Microbiology Quiz1

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Microbiology Quizzes & Trivia

  
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  • 1. 
    When humans manipulate the genes of microorganisms the process is called:
    • A. 

      A. Bioremediation

    • B. 

      B. Genetic engineering

    • C. 

      C. Epidemiology

    • D. 

      D. Immunology

    • E. 

      E. Taxonomy


  • 2. 
    Which of the following is not considered a microorganism?
    • A. 

      A. Mosquito

    • B. 

      B. Protozoa

    • C. 

      C. Bacteria

    • D. 

      D. Viruses

    • E. 

      E. Fungi


  • 3. 
    The study of the immune response to infection caused by microorganisms is         
    • A. 

      A. Hypersensitivity

    • B. 

      B. Epidemiology

    • C. 

      C. Immunology

    • D. 

      D. Morbidity

    • E. 

      E. Geomicrobiology


  • 4. 
    The microorganisms that recycle nutrients by breaking down dead matter and wastes are called:
    • A. 

      A. Decomposers

    • B. 

      B. Prokaryotes

    • C. 

      C. Pathogens

    • D. 

      D. Eukaryotes

    • E. 

      E. Fermenters


  • 5. 
    The microorganisms that do not have a nucleus in their cells are called     
    • A. 

      A. Decomposers

    • B. 

      B. Prokaryotes

    • C. 

      C. Pathogens

    • D. 

      D. Eukaryotes

    • E. 

      E. Fermenters


  • 6. 
    The Dutch merchant who made and used quality magnifying lenses to see and record microorganisms was         
    • A. 

      A. Francesco Redi

    • B. 

      B. Antonie van Leeuwenhoek

    • C. 

      C. Louis Pasteur

    • D. 

      D. Joseph Lister

    • E. 

      E. Robert Koch


  • 7. 
    The surgeon who advocated using disinfectants on hands and in the air prior to surgery was         
    • A. 

      A. Joseph Lister

    • B. 

      B. Ignaz Semmelweis

    • C. 

      C. Robert Koch

    • D. 

      D. Louis Pasteur

    • E. 

      E. Antonie van Leeuwenhoek


  • 8. 
    The term sterile means free of all life forms.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 9. 
    Microbes have been found existing in salty, acidic lakes.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 10. 
    What discovery was crucial to the founding of the field of microbiology?  
    • A. 

      A) Isolation of lepers limiting the spread of infectious disease

    • B. 

      B) Agglutination of bacteria in immune serum

    • C. 

      C) The chemical composition of DNA, the genetic material

    • D. 

      D) The development of ground optical lenses that allowed for the direct observation of microbes


  • 11. 
    The English scientist Robert Hooke coined the term cell because the small boxes he saw in the microscope reminded him of a monk’s room.  What is the cell theory that was later proposed?
    • A. 

      A) cells are fundamental units of life

    • B. 

      B) replication requires the division of cells into two equal cells

    • C. 

      C) hereditary information is passed on in the form of DNA

    • D. 

      D) all organisms are unicellular, made up of one cell


  • 12. 
    The first person to use a microscope to observe living cells was
    • A. 

      A) Robert Hooke

    • B. 

      B) Matthias Schleiden

    • C. 

      C) Anton van Leeuwenhoek

    • D. 

      D) Louis Pasteur


  • 13. 
    The curve in Pasteur's swan neck flasks was important because
    • A. 

      A) It prevented flies from escaping the flask

    • B. 

      B) It allowed only warm air to reach the infusion

    • C. 

      C) It trapped microbes that otherwise would have entered the flask

    • D. 

      D) It prevented oxygen from reaching organisms inside the flask


  • 14. 
    A pure culture refers to  
    • A. 

      A) a culture containing bacteria that all have the same shape

    • B. 

      B) a culture which has never been used to inoculate a patient

    • C. 

      C) a culture which causes only a single disease

    • D. 

      D) a culture which contains only a single type of organism


  • 15. 
    Disease causing agents account for about        _______    % of all microorganisms
    • A. 

      A) 99%

    • B. 

      B) 1%

    • C. 

      C) 10%

    • D. 

      D) 5%

    • E. 

      E) 75%


  • 16. 
    Prions are infectious agents composed of
    • A. 

      A) DNA

    • B. 

      B) RNA

    • C. 

      C) Proteins

    • D. 

      D) DNA and Proteins

    • E. 

      E) DNA and RNA


  • 17. 
    Bifidobacteria and Lactobacillus acidophillus are commonly used to produce
    • A. 

      A) Recombinant insulin

    • B. 

      B) Yogurt

    • C. 

      C) Wine

    • D. 

      D) Penicillin


  • 18. 
    An extremophillic bacterium used in “Bioremediation” is
    • A. 

      A) Neisseria gohorrhea

    • B. 

      B) Leuconostoc

    • C. 

      C) Chlamydia trachomatis

    • D. 

      D) Deinococcus radiodurans


  • 19. 
    Scientist that demonstrated that bacteria that spoiled food, beer and wine could be killed by short exposure to heat was
    • A. 

      A) Louis Pasteur

    • B. 

      B) Robert Koch

    • C. 

      C) Francesco Spanlanzani

    • D. 

      D) Theophrastus Phillipus Aureolus Bombastus van Hohenhiem


  • 20. 
    Aseptic technique was introduced by
    • A. 

      A) Ignaz Phillip Semmelwise

    • B. 

      B) Joseph Lister

    • C. 

      C) Louis Pasteur

    • D. 

      D) Antoine van Leuhenhook


  • 21. 
    Penicillin was discovered by
    • A. 

      A) Louis Pasteur

    • B. 

      B) Alexander Flemming

    • C. 

      C) Paul Erlich

    • D. 

      D) Robert Koch


  • 22. 
    A solution of pH 7 compared to a solution of pH 9
    • A. 

      A. Is more basic

    • B. 

      B. Has no OH- ions

    • C. 

      C. Has more H+ ions

    • D. 

      D. Has a higher pH

    • E. 

      E. All of the choices are correct


  • 23. 
    A solution of pH 7 compared to a solution of pH 9
    • A. 

      A. 2 times more acidic

    • B. 

      B. 20 times more acidic

    • C. 

      C. 20 times more basic

    • D. 

      D. 100 times more acidic

    • E. 

      E. 100 times more basic


  • 24. 
    Organic chemicals have a basic framework of the element_________bonded to other atoms.
    • A. 

      A. Carbon

    • B. 

      B. Nitrogen

    • C. 

      C. Oxygen

    • D. 

      D. Calcium


  • 25. 
    C6H12O6 + C6H12O6  à C12 H22O11 + H2O,  represents:
    • A. 

      A. Formation of a peptide bond

    • B. 

      B. A decomposition reaction

    • C. 

      C. Denaturation

    • D. 

      D. Formation of a polysaccharide

    • E. 

      E. Dehydration synthesis


  • 26. 
    The building blocks of an enzyme are 
    • A. 

      A. Nucleotides

    • B. 

      B. Glycerol and fatty acids

    • C. 

      C. Monosaccharides

    • D. 

      D. Phosphate, glycerol, fatty acids

    • E. 

      E. Amino acids


  • 27. 
    The Five I's of studying microorganisms include all of the following except
    • A. 

      A. Inoculation

    • B. 

      B. Incubation

    • C. 

      C. Infection

    • D. 

      D. Isolation

    • E. 

      E. Identification


  • 28. 
    The term that refers to the purposeful addition of microorganisms into a laboratory nutrient medium is
    • A. 

      A. Isolation

    • B. 

      B. Inoculation

    • C. 

      C. Immunization

    • D. 

      D. Infection

    • E. 

      E. Contamination


  • 29. 
    A pure culture contains
    • A. 

      A. Only one species of microorganism

    • B. 

      B. Only bacteria

    • C. 

      C. A variety of microbes from one source

    • D. 

      D. A variety of species from the same genus

    • E. 

      E. None of the choices are correct


  • 30. 
    The correct microbiological term for the tiny sample of specimen that is put ino a nutrient medium in order to produce a culture is the
    • A. 

      A. Colony

    • B. 

      B. Inoculum

    • C. 

      C. Streak

    • D. 

      D. Loop

    • E. 

      E. None of the choices are correct


  • 31. 
    Which of the following is essential for development of discrete, isolated colonies?   
    • A. 

      A. Broth medium

    • B. 

      B. Differential medium

    • C. 

      C. Selective medium

    • D. 

      D. Solid medium

    • E. 

      E. Assay medium


  • 32. 
    Which of the following will result when 1% to 5% agar is added to nutrient broth, boiled and cooled?
    • A. 

      A. A pure culture

    • B. 

      B. A mixed culture

    • C. 

      C. A solid medium

    • D. 

      D. A liquid medium

    • E. 

      E. A contaminated medium


  • 33. 
    Agar is an important component of media because
    • A. 

      A. Bacteria require agar to grow

    • B. 

      B. Agar inhibits mold growth

    • C. 

      C. Agar provides a solid surface for bacterial growth

    • D. 

      D. Agar prevents contamination

    • E. 

      E. All of the choices are correct


  • 34. 
    Which of the following is not an inoculating tool?
    • A. 

      A. Petri dish

    • B. 

      B. Loop

    • C. 

      C. Needle

    • D. 

      D. Pipette

    • E. 

      E. Swab


  • 35. 
    Agar is a complex polysaccharide that comes from a/an
    • A. 

      A. Green plant

    • B. 

      B. Fungus

    • C. 

      C. Mold

    • D. 

      D. Algae

    • E. 

      E. Euglena


  • 36. 
    A nutrient medium that has all of its chemical components identified and their precise concentrations known and reproducible, would be termed
    • A. 

      A. Complex

    • B. 

      B. Reducing

    • C. 

      C. Enriched

    • D. 

      D. Synthetic

    • E. 

      E. None of the choices are correct


  • 37. 
    Which type of medium is able to distinguish different species or types of microorganisms based on an observable change in the colonies or in the medium?
    • A. 

      A. Differential

    • B. 

      B. Selective

    • C. 

      C. Enumeration

    • D. 

      D. Enriched

    • E. 

      E. Reducing


  • 38. 
    The _____ of the microscope holds and allows selection of the objective lenses.
    • A. 

      A. Stage

    • B. 

      B. Condenser

    • C. 

      C. Objective

    • D. 

      D. Ocular

    • E. 

      E. Nosepiece


  • 39. 
    Which of the following will converge light rays to a single focal point on the specimen?
    • A. 

      A. Ocular lens

    • B. 

      B. Objective lens

    • C. 

      C. Iris diaphragm

    • D. 

      D. Condenser

    • E. 

      E. Nosepiece


  • 40. 
    Which of the following magnifies the specimen to produce the real image of the specimen?
    • A. 

      A. Condenser

    • B. 

      B. Objective lens

    • C. 

      C. Ocular lens

    • D. 

      D. Body

    • E. 

      E. Nosepiece


  • 41. 
    Which of the following magnifies the specimen to produce the virtual image of the specimen?
    • A. 

      A. Objective lens

    • B. 

      B. Ocular lens

    • C. 

      C. Condenser

    • D. 

      D. Body

    • E. 

      E. Iris diaphragm


  • 42. 
    Which of the following controls the amount of light entering the specimen?
    • A. 

      A. Objective lens

    • B. 

      B. Ocular lens

    • C. 

      C. Condenser

    • D. 

      D. Body

    • E. 

      E. Iris diaphragm


  • 43. 
    If a microbiologist is studying a specimen at a total magnification of 950X, what is the magnifying power of the objective lens if the ocular lens is 10X?
    • A. 

      A. 100X

    • B. 

      B. 950X

    • C. 

      C. 85X

    • D. 

      D. 850X

    • E. 

      E. 95X


  • 44. 
    Magnification is achieved in a compound microscope through the initial magnification of the specimen by the _____ lens. This image is then projected to the _____ lens that will further magnify the specimen to form a virtual image received by the eye.
    • A. 

      A. Ocular, objective

    • B. 

      B. Scanning, objective

    • C. 

      C. Objective, ocular

    • D. 

      D. Ocular, oil

    • E. 

      E. None of the choices are correct


  • 45. 
    Which of the following characteristics refers to the microscope's ability to show two separate entities as separate and distinct?
    • A. 

      A. Resolving power

    • B. 

      B. Magnification

    • C. 

      C. Refraction

    • D. 

      D. All of the choices are correct

    • E. 

      E. None of the choices are correct


  • 46. 
    All of the following are diameters of cells that would be resolved in a microscope with a limit of resolution of 0.2µm except
    • A. 

      A. 0.2 µm

    • B. 

      B. 0.2 mm

    • C. 

      C. 0.1 µm

    • D. 

      D. 0.3 µm

    • E. 

      E. 2.0 µm


  • 47. 
    The wavelength of light used and the numerical aperture governs
    • A. 

      A. Illumination

    • B. 

      B. Resolution

    • C. 

      C. Magnification

    • D. 

      D. Size of the field

    • E. 

      E. All of the choices are correct


  • 48. 
    _____ has the same optical qualities as glass and thus prevents refractive loss of light as it passes from the slide to the objective lens.
    • A. 

      A. The scanning objective

    • B. 

      B. The oil objective

    • C. 

      C. The slide

    • D. 

      D. Immersion oil

    • E. 

      E. The ocular


  • 49. 
    Which type of microscope is the most widely used and shows cells against a bright background?
    • A. 

      A. Bright-field

    • B. 

      B. Dark-field

    • C. 

      C. Phase-contrast

    • D. 

      D. Fluorescence

    • E. 

      E. Electron


  • 50. 
    A confocal scanning optical microscope
    • A. 

      A. Uses ultraviolet light to form a specimen image

    • B. 

      B. Shows three-dimensional cell images from the cell surface to the middle of the cell

    • C. 

      C. Produces specimen images on electron micrographs

    • D. 

      D. Uses dyes that emit visible light when bombarded by ultraviolet rays

    • E. 

      E. Requires specimens to be stained


  • 51. 
    A confocal scanning optical microscope
    • A. 

      A. Uses a laser beam of light to form a specimen image

    • B. 

      B. Shows only the surface of the specimen

    • C. 

      C. Produces specimen images on electron micrographs

    • D. 

      D. Uses dyes that emit visible light when bombarded by ultraviolet rays

    • E. 

      E. Requires specimens to be stained


  • 52. 
    Which type of microscope does not use light in forming the specimen image?
    • A. 

      A. Bright-field

    • B. 

      B. Dark-field

    • C. 

      C. Phase-contrast

    • D. 

      D. Fluorescence

    • E. 

      E. Electron


  • 53. 
    Which type of microscope achieves the greatest resolution and highest magnification?
    • A. 

      A. Bright-field

    • B. 

      B. Dark-field

    • C. 

      C. Phase-contrast

    • D. 

      D. Fluorescence

    • E. 

      E. Electron


  • 54. 
    The purpose of staining cells on a microscope slide is to
    • A. 

      A. Kill them

    • B. 

      B. Secure them to the slide

    • C. 

      C. Enlarge the cells

    • D. 

      D. Add contrast in order to see them better

    • E. 

      E. See motility


  • 55. 
    The Gram staining procedure is best described as a __staining technique.
    • A. 

      A. Acid fast or Ziehl-Neelson

    • B. 

      B. Differential

    • C. 

      C. Capsule

    • D. 

      D. Schaefer-Fulton


  • 56. 
    Helminths are
    • A. 

      Bacteria

    • B. 

      Protozoa

    • C. 

      Molds

    • D. 

      Parasitic worms

    • E. 

      Infectious particles


  • 57. 
    When you streak for isolation techique, in which quadrant do you expect to see isolated colonies?
    • A. 

      First Quadrant

    • B. 

      Second Quadrant

    • C. 

      Third Quadrant

    • D. 

      Fourth Quadrant


  • 58. 
    A pure culture refers to
    • A. 

      A culture containing bacteria that all have the same shape

    • B. 

      A culture which has never been used to inoculate a patient

    • C. 

      A culture which causes only a single disease

    • D. 

      A culture which contains only a single type of organism


  • 59. 
    An example of a biological insecticide is 
    • A. 

      Bacillus anthracis

    • B. 

      Bacillus cereus

    • C. 

      Bacillus thruingiensis israeliensis

    • D. 

      Bacillus subtillis


  • 60. 
    The three physical forms of laboratory media are
    • A. 

      Solid, liquid, gas

    • B. 

      Solid, semisolid, liquid

    • C. 

      Streak plate, pour plate, broth

    • D. 

      Aerobic, anaerobic, micro aerobic

    • E. 

      None of the choices are correct


  • 61. 
    A fat is called ________ if all carbons of the fatty acid chain are single bonded to 2 other carbons and 2 hydrogens.
    • A. 

      Unsaturated

    • B. 

      Polyunsaturated

    • C. 

      Monounsaturated

    • D. 

      Saturated

    • E. 

      None of the choices are correct


  • 62. 
    Gelatin is not used commonly to prepare solid media because
    • A. 

      Smells bad

    • B. 

      Gelatin can be degraded by gelatinase containing bacteria

    • C. 

      Can only be used to prepare slants

    • D. 

      Aerobic organisms don't like gelatin

    • E. 

      None of the choices are correct


  • 63. 
    What type of isolation technique learned in last week's laboratory is most effective to isolate pure cultures from mixed samples
    • A. 

      Pour plate

    • B. 

      Streak plate

    • C. 

      Spread plate

    • D. 

      Loop dilution

    • E. 

      Culture plate


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