Networking Midterm

141 Questions  I  By Kdrost
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Midterm Quizzes & Trivia
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  • 1. 
    At which layer of the OSI model do bridges, hubs and routers primarily operate, respectively?
    • A. 

      Physical, Physical, Data Link

    • B. 

      Data Link, Physical, Network

    • C. 

      Physical, Data Link, Network


  • 2. 
    At which layer of the OSI model would you find IP?
    • A. 

      Network

    • B. 

      Transport Transport

    • C. 

      Data Link


  • 3. 
    Routers perform routing at which OSI level?
    • A. 

      Physical

    • B. 

      Data Link

    • C. 

      Network


  • 4. 
    TCP and UDP reside at which layer of the OSI model?
    • A. 

      5

    • B. 

      7

    • C. 

      6

    • D. 

      4


  • 5. 
    What is the difference between a LAN and a WAN?
    • A. 

      WANs are predominately router to router networks

    • B. 

      WANs cover larger geographical areas

    • C. 

      WANs can utilize either public or private data transport

    • D. 

      All of the above


  • 6. 
    What does VPN stand for?
    • A. 

      Virtual Processor Network

    • B. 

      Virtual Private Network

    • C. 

      Variable-length Private Network


  • 7. 
    A recieving host has consistently failed to receive all the segments that it should acknowledge in an agreed transmission set. What can it do to improve the reliability of the communication sessions?
    • A. 

      Send to a different hardware of MAC address

    • B. 

      Decrease the sequence number

    • C. 

      Decrease the window size


  • 8. 
    Which of the following mnemonic devices can you use to remember the first letter of the name of each layer of the OSI model in proper order?
    • A. 

      All people seem to need processed data

    • B. 

      Please do not throw sausage pizza away

    • C. 

      All day people should try new professions


  • 9. 
    Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for code and character-set conversion as well as recognizing data formats?
    • A. 

      Presentation

    • B. 

      Transport

    • C. 

      Physical


  • 10. 
    The __________ layer of the OSI model is used to ensure that every packet of data from the sender is received and acknowledged by the receiver

  • 11. 
    Acknowledgment, sequencing and flow control are the characteristics of which OSI layer?
    • A. 

      Layer 2

    • B. 

      Layer 4

    • C. 

      Layer 7


  • 12. 
    You want to connect remotely to the office network in a secure manner. Which of the following should you use?
    • A. 

      VPN

    • B. 

      Tagged Packets

    • C. 

      VLAN


  • 13. 
    The ________ layer of the OSI model provides addressing that routers use for path determination

  • 14. 
    On what type of network are all computers considered equals and do not share any central authority
    • A. 

      Peer to peer

    • B. 

      Client/Server

    • C. 

      Physical topology


  • 15. 
    Which layer of the OSI model provides the interface or entry point for programs to access the network infrastructure?
    • A. 

      Transport

    • B. 

      Session

    • C. 

      Application


  • 16. 
    A 64MB data stream is divided into smaller segments for transmission at which layer of the OSI model?
    • A. 

      Transport

    • B. 

      Data Link

    • C. 

      Network


  • 17. 
    Routing is enabled at the ______ layer of the OSI model, enabling connections and path selections between two end systems

  • 18. 
    What is a logical grouping of network users and resources connected to logically isolated ports on a switch?
    • A. 

      Hub

    • B. 

      VLAN

    • C. 

      VTP


  • 19. 
    What is the purpose of flow control?
    • A. 

      To enable the receiver to govern the amount of data sent by the sender

    • B. 

      To reassemble segments in the correct order at the destination device

    • C. 

      To regulate the size of each segment


  • 20. 
    Which of the following is a concern in peer-to-peer networks?
    • A. 

      Where to place the server

    • B. 

      The security associated with such a network

    • C. 

      Whose computer is least busy and can act as a server?


  • 21. 
    What advantage does the client/server architecture have over peer-to-peer
    • A. 

      Easier maintenance

    • B. 

      Greater organization

    • C. 

      Tighter security

    • D. 

      All of the above


  • 22. 
    The _______ layer of the OSI model specifies voltage, wire speed, and connector pin-outs, and moves bits between devices

  • 23. 
    The _______ layer of the OSI model combines bits into bytes and bytes into frames and uses MAC addresses

  • 24. 
    The _______ layer in the OSI model manages the transmission of data across a physical link and is primarily concerned with physical or MAC addressing and the integrity of frames

  • 25. 
    You need a network that provides centralized authentication of users. Which of the following concepts should you use?
    • A. 

      Client/Server

    • B. 

      Peer-to-peer

    • C. 

      Mesh


  • 26. 
    Which of the following is an example of a LAN
    • A. 

      Two routers interconnected with a T1 circuit

    • B. 

      10 buildings interconnected by Ethernet connections over fibre-optic cabling

    • C. 

      A computer connected to another computer so they can share resources


  • 27. 
    The _______ layer of the OSI model is responsible for converting data packets from the Data Link layer into electrical signals

  • 28. 
    You are transmitting a file to a server on the Internet and receive a time-out message. What layer could be the cause of this message?
    • A. 

      Physical

    • B. 

      Transport

    • C. 

      Network


  • 29. 
    Of the following, which is the highest layer in the OSI model?
    • A. 

      Application

    • B. 

      Transport

    • C. 

      Presentation


  • 30. 
    The ______ layer in the OSI model is responsible for creating, managing and terminating sessions between applications.

  • 31. 
    The ______ layer in the OSI model defines how data is formatted, presented, encoded and converted

  • 32. 
    Which type of cable should be used to connect to the console port on a router?
    • A. 

      USB

    • B. 

      Rolled cable (also called console)

    • C. 

      Cross over cable


  • 33. 
    Is it easier to troubleshoot a star topology that uses a hub than a bus topology using coaxial cable?
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 34. 
    What is the main difference between single mode fibre (SMF) and multimode fibre (MMF)
    • A. 

      Number of digital signals

    • B. 

      Electrical signals

    • C. 

      Number of light rays

    • D. 

      Signal mode can be run a shorter distance


  • 35. 
    Multi-mode fibre-optic cable has poorer EMI resistance than STP CAT6e
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 36. 
    A cross-over cable is used to connect all the following EXCEPT:
    • A. 

      Switch to switch

    • B. 

      Host to switch

    • C. 

      Hub to switch

    • D. 

      Host to host


  • 37. 
    When grounding an STP cable, don't try to get the foil shield to contact the plug's metal casing. The grounding wire is for that.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 38. 
    A repeater amplifies a signal to allow it to travel further
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 39. 
    Which type of cable will you use to connect switches together?

  • 40. 
    UTP cable is rated in the following categories EXCEPT:
    • A. 

      Category 2

    • B. 

      Category 8

    • C. 

      Category 5e

    • D. 

      Category 3


  • 41. 
    Why would a network administrator use plenum rated cable during installation? Choose 2
    • A. 

      Is not susceptible to any interference

    • B. 

      High combustion temperature

    • C. 

      Reduces toxic gas released during a fire

    • D. 

      Low combustion temperature


  • 42. 
    What type of connector does UTP cable typically use?
    • A. 

      RJ-45

    • B. 

      BNC

    • C. 

      SC

    • D. 

      ST


  • 43. 
    What type of cable does EMI have the least effect on?
    • A. 

      Coax

    • B. 

      UTP

    • C. 

      Fibre optic

    • D. 

      STP


  • 44. 
    Which pairs of wires are using for 10baseT and 100baseT communication? Choose all that apply
    • A. 

      3-4

    • B. 

      1-2

    • C. 

      5-6

    • D. 

      4-5

    • E. 

      3-6

    • F. 

      4-7

    • G. 

      7-8


  • 45. 
    Which of the following provides the longest cable run distance?
    • A. 

      Single mode fibre

    • B. 

      Multi-mode fibre

    • C. 

      Coax

    • D. 

      Category 6e UTP


  • 46. 
    Single-mode fibre-optic cable has better EMI resistance that STP CAT6e
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 47. 
    Two advantages of fibre optic cabling include: It is completely immune to EMI and RFI and can transmit up to 40 km (25 miles)Harder to evesdrop or wire-tap
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 48. 
    When connecting a plug to UTP cable, why should you ensure the outside casing is clamped in the plug? Strain relief or minimizing the length of untwisted wires
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 49. 
    You need to crimp on a connector using the RJ-45 connector. Which pin-out configuration would you use to connect a host into a switch?
    • A. 

      Crossover

    • B. 

      UTP

    • C. 

      Rolled

    • D. 

      Straight-through


  • 50. 
    A ground loop is:
    • A. 

      Different ground voltages when grounding both ends of an STP cable

    • B. 

      Caused by only grounding one end of an STP cable

    • C. 

      Effect caused by using STP cable without grounding the shielding

    • D. 

      Connecting the shield on STP to a grounded object, like a switch port

    • E. 

      Shorting one or more of the signal wires accidentally


  • 51. 
    Fibre-optic cable is immune to electromagnetic interference (EMI) and radio frequency interference (RFI) because it:
    • A. 

      Transmits digital signals using light impulses

    • B. 

      Transmits analog signals using light impulses

    • C. 

      Transmits analog signals using electricity

    • D. 

      Transmits digital signals using electricity


  • 52. 
    An advantage of a star topology using a hub instead of a bus topology is...
    • A. 

      It isolates hosts from other host-to-host traffic

    • B. 

      One host can talk to a server while another host talks to a printer on another line

    • C. 

      You can add or remove hosts without disturbing the network

    • D. 

      By using UTP cable, hosts can send on one pair of wires at te same time as they are receiving on another pair


  • 53. 
    Which of the following are fibre optic connectors? Choose 3
    • A. 

      ST

    • B. 

      RJ 45

    • C. 

      BNC

    • D. 

      SC

    • E. 

      RJ 11

    • F. 

      LC


  • 54. 
    You want to connect a host to a switch port. What type of Ethernet cable would you use?

  • 55. 
    When using a hub, the maximum distance from workstation to server is 100M, if using UTP
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 56. 
    What type of cable transmits lights from end to end?
    • A. 

      UTP

    • B. 

      Category 6

    • C. 

      Fibre optic


  • 57. 
    How many bits are in a MAC address?
    • A. 

      64

    • B. 

      32

    • C. 

      48

    • D. 

      16


  • 58. 
    The maxium distance of 1000Base-T is?
    • A. 

      1000m (3280 feet)

    • B. 

      128m (420 feet)

    • C. 

      1024m (3360 feet)

    • D. 

      100m (328 feet)


  • 59. 
    In a switched network, if you need more connections at any point in the network, just add a switch to an existing line.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 60. 
    On an ethernet switched network, what address does one host computer use to communicate with another?
    • A. 

      HUB address

    • B. 

      MAC address

    • C. 

      IP address


  • 61. 
    What does the Base mean in 100Base-TX?
    • A. 

      Broadband

    • B. 

      Twisted pair in 100Mbps

    • C. 

      Baseband


  • 62. 
    How is the decimal value 10 represented in binary?
    • A. 

      1010

    • B. 

      1001

    • C. 

      1011

    • D. 

      1000


  • 63. 
    How many devices in a collision domain have to listen when a single host talk?
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      All

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      1


  • 64. 
    Say your network is using C5e UTP. If you need to go through a busy factory area, you could run fibre-optic cable, with transceivers at both ends to convert back to RJ 45 and electrical signals
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 65. 
    How many wire pairs are used in 100Base-T full duplex?
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      1

    • C. 

      4

    • D. 

      A or C


  • 66. 
    What is the purpose of the Frame Check Sequence (FCS) in an Ethernet frame?
    • A. 

      Error recovery

    • B. 

      Error correction

    • C. 

      Creating errors

    • D. 

      Error Detection


  • 67. 
    What is the decimal number 10 in hexadecimal
    • A. 

      9

    • B. 

      C

    • C. 

      A

    • D. 

      B


  • 68. 
    Which of the following can achieve 200Mbps running full duplex on CAT5e cable?
    • A. 

      100Base-T

    • B. 

      1000Base-T

    • C. 

      1000Base-F

    • D. 

      100Base-F


  • 69. 
    Which of the following can achieve 200Mbps running full duplex on CAT5e cable?
    • A. 

      1000Base-T

    • B. 

      100Base-F

    • C. 

      1000Base-F

    • D. 

      100Base-T


  • 70. 
    What device can you NOT use full-duplex communication with?
    • A. 

      Hub

    • B. 

      Router

    • C. 

      Host

    • D. 

      Switch


  • 71. 
    How does a bridge or switch 'learn' where hosts are?remembers sender's MAC address on traffic coming in through each port
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 72. 
    What protocol helps devices share the bandwidth evenly without having two devices transmit at the same time on the network medium?
    • A. 

      TFTP

    • B. 

      HTTPS

    • C. 

      TPC/IP

    • D. 

      CSMA/CD


  • 73. 
    What is the decimal equivalent of this binary number:11000000.10101000.00110000.11110000
    • A. 

      192.168.48.240

    • B. 

      192.168.48.192

    • C. 

      192.168.32.248


  • 74. 
    When connecting a hub to a switch, the hub can go full duplex to the switch, but only half duplex to hosts connected to the switch
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 75. 
    What is the decimal value for the binary number 11101000
    • A. 

      224

    • B. 

      194

    • C. 

      232

    • D. 

      128


  • 76. 
    Two hubs, connected to a switch:
    • A. 

      Comprise one collision domain and one broadcast domain

    • B. 

      Comprise two collision domains and one broadcast domain

    • C. 

      Become one collision domain and one broadcast domain when a host on one hub talks to a host on the other hub

    • D. 

      B and C


  • 77. 
    Coax cable can be used when going full duplex to a switch, but only for its full 185M length
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 78. 
    What is the effective total throughput increase with a full-duplex connection?
    • A. 

      Four times as much

    • B. 

      None

    • C. 

      Ten times as much

    • D. 

      Twice as much


  • 79. 
    How many wire pairs are needed with half duplex?
    • A. 

      4

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      None of the above

    • D. 

      1


  • 80. 
    Which of the following is a valid IP address that can be used on the Internet (meaning the public addressing scheme)?
    • A. 

      168.16.1.1

    • B. 

      172.30.1.1

    • C. 

      10.10.1.1

    • D. 

      192.168.201.21


  • 81. 
    What is the maximum number of IP addresses that can be assigned to hosts on a local subnet that uses the 255.255.255.224 subnet mask?
    • A. 

      16

    • B. 

      30

    • C. 

      14

    • D. 

      62

    • E. 

      15


  • 82. 
    You want to implement a mechanism that automates the IP configuration, including IP address, subnet mask, default gateway and DNS addresses. WHich protocol will you use to accomplish this?
    • A. 

      SNMP

    • B. 

      DHCP

    • C. 

      SMTP

    • D. 

      ARP


  • 83. 
    What is the maximum number of IP addresses that can be assigned to hosts on a local subnet that uses the 255.255.255.224 subnet mask?
    • A. 

      62

    • B. 

      15

    • C. 

      30

    • D. 

      14


  • 84. 
    You receive a call from a user that is complaining that they cannon get on the Internet. You have them verify their IP address, mask, and default gateway. The Ip address is 104.0.37.144 with a subnet mask of 255.255.254.0. The default gateway is 104.0.38.1. What's the problem?
    • A. 

      Invalid subnet mask

    • B. 

      Invalid IP address

    • C. 

      Gateway IP is incorrect

    • D. 

      IP address and mask are not compatible


  • 85. 
    If a host on teh network has the address 172.16.45.14/30. What is the address of the subnet this host belongs to?
    • A. 

      172.16.45.0

    • B. 

      172.16.45.16

    • C. 

      172.16.45.4

    • D. 

      172.16.45.8

    • E. 

      172.16.45.12


  • 86. 
    On which of the following devices are you most likely to be able to implement NAT?
    • A. 

      Hub

    • B. 

      Ethernet switch

    • C. 

      Router

    • D. 

      Bridge


  • 87. 
    What is the valid host range for 192.168.100.99/25

  • 88. 
    Which statement regarding private IP addresses is most accurate?
    • A. 

      Private addresses CANNOT be used in intranets that require routing

    • B. 

      A remote host across the internet CANNOT ping your host if it has a private address

    • C. 

      Private addresses can only be used by a single administrative domain


  • 89. 
    What protocol is used to find the hardware address of a local device?
    • A. 

      IP

    • B. 

      ICMP

    • C. 

      RARP

    • D. 

      ARP


  • 90. 
    Which of the following addresses is not allowed on the Internet? Choose 2 answers
    • A. 

      172.31.12.251

    • B. 

      191.192.168.1

    • C. 

      191.168.169.254

    • D. 

      192.168.201.11


  • 91. 
    Write the subnet address for 192.168.100.99/25

  • 92. 
    What is the highest usable address on the 127.16.1.0/24 network?
    • A. 

      172.16.1.23

    • B. 

      172.16.1.254

    • C. 

      172.16.1.255


  • 93. 
    Which of the following is true when describing a multicast address?
    • A. 

      Packets are delivered to all interfaces identified by the address. This is also called a one-to-many address

    • B. 

      It identifies multiple interfaces and is delivered to only one address. This address can also be called one-to-one-of-many

    • C. 

      These addresses are meant for nonrouting purposes, but they are almost globally unique so it is unlikely they will have an address overlap

    • D. 

      Packets addressed to a unicast address from a multicast address are delivered to a single interface


  • 94. 
    You have a class A host of 10.0.0.110/25. It needs to communicate to a host with an IP address of 10.0.0.210/25. Which of the following devices do you need to use in order for these hosts to communicate?
    • A. 

      Router

    • B. 

      A layer 2 switch

    • C. 

      DNS server

    • D. 

      Hub


  • 95. 
    On a network, which mask should you use on a point-to-point WAN links in order to reduce the waste of IP addresses
    • A. 

      /28

    • B. 

      /27

    • C. 

      /29

    • D. 

      /30

    • E. 

      /31


  • 96. 
    Which TWO of the following are private IP addresses? Choose 2 answers
    • A. 

      10.201.11.42

    • B. 

      172.33.194.30

    • C. 

      168.172.19.39

    • D. 

      12.0.0.1

    • E. 

      192.168.24.43


  • 97. 
    Which is a valid Class B address?
    • A. 

      129.1.1.1 255.255.0.0

    • B. 

      192.168.1.1 255.255.0.0

    • C. 

      126.1.1.1 255.255.0.0


  • 98. 
    Which of the following is a Layer 2 broadcast?
    • A. 

      FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF

    • B. 

      255.255.255.255

    • C. 

      FF:FF:FF:EE:EE:EE

    • D. 

      255.0.0.0


  • 99. 
    If you are forced to replace a router that has failed to the point that you are unable to access its current configuration to aid in setting up interface addresses on the new router, which of the folowing can you reference for assistance?
    • A. 

      The default-gateway settings on computers from each subnet that the old router inter-connected

    • B. 

      The router's configuration that was periodically cached on the DNS server

    • C. 

      The new router will auto-configure itself with the correct settings

    • D. 

      The router's configuration that was periodically cached on the DHCP server


  • 100. 
    Which of the following is a valid Class A address?
    • A. 

      127.10.0.1 255.0.0.0

    • B. 

      126.10.0.1 255.0.0.0

    • C. 

      128.10.0.0 255.0.0.0

    • D. 

      191.10.1 255.0.0.0


  • 101. 
    Which of the following is a Class C network address?
    • A. 

      10.10.10.0 255.255.255.0

    • B. 

      192.255.254.0 255.255.255.0

    • C. 

      128.0.0.0 255.255.0.0

    • D. 

      127.0.0.1 255.255.255.0


  • 102. 
    Which of the following describes a broadcast address?
    • A. 

      All network bits are on (1s)

    • B. 

      All network bits are off (0s)

    • C. 

      All host bits are off (0s)

    • D. 

      All host bits are on (1s)


  • 103. 
    How many valid host addresses are in each subnet of 192.168.100.99/25

  • 104. 
    In a class C IP address, how long is a network address?
    • A. 

      16 bits

    • B. 

      24 bits

    • C. 

      32 bits

    • D. 

      8 bits


  • 105. 
    Write the broadcast address for 192.168.100.99/25

  • 106. 
    A network administrator uses a straight-through cable connecting Host A (IP address 192.168.1.20 Mask 255.255.255.240) and Host B (IP address 192.168.1.201 Mask 255.255.240) directly through their Ethernet interfaces. Ping attempts between Host A and Host B are unsuccessful. What 2 things can be done to provide connectivity between the hosts?
    • A. 

      The subnet masks should be set to 255.255.255.192

    • B. 

      A rollover cable should be used in place of the straight-through cable

    • C. 

      A crossover cable should be used in place of the straight-through cable

    • D. 

      A default gateway needs to be set on each host

    • E. 

      The subnet masks should be set to 255.255.255.0


  • 107. 
    You have an interface on a router with the IP address of 192.168.192.10/29. Including the router interface, how many hosts can have IP addresses on the LAN attached to that router interface?
    • A. 

      62

    • B. 

      8

    • C. 

      30

    • D. 

      6

    • E. 

      126


  • 108. 
    Which of the following is true when describing a unicast address?
    • A. 

      These addresses are meant for nonrouting purposes, but they are almost globally unique so it is unlikely they will have an address overlap

    • B. 

      These are like private addresses in IPv4 in that they are not meant to be routed

    • C. 

      Packets addressed to a unicast address are delivered to a single interface

    • D. 

      These are your typical publicly routable addresses, just like regular publicity routable addresses in IPv4


  • 109. 
    You receive a call from a user that is complaining that they cannot get on the Internet. You have them verify their IP address, mask, and default gateway. The IP address is 104.0.37.144 with a subnet mask of 255.255.254.0. The default gateway is 104.0.38.1. What is the problem?
    • A. 

      Invalid subnet mask

    • B. 

      IP address and mask are not compatible

    • C. 

      Invalid IP address

    • D. 

      Gateway IP is incorrect


  • 110. 
    Which of the following protocols uses both TCP and UDP?
    • A. 

      SMTP

    • B. 

      FTP

    • C. 

      Telnet

    • D. 

      DNS


  • 111. 
    What is the valid range of values that may appear in an IPv4 octet? Give your answer in decimal as well as binary

  • 112. 
    A host uses the _______ address to decide whether or not to read in a frame from the media (wire) and pass it up. It uses the _____ address to decide if the message is meant for it, and the ______ address to decide which process should get the message.
    • A. 

      MAC, IP, Port

    • B. 

      IP, MAC, Port

    • C. 

      Port, IP, Mac


  • 113. 
    Which device does not aid in network segmentation?
    • A. 

      Router

    • B. 

      Switch

    • C. 

      Hub

    • D. 

      Bridge


  • 114. 
    What effect will an inappropriate DHCP server have on hosts using static IP addresses?

  • 115. 
    If you can ping by IP address but not by hostname or URL, which of the following is related to the problem?
    • A. 

      Subnet mask

    • B. 

      UDP

    • C. 

      TCP

    • D. 

      DNS

    • E. 

      Default gateway address


  • 116. 
    What gives IPv6 the ability to reference more hosts than IPv4?

  • 117. 
    What is an advantage of using DHCP in a network environment?
    • A. 

      Static IP addressing

    • B. 

      More difficult administration of the network

    • C. 

      Can send an operating system for the PC to boot from

    • D. 

      Assigns IP address to hosts


  • 118. 
    What is a benefit of a layer 3 switch over a layer 2 switch?
    • A. 

      Less bandwidth

    • B. 

      Routing functions

    • C. 

      More ports

    • D. 

      Fewer features


  • 119. 
    What does the IP Properties selection "Optain an IP address Automatically" indicate?
    • A. 

      Use IPv4

    • B. 

      Use DHCP

    • C. 

      Use DNS

    • D. 

      Use static IP address

    • E. 

      Use default gateway


  • 120. 
    When a host gets its IP address and subnet mask, it derrives the default gateway's IP address by determining what is the first valid host address in the same subnet
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 121. 
    What is the name for a 48-bit (6 byte) numerical address physically assigned to a network interface, such as a NIC?

  • 122. 
    What two statements about IPv6 addresses are true? Choose 2
    • A. 

      Two colons (::) are used to represent successive hexadecimal fields of zeros

    • B. 

      A single interface can have multiple IPv6 addresses of different types

    • C. 

      Two colons (::) are used to separate fields

    • D. 

      Leading zeros are required


  • 123. 
    Users arrive at the office after a weekend and the hosts that were shut down over the weekend are restarted but can't access the LAN or the internet. Hosts that were not shut down are working fine. Where can the problem be?
    • A. 

      DNS server

    • B. 

      DHCP server

    • C. 

      Firewall

    • D. 

      Proxy Server


  • 124. 
    What does a NAT (or stateful inspection) firewall mainly look at to decide whether to allow a packet in or to block it?

  • 125. 
    What two statements abotu IPv4 and IPv6 addresses are true? Chose 2
    • A. 

      An IPv4 address is 32 bits long, represented in decimal

    • B. 

      An IPv6 address is 32 bits long, represented in hexadecimal

    • C. 

      An IPv6 address is 128 bits long, represented in hexadecimal

    • D. 

      An IPv6 address is 128 bits long, represented in decimal


  • 126. 
    With PAT (Port Address Translation), why does the PAT gateway also replace the TCP/UDP source port number?

  • 127. 
    This layer supports flow control and sequencing:
    • A. 

      Transport

    • B. 

      Network

    • C. 

      Session


  • 128. 
    Logical addressing is used at this layer:
    • A. 

      Transport

    • B. 

      Data link

    • C. 

      Network


  • 129. 
    Hardware addresses are defined at this layer:
    • A. 

      Application

    • B. 

      Network

    • C. 

      Data Link


  • 130. 
    This device creates many smaller collision domains, but the network is still one large broadcast domain
    • A. 

      Port

    • B. 

      Switch

    • C. 

      Hub

    • D. 

      IP


  • 131. 
    This device can never run full duplex
    • A. 

      Hub

    • B. 

      Switch

    • C. 

      Port


  • 132. 
    This device breaks up collision domains and broadcast domains
    • A. 

      Router

    • B. 

      Switch

    • C. 

      Port


  • 133. 
    This identifies the application the message is for
    • A. 

      Switch

    • B. 

      IP

    • C. 

      Port


  • 134. 
    This identifies the end host the message is for
    • A. 

      IP

    • B. 

      MAC

    • C. 

      Network


  • 135. 
    What is the subnetwork address for a host with the IP address 200.10.5.68/28
    • A. 

      200.10.5.32

    • B. 

      200.10.5.56

    • C. 

      200.10.5.0

    • D. 

      200.10.5.64


  • 136. 
    What is the 127.0.0.1 address used for?

  • 137. 
    In order for a router to handle a request, it must be sent to the routers MAC address, not its IP address
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 138. 
    You enter the command "ping www.conestogac.on.ca" into a command prompt and get the response "Ping request could not find host rr.conestogac.on.ca.". However, if you ping the server's IP address, you get a reply. What is likely the problem?
    • A. 

      The server's web service is down

    • B. 

      Your connection to the internet is down

    • C. 

      You have a valid DNS address

    • D. 

      You have an invalid default gateway address

    • E. 

      Your default gateway is set not to respond to ping requests


  • 139. 
    Your host is sending a message with 80 as the destination port address. What service are you trying to access on the destination host?
    • A. 

      DHCP

    • B. 

      DNS

    • C. 

      HTTPS

    • D. 

      ARP

    • E. 

      HTTP


  • 140. 
    Which device by default does NOT forward any broadcast or multicast packets
    • A. 

      Repeater

    • B. 

      Hub

    • C. 

      Router

    • D. 

      Switch


  • 141. 
    Which of the following allows a server to distinguish among different simultaneous requests from the same host?
    • A. 

      The MAC address for each one is unique

    • B. 

      They have different port numbers

    • C. 

      A NAT server changes the IP address for subsequent requests

    • D. 

      A server is unable to accept multiple simultaneous sessions from the same host. One session must end before another can begin


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