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Microbiology Module 3

108 Questions
Microbiology Quizzes & Trivia
Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    The source of variation among microoragnism is
    • A. 

      antibiotic resistance antibiotic resistance

    • B. 

      Virulence factors

    • C. 

      Sigma factors

    • D. 

      Mutation

  • 2. 
    The properties of a cell which are determined by ita DNA composition are its
    • A. 

      Phenotype

    • B. 

      Genotype

    • C. 

      Metabolism

    • D. 

      Nucleoid

  • 3. 
    Which would have the least effect on the amino acid sequence?
    • A. 

      Substitution of 1 nucleotide

    • B. 

      Deletion of 2 consecutive nucleotide

    • C. 

      Addition of 1 nucleotide

    • D. 

      Addition deletion of 3 consecutive nucleotides

    • E. 

      Substitution of 1 nucleotide AND addition of 1 nucleotide

  • 4. 
    Segments of DNA capable of moving from one area in the DNA to another are called
    • A. 

      Base analogs

    • B. 

      Intercalating agents

    • C. 

      Transposons

    • D. 

      Palindromic sequences

  • 5. 
    Transposons
    • A. 

      Are informally known as jumping genes

    • B. 

      Cause insertion mutations

    • C. 

      Cause knockout mutations

    • D. 

      Were first recognized as plants

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct

  • 6. 
    Chemical mutagens often act by altering the
    • A. 

      Alkyl groups of nitrogen bases

    • B. 

      Nitrogen base sequence

    • C. 

      Number of binding sites on the nitrogen bases

    • D. 

      Hydrogen bonding properties of the nitrogen bases

  • 7. 
    The largest group of chemical mutagens consists of
    • A. 

      Radiation

    • B. 

      Base analogs

    • C. 

      Nitrous acid

    • D. 

      Alkylating agents

  • 8. 
    Nitrous acid most often frequently causes mutations by
    • A. 

      Substituting oxygen for hydrogen bonds

    • B. 

      Converting keto groups to amino groups

    • C. 

      Altering the bonding ratios of nitrogen bases

    • D. 

      Converting cytosine to uracil

  • 9. 
    Irradiation of cells with ultraviolet light may cause
    • A. 

      4 nucleotide to covalently bond together

    • B. 

      Thymine dymers

    • C. 

      Adenine complementary base pairing with cytosine

    • D. 

      The addition of uracil

  • 10. 
    The formation of a covalent bond between two adjacent thymines is caused by
    • A. 

      Mustard gas

    • B. 

      Alkylating agents

    • C. 

      Microwave radiation

    • D. 

      UV radiation

  • 11. 
    X-rays
    • A. 

      Have no effect on DNA

    • B. 

      Cause thymine trimers

    • C. 

      Cause single and double strand breaks

    • D. 

      Make the DNA radioactive

  • 12. 
    DNA repair mechanisms occur
    • A. 

      Only in prokaryotes

    • B. 

      Only in eukaryotes

    • C. 

      In both eukaryotes and prokaryotes

    • D. 

      In neither eukaryotes or prokaryotes

  • 13. 
    Which is not true about mismatch repair?
    • A. 

      It utilizes an endonuclease

    • B. 

      It requires DNA polymerase and DNA ligase

    • C. 

      It utilizes the state of methylation of the DNA to differentiate between strands

    • D. 

      It removes both strands in the mismatch area

  • 14. 
    Mutations
    • A. 

      May occur spontaneously

    • B. 

      Occuring at one gene are often coupled to mutation of another gene

    • C. 

      Are more likely to be killed by using antibiotics

    • D. 

      Are always harmful

    • E. 

      May occur spontaneously AND are more likely to be killed by using 2 antibiotics

  • 15. 
    Prokaryotic cell mutations can be observed very quickly because the prokaryotic chromosome is
    • A. 

      Diploid

    • B. 

      Polyploid

    • C. 

      Haploid

    • D. 

      Polysomal

  • 16. 
    The diploid character of euakryotic cells may mask the appearance of a mutation since
    • A. 

      The diploid may be a frame shift

    • B. 

      The mutation is often reversible

    • C. 

      The mutation maybe palindromic

    • D. 

      The matching chromosome may carry the dominant gene

  • 17. 
    Direct selection involves inoculating cells onto growth media on which
    • A. 

      The mutant but not the parental will grow

    • B. 

      The mutation will be reversed

    • C. 

      The nutrients necessary for mutation to occur are present

    • D. 

      The mutagen is present

  • 18. 
    Among the easiest of the mutations to isolate are those which
    • A. 

      Involve the haploid chromosome

    • B. 

      Involve antibiotic resistance

    • C. 

      Allow poplulation to be measured

    • D. 

      Use an indirect method for measurement

    • E. 

      Involve haploid chromosomes AND involve antibiotic resistance

  • 19. 
    Bacteria that have the properties of both the donor and recipient cells are the result of
    • A. 

      UV light

    • B. 

      SOS repair

    • C. 

      Frame shift mutation

    • D. 

      Genetic recombination

  • 20. 
    The mechanism by which genes are transferred into bacteria via viruses is called
    • A. 

      Ellipsis

    • B. 

      Replica plating

    • C. 

      Transformation

    • D. 

      Transduction

    • E. 

      Conjugation

  • 21. 
    In conjugation the donor cell is recognized by the presence of
    • A. 

      An F plasmid

    • B. 

      A Y chromosome

    • C. 

      Diplod chromosome

    • D. 

      An SOS response

    • E. 

      An F plasmid AND diploid chromosomes

  • 22. 
    The F plamid carries the information for
    • A. 

      Antibiotic resistance

    • B. 

      Recipient cell DNA replication

    • C. 

      The Y chromosome

    • D. 

      The sex pilus

    • E. 

      Antibiotic resistance AND the Y chromosome

  • 23. 
    Competent cells
    • A. 

      Are able to take up naked DNA

    • B. 

      Are antibiotic resistant

    • C. 

      Occur naturally

    • D. 

      Can be created in the laboratory

    • E. 

      Are able to take up naked DNA, occur naturally AND can be created in the laboratory

  • 24. 
    The material responsible for transformation was shown to be DNA by
    • A. 

      Watson and Crick

    • B. 

      Avery, MacLeod and McCarty

    • C. 

      Lederberg

    • D. 

      Stanley

  • 25. 
    In conjugation,transformation, or transduction, the recipient bacteria will take donor DNA
    • A. 

      From any source

    • B. 

      From any species of bacteria

    • C. 

      From the same species of bacteria

    • D. 

      Only through plasmids

    • E. 

      From any source AND only through plasmid

  • 26. 
    Gene tranfer that requires cell-to-cell contact is
    • A. 

      Transformation

    • B. 

      Competency

    • C. 

      Conjugation

    • D. 

      Functional genomics

  • 27. 
    Which is not true about a crown gall tumor?
    • A. 

      It is a bacterial infection of plants

    • B. 

      It requires a plasmid

    • C. 

      It produces a large amount of opines that neither the plant nor bacteria synthesizes

    • D. 

      It is due to the incorporation of bacterial plasmid DNA into the plant chromosome

    • E. 

      E) All of the choices are true

  • 28. 
    The study of the crown gall tumor found
    • A. 

      A bacterila plasmid promoter that was similar to plant promoters

    • B. 

      An R plasmid

    • C. 

      Incorporation of the bacterial chromosome into the plant

    • D. 

      Incorporation of the plant chromosome into the bacteria

  • 29. 
    An early attempt by Cohn at bacterial classification grouped bacteria according to their
    • A. 

      Biochemistry

    • B. 

      Gram Stain

    • C. 

      Shape

    • D. 

      Arrangement

  • 30. 
    In 1908 Orla-Jensen suggested that bacteria be grouped according to their
    • A. 

      Arrangement

    • B. 

      Morphology

    • C. 

      Physiology

    • D. 

      Gram Stain

  • 31. 
    In the 1930's Kluyver and van Niel proposed a classification scheme based on
    • A. 

      Gram reactions

    • B. 

      Biochemical relationships

    • C. 

      Presumed evolutionary relationships

    • D. 

      DNA sequencing

  • 32. 
    In 1970 Stanier proposed that classification be based on
    • A. 

      Evolution

    • B. 

      Gram stain

    • C. 

      Physiology

    • D. 

      DNA sequence

  • 33. 
    Woese
    • A. 

      Was involved in determining rRNA sequences

    • B. 

      Proposed breaking prokaryotes into two groups

    • C. 

      Proposed breaking eukaryotes into Archaea and Bacteria.

    • D. 

      Was involved in refining the Gram stain for classification purposes

    • E. 

      Was involved in determining rRNA sequences AND proposed breaking prokaryotes into two groups.

  • 34. 
    Which technique(s) is/are used to help identify and classify bacteria?
    • A. 

      Microscopic examination

    • B. 

      Culture characteristics

    • C. 

      Biochemical tests

    • D. 

      Nucleic acid analysis

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.

  • 35. 
    From most general to most specific, which is the correct order?
    • A. 

      Phylum, class, kingdom, order, family, genus, species

    • B. 

      Kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, species

    • C. 

      Kingdom, phylum, family, class, order, genus, species

    • D. 

      Kingdom, order, family, genus, phylum, class, species

  • 36. 
    The basic taxonomic unit in the classification scheme of all living things is
    • A. 

      Kingdom

    • B. 

      Class

    • C. 

      Order

    • D. 

      Genus

    • E. 

      Species

  • 37. 
    The three domain classification scheme uses
    • A. 

      Order, phylum, class

    • B. 

      Plants, animal, bacteria

    • C. 

      Plants, animal, bacteria

    • D. 

      Archea, Bacteria, Euacarya

  • 38. 
    The name Lactococcus (Streptococcus) lactis
    • A. 

      Indicates that the subgenus is Streptococcus.

    • B. 

      Indicates that the family is Lactococcus.

    • C. 

      Indicates that Streptococcus is the old genus name

    • D. 

      Indicates that Lactococcus is the old class name

  • 39. 
    Very often clinically relevant information examining may be obtained by
    • A. 

      A wet mount

    • B. 

      The size and shape of the organism

    • C. 

      The sequence of proteins.

    • D. 

      The transformation ability.

    • E. 

      A wet mount AND the size and shape of the organism.

  • 40. 
    Gram-positive encapsulated diplococci found in sputum is indicative of
    • A. 

      E. coli.

    • B. 

      Pseudomonas

    • C. 

      Streptococcus pneumoniae

    • D. 

      Neisseria gonorrhea

  • 41. 
    Intracellular Gram-negative diplococci found in a urethral sample from a male is indicative of
    • A. 

      E. coli

    • B. 

      )Pseudomonas

    • C. 

      Streptococcus pneumoniae

    • D. 

      Neisseria gonorrhea

  • 42. 
    Mycobacterium tuberculosis is one of the few species of bacteria that
    • A. 

      Are encapsulated

    • B. 

      Stain Gram-negative

    • C. 

      Are acid fast

    • D. 

      Stain Gram positive

  • 43. 
    A selective growth medium
    • A. 

      Allows only certain bacteria to grow

    • B. 

      Allows all bacteria to grow

    • C. 

      Allows no bacteria to grow

    • D. 

      Accentuates difference between the growing bacteria

  • 44. 
    Streptococcus pyogenes would be
    • A. 

      Beta hemolytic and catalase negative

    • B. 

      Beta hemolytic and catalase positive

    • C. 

      Alpha hemolytic and catalase negative.

    • D. 

      Alpha hemolytic and catalase positive

  • 45. 
    Media that changes color as a result of the biochemical activity of growing bacteria
    • A. 

      Usually contain a pH indicator in the media.

    • B. 

      Usually contain blood

    • C. 

      Usually require the addition of various reagents before the color is evident.

    • D. 

      Is due to a breakdown of a colorless reagent.

  • 46. 
    A breath test assaying for radioactive carbon dioxide may be used to indicate the presence of
    • A. 

      E. coli

    • B. 

      Pseudomonas

    • C. 

      C)Streptococcus pyogenes

    • D. 

      Helicobacter pylori

  • 47. 
    APITM, EnterotubeTM and VitekTM are all
    • A. 

      Methods for extracting DNA from bacteria

    • B. 

      Used to measure gas production

    • C. 

      Commercially available methods used to identify bacteria

    • D. 

      Used to show the presence of bacteria in a sample

  • 48. 
    Serological methods
    • A. 

      Are useful in identifying unknown bacterium.

    • B. 

      Rely on the specificity of an antibody-antigen interaction

    • C. 

      May be simple and rapid

    • D. 

      All of the choices are correct

  • 49. 
    Nucleic acid techniques have great power as diagnostic tools because they may
    • A. 

      Very specific

    • B. 

      Quick and easy to perform

    • C. 

      Quick and easy to perform

    • D. 

      Used to selectively inhibit the growth of certain bacteria

  • 50. 
    DNA probes have been very useful in
    • A. 

      Coding the DNA of organisms grown in vivo

    • B. 

      Identifying organisms in pure culture.

    • C. 

      Detecting toxins

    • D. 

      Diagnosing diseases of protozoa

  • 51. 
    Organisms that grow very slowly, are non-culturable, are present in very small numbers or are mixed with a number of other bacteria may still be identified using
    • A. 

      Southern blotting

    • B. 

      Replica plating

    • C. 

      PCR.

    • D. 

      Gas chromatography of fatty acids

  • 52. 
    Which of the rRNA molecules has proven the most useful in taxonomy/identification?
    • A. 

      5S

    • B. 

      80S

    • C. 

      16S

    • D. 

      23S

  • 53. 
    Two isolates with identical RFLPs are considered
    • A. 

      The same strain

    • B. 

      Different strains

    • C. 

      Possibly the same strain.

    • D. 

      Different genera.

  • 54. 
    Strain differences are helpful in
    • A. 

      Replica plating

    • B. 

      Electrophoresis.

    • C. 

      Transformation

    • D. 

      Tracing the source of outbreaks of disease

  • 55. 
    Various strains of E. coli
    • A. 

      May cause disease

    • B. 

      May be harmless

    • C. 

      Are all exactly the same

    • D. 

      Are all very different from one another

    • E. 

      May cause disease AND may be harmless

  • 56. 
    E. coli 0157:H7
    • A. 

      Is Gram-positive

    • B. 

      Is a normal constituent of the intestinal tract

    • C. 

      Does not ferment sorbitol

    • D. 

      Produces a toxin

    • E. 

      E. does not ferment sorbitol AND produces a toxin

  • 57. 
    In E. coli O157:H7, the O157:H7 refers to the
    • A. 

      Specific type of DNA present.

    • B. 

      Specific genus

    • C. 

      General family.

    • D. 

      The specific LPS and flagella type present.

  • 58. 
    Phenotypically identical bacteria
    • A. 

      Look the same

    • B. 

      Are genetically exactly the same

    • C. 

      May be told apart by DNA sequence analysis

    • D. 

      May not be told apart by any means

    • E. 

      Look the same AND may be told apart by DNA sequence analysis

  • 59. 
    Phage typing
    • A. 

      Is useful for determining eukaryotic cell types

    • B. 

      Is used to extract DNA from cells.

    • C. 

      Is used to distinguish bacterial strains.

    • D. 

      Is dependent on the type of eukaryotic cell.

    • E. 

      Is used to distinguish bacterial strains AND is dependent on the type of eukaryotic cell

  • 60. 
    In higher organisms, successful mating can occur between members of the same
    • A. 

      Genus

    • B. 

      Species

    • C. 

      Class

    • D. 

      Order

  • 61. 
    The more closely related two organisms are,
    • A. 

      The less they look alike

    • B. 

      The more similar the nucleic acid sequence

    • C. 

      The less similar the nucleic acid sequence

    • D. 

      The more they are phenotypically similar

    • E. 

      The more similar the nucleic acid sequence AND the more they are phenotypically similar.

  • 62. 
    The point at which two organisms diverged from a common ancestor
    • A. 

      Can be determined by comparing the nucleic acid sequences

    • B. 

      Depends on translational control.

    • C. 

      Depends on metabolism

    • D. 

      Is determined on MacConkeys media

  • 63. 
    Modern approaches to evolutionary taxonomy often involve
    • A. 

      Biochemical differences.

    • B. 

      Comparison of DNA and RNA

    • C. 

      Protein similarities

    • D. 

      Lactose fermentation

  • 64. 
    If the GC content of two organisms is 45% in both
    • A. 

      They are definitely related

    • B. 

      They are definitely not related

    • C. 

      They may or may not be related

    • D. 

      The AT content is 65%.

    • E. 

      They are definitely related AND the AT content is 65%.

  • 65. 
    A DNA similarity of 75% between two organisms
    • A. 

      Suggests the organisms are very closely related at the species level

    • B. 

      Suggests the organisms are not related

    • C. 

      Suggests the organisms may or may not be related

    • D. 

      Means the GC content is 45%.

    • E. 

      Suggests the organisms are very closely related at the species level AND means the GC content is 45%

  • 66. 
    To study the phylogeny of eukaryotes
    • A. 

      16S rRNA is used

    • B. 

      34S rRNA is used

    • C. 

      80S rRNA is used

    • D. 

      18S rRNA is used.

  • 67. 
    Sequencing of rRNA is useful for
    • A. 

      Determining evolutionary relationships

    • B. 

      Determining protein sequences

    • C. 

      Identification of unknown bacteria

    • D. 

      Serological relationships

    • E. 

      Determining evolutionary relationships AND identification of unknown bacteria

  • 68. 
    The reference for taxonomic descriptions of bacteria is
    • A. 

      Gray's Anatomy

    • B. 

      Websters Manual of Taxonomic Bacteriology

    • C. 

      Bergey's Manual of Systematic Bacteriology

    • D. 

      Bacteriology.

  • 69. 
    Single-celled eukaryotic organisms that lack chlorophyll are called
    • A. 

      Algae

    • B. 

      Protozoa

    • C. 

      Chlorophyta

    • D. 

      Salmonella

  • 70. 
    Protozoan classification is based on their means of
    • A. 

      Locomotion.

    • B. 

      Growth.

    • C. 

      Reproduction

    • D. 

      Obtaining nutrients

  • 71. 
    Sarcodina move by means of
    • A. 

      Flagella.

    • B. 

      Apicomplexans

    • C. 

      Cilia.

    • D. 

      Pseudopodia.

  • 72. 
    Protozoans are an important part of the food chain ingesting large numbers of
    • A. 

      Fish

    • B. 

      Bacteria and algae.

    • C. 

      Shellfish.

    • D. 

      Other protozoans.

  • 73. 
    The ability to exist as either a trophozoite or a cyst is characteristic of many
    • A. 

      Fungi.

    • B. 

      Viruses.

    • C. 

      Protozoa.

    • D. 

      Bacteria.

  • 74. 
    Schizogony
    • A. 

      Means multiple fissions

    • B. 

      Is performed by bacteria

    • C. 

      Is performed by protozoa

    • D. 

      Is a form of reproduction

    • E. 

      Means multiple fissions AND is performed by protozoa

  • 75. 
    One of the greatest causes of human deaths through time has been due to
    • A. 

      Giardia spp..

    • B. 

      Histoplasma spp..

    • C. 

      Trypanosoma spp

    • D. 

      Plasmodium spp..

  • 76. 
    Most fungi are
    • A. 

      Aerobic or facultatively anaerobic

    • B. 

      Obligate anaerobes

    • C. 

      Obligate aerobes

    • D. 

      Microaerophiles

  • 77. 
    Fungi are particularly adept at infecting
    • A. 

      Protozoans

    • B. 

      Algae.

    • C. 

      Animals

    • D. 

      Plants.

  • 78. 
    The return of carbon dioxide to the atmosphere and nitrogen to the soil is due to the action of
    • A. 

      Viruses and plants

    • B. 

      Bacteria and viruses

    • C. 

      Fungi and bacteria.

    • D. 

      Fungi and viruses

  • 79. 
    All fungi have ______ in their cell walls
    • A. 

      Cellulose

    • B. 

      Pectin

    • C. 

      Peptidoglycan

    • D. 

      Chitin

  • 80. 
    Fungi are classified according to their
    • A. 

      Mode of locomotion

    • B. 

      Morphology.

    • C. 

      Mode of nutrition

    • D. 

      Method of sexual reproduction

  • 81. 
    The group of Fungi in which sexual reproduction has not been observed is
    • A. 

      Ascomycetes

    • B. 

      Deuteromycetes.

    • C. 

      Zygomycetes

    • D. 

      Basidiomycetes.

  • 82. 
    Deuteromycetes has been further classified using
    • A. 

      DNA probes

    • B. 

      RRNA analysis

    • C. 

      Southern blotting

    • D. 

      Replica plating

  • 83. 
    The terms yeast, mold, and mushrooms refers to fungal
    • A. 

      Reproduction

    • B. 

      Morphology

    • C. 

      Nutrition

    • D. 

      Parasites.

  • 84. 
    A tangle of fungal hyphae is generally known as a
    • A. 

      Bud

    • B. 

      Mycelium.

    • C. 

      Germ tube

    • D. 

      Spore.

  • 85. 
    Dimorphic fungi
    • A. 

      May grow as mycelia or yeast.

    • B. 

      Are often associated with disease in humans

    • C. 

      Are mushrooms

    • D. 

      Are strictly hyphae

    • E. 

      May grow as mycelia or yeast AND are often associated with disease in humans.

  • 86. 
    Fungal spores are a major cause of
    • A. 

      Anaerobic disease.

    • B. 

      Fermentation

    • C. 

      Food spoilage

    • D. 

      Asthma.

  • 87. 
    The pH at which most fungi thrive is
    • A. 

      3.0

    • B. 

      7.0.

    • C. 

      8.0

    • D. 

      5.0.

  • 88. 
    Fungi capable of dimorphism grow either as
    • A. 

      Rhizoids or hyphae

    • B. 

      Yeast-like or mycelium

    • C. 

      Germ tubes or buds

    • D. 

      Spores or mushrooms

  • 89. 
    Fungal diseases are generally referred to as
    • A. 

      Mycoses.

    • B. 

      Infections.

    • C. 

      Systemics.

    • D. 

      Infestations

  • 90. 
    The most necessary habitat requirement of protozoa is
    • A. 

      Moisture

    • B. 

      Light.

    • C. 

      Temperature

    • D. 

      UV light

  • 91. 
    Aflatoxins
    • A. 

      Are produced by Aspergillus

    • B. 

      Are possible carcinogens

    • C. 

      May be found in peanuts

    • D. 

      Are toxins

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct

  • 92. 
    Coccidiomycosis is
    • A. 

      A fungal disease

    • B. 

      A protozoal disease

    • C. 

      Caused by Coccidiodes sp..

    • D. 

      Caused by Candida sp..

    • E. 

      A fungal disease AND caused by Coccidiodes sp..

  • 93. 
    Lichens may be an association of
    • A. 

      Several different fungi

    • B. 

      Protozoa and bacteria

    • C. 

      Algae and fungus

    • D. 

      Virus and algae

  • 94. 
    Mycorrhizas
    • A. 

      Are vital for the survival of lichens

    • B. 

      Are vital for the survival of many plants.

    • C. 

      Increase the absorptive ability of roots

    • D. 

      Are used in the production of wine, beer and bread

    • E. 

      Are vital for the survival of many plants AND increase the absorptive ability of roots

  • 95. 
    Convergent evolution
    • A. 

      Explains the morphological similarity yet major genetic differences found between slime molds and fungi.

    • B. 

      Refers to two different organisms that develop similar characteristics in adaptation to similar environments.

    • C. 

      Explains the structure of lichens

    • D. 

      Refers to the one organism dividing into two.

    • E. 

      Explains the morphological similarity yet major genetic differences found between slime molds and fungi AND refers to two different organisms that develop similar characteristics in adaptation to similar environments.

  • 96. 
    When cellular slime molds run out of food, they form a
    • A. 

      Plasmodium

    • B. 

      Slug.

    • C. 

      Myxamoeba

    • D. 

      Rhizoid.

  • 97. 
    Lyme disease is transmitted by
    • A. 

      Ticks.

    • B. 

      Lice

    • C. 

      Mosquitoes

    • D. 

      Fleas

  • 98. 
    Pediculus humanus
    • A. 

      Only uses humans as a host

    • B. 

      Is carried by mosquitoes

    • C. 

      Only infects hands

    • D. 

      Can transmit a bacterial disease

    • E. 

      Only uses humans as a host AND can transmit a bacterial disease.

  • 99. 
    Lice and mites
    • A. 

      Are both arachnids

    • B. 

      May both be spread by personal contact

    • C. 

      Are intestinal parasites

    • D. 

      Cause Lyme disease

  • 100. 
    Nematodes
    • A. 

      Are roundworms

    • B. 

      Are found in the gastrointestinal tract or the blood

    • C. 

      Are carried by bacteria

    • D. 

      Have flat segmented bodies

    • E. 

      Are roundworms AND are found in the gastrointestinal tract or the blood

  • 101. 
    Tapeworms
    • A. 

      Have a complicated digestive system

    • B. 

      Do not have a digestive system

    • C. 

      May be transmitted by eating undercooked meat

    • D. 

      Have a larval stage known as a cercaria

    • E. 

      Do not have a digestive system AND may be transmitted by eating undercooked meat.

  • 102. 
    Which are not arthropods?
    • A. 

      Mosquitoes

    • B. 

      Fleas

    • C. 

      Lice

    • D. 

      Ticks

    • E. 

      Flukes

  • 103. 
    Sarcoptes scabiei
    • A. 

      Transmit bacterial disease.

    • B. 

      Are responsible for scabies

    • C. 

      Infect the blood

    • D. 

      Are transmitted by mosquitoes

  • 104. 
    Fleas
    • A. 

      If ingested, may transmit a tapeworm to children

    • B. 

      May transmit Yersinia pestis

    • C. 

      May transmit Lyme disease

    • D. 

      May transmit a toxin.

    • E. 

      If ingested, may transmit a tapeworm to children AND may transmit Yersinia pestis.

  • 105. 
    Haustoria
    • A. 

      Are a form of parasitic protozoan

    • B. 

      Refers to the reproductive structure formed by slime molds.

    • C. 

      Are specialized hyphae used by parasitic fungi

    • D. 

      Are the reproductive form of protozoans

  • 106. 
    Plant pathology grew in importance as a field of study after it was shown that the Irish potato blight was caused by
    • A. 

      Bacteria.

    • B. 

      Viruses

    • C. 

      Fungi.

    • D. 

      Amoeboid protozoa.

  • 107. 
    Fungi that are important for fermentation of fruits
    • A. 

      Are yeasts

    • B. 

      Are facultative anaerobes.

    • C. 

      Grow well at acid pH

    • D. 

      Secrete enzymes that degrade organic molecules.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct

  • 108. 
    Fungi are important in
    • A. 

      Food production

    • B. 

      Food spoilage

    • C. 

      Production of antibiotics

    • D. 

      Disease of plants

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct