
    • A. 

      Hematogenous spread

    • B. 

      Direct implantation (trauma)

    • C. 

      Local extension and axonal transport

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 80. 
    The blood brain barrier breaks down in which of the following?
    • A. 

      Kernicterus

    • B. 

      Intracerebral hemorrhage

    • C. 

      Brain abscesses

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 81. 
    Which is not a result of cerebral edema?
    • A. 

      Astrocytosis

    • B. 

      Subdural hematoma

    • C. 

      Uncal herniation

    • D. 

      Tonsillar herniation

  • 82. 
    Multiple small brain infarcts often associated with hypertension may cause dementia.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 83. 
    Venous drainage system of brain courses through dural sinuses, but there is no lymphatic drainage?
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 84. 
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 85. 
    When subaracchnoid hemorrhage is detected at autopsy, the circle of willis should be carefully examined for a berry aneurysm.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 86. 
    Multiple sclerosis is more prevalent in souther latitudes.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 87. 
    Cystic renal dysplasia is sporadic and non-familial from metanephric differentiation?
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 88. 
    Where is an ectopic kidney normally found?
    • A. 

      Abdomen

    • B. 

      Pelvic region

    • C. 

      Uterus

    • D. 

      Upper pole

  • 89. 
    What autosomal dominant, bilateral kidney disease (that accounts for 10% of chronic renal failure) causes cysts?
    • A. 

      Polycystic kidney dz

    • B. 

      Medullary sponge kidney

    • C. 

      Adult onset medullary cystic dz

    • D. 

      Acquired cystic dz.

  • 90. 
    What medullary kidney dz causes multiple cystic dilations in collecting ducts of medulla?
    • A. 

      Medullary sponge kidney

    • B. 

      Polycycstic kidney dz

    • C. 

      Acquired cystic dz

    • D. 

      None of the above.

  • 91. 
    What medullary kidney dz causes small cysts associated with cortical tubular atrophy and interstitial fibrosis?
    • A. 

      Nephronophthisis (UCMD)

    • B. 

      Polycystic kidney dz

    • C. 

      Acquired cystic dz

    • D. 

      None of above

  • 92. 
    Where are simple renal cysts found and are they multiple or single?
    • A. 

      Medulla, single

    • B. 

      Cortex, multiple and single

    • C. 

      Cortex, single

    • D. 

      Medulla, multiple

  • 93. 
    What are the hallmarks of glomerular dz?
    • A. 

      Hypercellularity

    • B. 

      BM thickening

    • C. 

      Hyalinization and sclerosis

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      A and C only

  • 94. 
    What is the most common form of Nephronophthisis?
    • A. 

      Familial Juvenile recessive

    • B. 

      Familial Juvenile sporadic

    • C. 

      Familial Juvenile retinal

    • D. 

      Adult onset medullary cystic

  • 95. 
    Acquired cystic dz is often iatrogenic, what is it commonly associated with?
    • A. 

      Drugs

    • B. 

      Dialysis

    • C. 

      Obesity

    • D. 

      A and C

  • 96. 
    Which of the following is not a pattern of glomerular dz?
    • A. 

      Focal

    • B. 

      Segmental

    • C. 

      Diffuse

    • D. 

      Fusiform

  • 97. 
    Alport syndrome, thin membrane dz and Fabry dz are secondary, hereditary forms of glomerulonephritis?
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 98. 
    Which infection causes non-post streptococcal acute proliferative glomerulonephritis?
    • A. 

      Meningitis

    • B. 

      Staph

    • C. 

      Pneumonia

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      None above

  • 99. 
    RPGN is autoimmune and idiopathic.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 100. 
    • A. 

      Membranous glomerulonephritis

    • B. 

      Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis

    • C. 

      Lipoid nephrosis

    • D. 

      Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis

  • 101. 
    Which of the following is not a common route in which bacteria reach the prostate in acute bacterial prostatitis?
    • A. 

      Catheterization

    • B. 

      Sexual intercourse

    • C. 

      Hematogenous seeding

    • D. 

      Lymphatics

  • 102. 
    What is the most common form of prostatits
    • A. 

      Chronic abacterial prostatitis

    • B. 

      Acute bacterial prostatitis

    • C. 

      Chronic bacterial prostatitis

    • D. 

      Nodular neoplasm

  • 103. 
    Hydrocele, hematocele, chylocele, spermatocele, and vericocele are all lesions of the:
    • A. 

      Tunica vaginalis

    • B. 

      Tunica albicans

    • C. 

      Glans penis

    • D. 

      Testis

  • 104. 
    Local accumulation of blood within a dilated vein in the spermatic cord:
    • A. 

      Hematocele

    • B. 

      Hydrocele

    • C. 

      Chylocele

    • D. 

      Vericocele (venous varix)

  • 105. 
    All of the following are histologically identical tumors found in different locations except?
    • A. 

      Dysgerminoma

    • B. 

      Seminoma

    • C. 

      Germinoms

    • D. 

      All of the above are histologically identical

  • 106. 
    Lymphatic metasteses of germ cell neoplasms is most common in the:
    • A. 

      Retroperitoneal

    • B. 

      Medistianal

    • C. 

      Supraclavicular

    • D. 

      Inguinal

  • 107. 
    Eosinophilic Reinke crystalloids are found in what tumors?
    • A. 

      Sertoli

    • B. 

      Yolk sac

    • C. 

      Leydig

    • D. 

      Testicular lymphomas

  • 108. 
    Nodular gummas are associated with?
    • A. 

      TB

    • B. 

      Gonorrhea

    • C. 

      Syphilis

    • D. 

      Mumps

  • 109. 
    Embryonal carcinoma is _____ aggressive than seminomas.
    • A. 

      More

    • B. 

      Less

    • C. 

      Same

  • 110. 
    50% of cases show a primitive glomeruli (endodermal sinuses)
    • A. 

      Choriocarcinoma

    • B. 

      Yolk sac tumor

    • C. 

      Embryonal carcinoma

    • D. 

      Teratoma

  • 111. 
    Mature teratomas are more common in:
    • A. 

      Adults

    • B. 

      Infants

    • C. 

      Children

    • D. 

      B and C

  • 112. 
    Both leydig and sertoli cell tumors produce androgens or estrogens, but which one is more likely to produce them in levels high enough to show clinical manifestations (i.e. gynecomastia)
    • A. 

      Leydig

    • B. 

      Sertoli

  • 113. 
    What is the most common testicular neoplasm in patients over 60?
    • A. 

      Mixed

    • B. 

      Seminoma

    • C. 

      Embryonal

    • D. 

      Testicular lymphoma

  • 114. 
    Ureaplama urealyticum and chlamydia trachomatis are thought to cause?
    • A. 

      Acute bacterial prostatitis

    • B. 

      Chronic bacterial prostatitis

    • C. 

      Chronic abacterial prostatitis

    • D. 

      Acute abacterial prostatits

  • 115. 
    70% of prostate carcinomas arise in the:
    • A. 

      Medial

    • B. 

      Peripheral

    • C. 

      Anterior

    • D. 

      Mid

  • 116. 
    All of the following are cerebrovascular dz except.
    • A. 

      Ischemia, hypoxia and infarction

    • B. 

      Intracranial hemorrhage

    • C. 

      Hypertensive cerebrovascular dz

    • D. 

      Werdnig-Hoffmann dz

  • 117. 
    Cerebral infarcts due to focal obstruction of blood flow may arise from either thrombotic or embolic arterial occlusion
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 118. 
    Intraparenchymal hemorrhage, subarachnoid hemorrhage and vascular malformation are all considered nontraumatic intracranial hemorrhages
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 119. 
    Schwannoma's have antoni A and B growth patterns
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

Related Topics