Microbiology Midterm Review

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Microbiology Quizzes & Trivia
Practice test for the Microbiology Midterm.

  
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  • 1. 
    Disease-causing microorganisms are called
    • A. 

      Decomposers.

    • B. 

      Procaryotes.

    • C. 

      Pathogens.

    • D. 

      Eucaryotes.

    • E. 

      Fermenters.


  • 2. 
    The microorganisms that do not have a nucleus in their cells are called
    • A. 

      Decomposers.

    • B. 

      Procaryotes.

    • C. 

      Pathogens.

    • D. 

      Eucaryotes.

    • E. 

      Fermenters.


  • 3. 
    When humans manipulate the genes of microorganisms the process is called
    • A. 

      Bioremediation.

    • B. 

      Genetic engineering.

    • C. 

      Epidemiology.

    • D. 

      Immunology.

    • E. 

      Taxonomy.


  • 4. 
    Which of the following is not considered a microorganism?
    • A. 

      Mosquito

    • B. 

      Protozoa

    • C. 

      Bacteria

    • D. 

      Viruses

    • E. 

      Fungi


  • 5. 
    Which of the following is a unique characteristic of viruses that distinguishes them from the other major groups of microorganisms?
    • A. 

      Cause human disease

    • B. 

      Lack a nucleus

    • C. 

      Cannot be seen without a microscope

    • D. 

      Contain genetic material

    • E. 

      Lack cell structure


  • 6. 
    Pasteur used swan-neck flasks in his experiments to prove that
    • A. 

      Air had "vital forces" capable of spontaneous generation.

    • B. 

      Microbial fermentation could be used to make wine.

    • C. 

      Dust in air was a source of living microorganisms.

    • D. 

      Microorganisms could cause disease.

    • E. 

      Microorganisms could be grown in laboratory infusions.


  • 7. 
    Spontaneous generation is the belief that
    • A. 

      Germs cause infectious diseases.

    • B. 

      Microbes are diverse and ubiquitous.

    • C. 

      Microbes placed in an infusion can grow in it.

    • D. 

      Aseptic techniques reduce microbes in medical settings.

    • E. 

      Living things arise from nonliving matter.


  • 8. 
    Koch's postulates are criteria used to establish that
    • A. 

      Microbes are found on dust particles.

    • B. 

      A specific microbe is the cause of a specific disease.

    • C. 

      Life forms can only arise from preexisting life forms.

    • D. 

      A specific microbe should be classified in a specific kingdom.

    • E. 

      Microbes can be used to clean up toxic spills.


  • 9. 
    Which of the following is a scientific name?
    • A. 

      Bacteria

    • B. 

      Protista

    • C. 

      Species

    • D. 

      Bacillus subtilis

    • E. 

      Bacilli


  • 10. 
    The study of evolutionary relationships among organisms is called
    • A. 

      Biotechnology.

    • B. 

      Genetics.

    • C. 

      Recombinant DNA.

    • D. 

      Phylogeny.

    • E. 

      Taxonomy.


  • 11. 
    A scientist collects grass clippings to find the source of an outbreak of tularemia is an example of working in the field of
    • A. 

      Food microbiology.

    • B. 

      Epidemiology.

    • C. 

      Agricultural microbiology.

    • D. 

      Genetic engineering.

    • E. 

      Biotechnology.


  • 12. 
    Helminths are
    • A. 

      Bacteria.

    • B. 

      Protozoa.

    • C. 

      Molds.

    • D. 

      Parasitic worms.

    • E. 

      Infectious particles.


  • 13. 
    Organisms called parasites are
    • A. 

      Always classified in the kingdom Monera.

    • B. 

      Always harmful to their host.

    • C. 

      The decomposers in ecosystems.

    • D. 

      Always a virus.

    • E. 

      Free-living.


  • 14. 
    The surgeon who advocated using disinfectants on hands and in the air prior to surgery was
    • A. 

      Joseph Lister.

    • B. 

      Ignaz Semmelweis.

    • C. 

      Robert Koch.

    • D. 

      Louis Pasteur.

    • E. 

      Antonie van Leeuwenhoek.


  • 15. 
    Which of the following are the main decomposers of the earth?
    • A. 

      Bacteria and fungi

    • B. 

      Bacteria and viruses

    • C. 

      Algae and viruses

    • D. 

      Protists and fungi

    • E. 

      All organisms are decomposers


  • 16. 
    Which of the following diseases is transmitted by mosquitoes?
    • A. 

      Diarrheal diseases

    • B. 

      Tuberculosis

    • C. 

      Malaria

    • D. 

      Septicemia

    • E. 

      Influenza


  • 17. 
    All of the following are correct about prokaryotes except
    • A. 

      They are smaller than eukaryotes.

    • B. 

      They lack a nucleus.

    • C. 

      They are less complex than eukaryotes.

    • D. 

      They have organelles.

    • E. 

      They are found nearly everywhere.


  • 18. 
    Which of the following is the correct way to write the scientific name of this bacterium?
    • A. 

      Staph Aureus

    • B. 

      Staphylococcus Aureus

    • C. 

      Staphylococcus aureus

    • D. 

      Staphylococcus Aureus

    • E. 

      S. Aureus


  • 19. 
    Which of the following diseases probably involves microbial infection?
    • A. 

      Gastric ulcers

    • B. 

      Female infertility

    • C. 

      Coronary artery disease

    • D. 

      Cervical cancer

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.


  • 20. 
    The Five I's of studying microorganisms include all of the following except
    • A. 

      Inoculation.

    • B. 

      Incubation.

    • C. 

      Infection.

    • D. 

      Isolation.

    • E. 

      Identification.


  • 21. 
    All of the following are examples of different types of microbiological media except
    • A. 

      Broth.

    • B. 

      Enriched.

    • C. 

      Agar.

    • D. 

      Petri dish.

    • E. 

      Gelatin.


  • 22. 
    The term that refers to the purposeful addition of microorganisms into a laboratory nutrient medium is
    • A. 

      Isolation.

    • B. 

      Inoculation.

    • C. 

      Immunization.

    • D. 

      Infection.

    • E. 

      Contamination.


  • 23. 
    Which of the following is essential for development of discrete, isolated colonies?
    • A. 

      Broth medium

    • B. 

      Differential medium

    • C. 

      Selective medium

    • D. 

      Solid medium

    • E. 

      Assay medium


  • 24. 
    A microbiologist inoculates Staphylococcus aureus into a culture medium.  Following incubation, both Staphylococcus aureus and Staphylococcus epidermidis are determined to be growing in this culture.  What is the most likely explanation?
    • A. 

      The microbiologist used too much inoculum.

    • B. 

      The culture is contaminated.

    • C. 

      The incubation temperature was incorrect.

    • D. 

      The culture medium must be selective.

    • E. 

      The culture medium must be differential.


  • 25. 
    A microbiologist inoculates Staphylococcus epidermidis and Escherichia coli into a culture medium.  Following incubation, only the E. coli grows in the culture.  What is the most likely explanation?
    • A. 

      The microbiologist used too much inoculum.

    • B. 

      The culture is contaminated.

    • C. 

      The incubation temperature was incorrect.

    • D. 

      The culture medium must be selective.

    • E. 

      The culture medium must be differential.


  • 26. 
    Which method often results in colonies developing down throughout the agar and some colonies on the surface?
    • A. 

      Streak plate.

    • B. 

      Spread plate.

    • C. 

      Pour plate.

    • D. 

      All of the choices are correct.

    • E. 

      None of the choices are correct.


  • 27. 
    Which type of medium is able to distinguish different species or types of microorganisms based on an observable change in the colonies or in the medium?
    • A. 

      Differential

    • B. 

      Selective

    • C. 

      Enumeration

    • D. 

      Enriched

    • E. 

      Reducing


  • 28. 
    A microbiologist decides to use a nutrient medium that contains thioglycollic acid.  What type of microbe is she attempting to culture?
    • A. 

      Fastidious

    • B. 

      Gram positive

    • C. 

      Anaerobe

    • D. 

      Gram negative

    • E. 

      Virus


  • 29. 
    Which of the following characteristics refers to the microscope's ability to show two separate entities as separate and distinct?
    • A. 

      Resolving power

    • B. 

      Magnification

    • C. 

      Refraction

    • D. 

      All of the choices are correct.

    • E. 

      None of the choices are correct.


  • 30. 
    If a microbiologist is studying a specimen at a total magnification of 950X, what is the magnifying power of the objective lens is 10X?
    • A. 

      100X

    • B. 

      950X

    • C. 

      85X

    • D. 

      850X

    • E. 

      95X


  • 31. 
    The type of microscope in which you would see brightly illuminated specimens against a black background is
    • A. 

      Bright-field.

    • B. 

      Dark-field.

    • C. 

      Phase-contrast.

    • D. 

      Fluorescence.

    • E. 

      Electron.


  • 32. 
    This microscope achieves the greatest resolution and highest magnification:
    • A. 

      Bright-field

    • B. 

      Dark-field

    • C. 

      Phase-contrast

    • D. 

      Fluorescence

    • E. 

      Electron


  • 33. 
    Which is incorrect about chocolate agar?
    • A. 

      It can be used to cultivate Neisseria.

    • B. 

      It usually uses sheep blood that has been heated.

    • C. 

      It has chocolate extract in it.

    • D. 

      It is an enriched medium.

    • E. 

      It is used to grow fastidious bacteria.


  • 34. 
    The specimen preparation that is best for viewing cell motility is
    • A. 

      Hanging drop.

    • B. 

      Fixed stained smear.

    • C. 

      Gram stain.

    • D. 

      Negative stain.

    • E. 

      Flagellar stain.


  • 35. 
    The primary purpose of staining cells on a microscope slide is to
    • A. 

      Kill them.

    • B. 

      Secure them to the slide.

    • C. 

      Enlarge the cells.

    • D. 

      Add contrast in order to see them better.

    • E. 

      See motility.


  • 36. 
    A microbiologist makes a fixed smear of bacterial cells and stains them with Loeffler's methylene blue.  All the cells appear blue under the oil lens.  This is an example of
    • A. 

      Negative staining.

    • B. 

      Using an acidic dye.

    • C. 

      Simple staining.

    • D. 

      Using the acid-fast stain.

    • E. 

      Capsule staining.


  • 37. 
    Bacteria that require special growth factors and complex organic substances are called
    • A. 

      Fastidious.

    • B. 

      Pathogenic.

    • C. 

      Harmless.

    • D. 

      Anaerobic.

    • E. 

      Aerobic.


  • 38. 
    All of the following are correct about agar except
    • A. 

      It is flexible.

    • B. 

      It melts at the boiling point of water (100 degrees Celsius).

    • C. 

      It is a source of nutrition for bacteria.

    • D. 

      It solidifies below 42 degrees Celsius.

    • E. 

      It is solid at room temperature.


  • 39. 
    Spirochetes have a twisting and flexing locomotion due to appendages called
    • A. 

      Flagella.

    • B. 

      Cilia.

    • C. 

      Fimbriae.

    • D. 

      Periplasmic flagella (axial filaments).

    • E. 

      Sex pili.


  • 40. 
    The transfer of genes during bacterial conjugation involves rigid, tubular appendages called
    • A. 

      Flagella.

    • B. 

      Cilia.

    • C. 

      Fimbriae.

    • D. 

      Periplasmic flagella (axial filaments).

    • E. 

      Sex pili.


  • 41. 
    All bacterial cells have
    • A. 

      A chromosome.

    • B. 

      Fimbriae.

    • C. 

      Endospores.

    • D. 

      Capsules.

    • E. 

      Flagella.


  • 42. 
    The term that refers to the presence of flagella all over the cell surface is
    • A. 

      Amphitrichous.

    • B. 

      Atrichous.

    • C. 

      Lophotrichous.

    • D. 

      Monotrichous.

    • E. 

      Peritrichous.


  • 43. 
    A bacterial genus that has waxy mycolic acid in the cell walls is
    • A. 

      Mycobacterium.

    • B. 

      Mycoplasma.

    • C. 

      Streptococcus.

    • D. 

      Corynebacterium.

    • E. 

      Salmonella.


  • 44. 
    Which is mismatched?
    • A. 

      Ribosomes - protein synthesis

    • B. 

      Inclusions - excess cell nutrients and materials

    • C. 

      Plasmids - genes essential for growth and metabolism

    • D. 

      Nucleoid - hereditary material

    • E. 

      Cytoplasm - dense, gelatinous solution


  • 45. 
    The function of bacterial endospores is
    • A. 

      Convert gaseous nitrogen to a usable form for plants.

    • B. 

      Reproduction and growth.

    • C. 

      Protection of genetic material during harsh conditions.

    • D. 

      Storage of excess cell materials.

    • E. 

      Sites for photosynthesis.


  • 46. 
    Endospores are
    • A. 

      Metabolically inactive.

    • B. 

      Resistant to heat and chemical destruction.

    • C. 

      Resistant to destruction by radiation.

    • D. 

      Living structures.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.


  • 47. 
    Which term is not used to describe bacterial cell shapes?
    • A. 

      Coccus

    • B. 

      Tetrad

    • C. 

      Vibrio

    • D. 

      Rod

    • E. 

      Spirochete


  • 48. 
    When a rod shaped bacteria is short and plump, it is called a
    • A. 

      Spirochete.

    • B. 

      Pleomorphic.

    • C. 

      Vibrio.

    • D. 

      Coccobacillus.

    • E. 

      Spirillum.


  • 49. 
    What is the correct sequence for a Gram stain?
    • A. 

      Gram's iodine, crystal violet, alcohol, safranin

    • B. 

      Crystal violet, safranin, alcohol, Gram's iodine

    • C. 

      Crystal violet, Gram's iodine, alcohol, safranin

    • D. 

      Safranin, crystal violet, Gram's iodine, alcohol

    • E. 

      Alcohol, crystal violet, safranin, Gram's iodine


  • 50. 
    All of the following are correct about biofilms except
    • A. 

      They are cooperative associations among several microbial groups.

    • B. 

      They play an important role in recycling elements in the earth.

    • C. 

      They can colonize medical devices.

    • D. 

      An example could be the scum that builds up in toilet bowls.

    • E. 

      They are harmless aggregations of microbes.


  • 51. 
    Which cell structure is an important agent in modern genetic engineering techniques?
    • A. 

      Ribosomes

    • B. 

      Capsules

    • C. 

      Plasmids

    • D. 

      Inclusions

    • E. 

      Mesosomes


  • 52. 
    The outcome of the Gram stain is based on differences in the cell's
    • A. 

      Ribosomes.

    • B. 

      Inclusions.

    • C. 

      Cell wall.

    • D. 

      Cell membrane.

    • E. 

      Flagella.


  • 53. 
    The most immediate result of destruction of a cell's ribosomes would be
    • A. 

      Material would not be able to cross the cell membrane.

    • B. 

      Protein synthesis would stop.

    • C. 

      Destruction of the cell's DNA.

    • D. 

      Formation of glycogen inclusions.

    • E. 

      Loss of capsule.


  • 54. 
    A bacterial cell exhibiting chemotaxis probably has
    • A. 

      Fimbriae.

    • B. 

      Capsule.

    • C. 

      Mesosomes.

    • D. 

      Flagella.

    • E. 

      Metachromatic granules.


  • 55. 
    Peptidoglycan is a unique macromolecule found in bacterial
    • A. 

      Cell walls.

    • B. 

      Cell membranes.

    • C. 

      Capsules.

    • D. 

      Slime layers.

    • E. 

      Inclusions.


  • 56. 
    All of the following structures contribute to the ability of pathogenic bacteria to cause disease except
    • A. 

      Inclusions.

    • B. 

      Fimbriae.

    • C. 

      Capsule.

    • D. 

      Slime layer.

    • E. 

      Outer membrane of gram negative cell walls.


  • 57. 
    Viruses have all the following except
    • A. 

      Definite shape.

    • B. 

      Metabolism.

    • C. 

      Genes.

    • D. 

      Ability to infect host cells.

    • E. 

      Ultramicroscopic size.


  • 58. 
    Host cells of viruses include
    • A. 

      Human and other animals.

    • B. 

      Plants and fungi.

    • C. 

      Bacteria.

    • D. 

      Protozoa and algae.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.


  • 59. 
    The core of every virus particle always contains
    • A. 

      DNA.

    • B. 

      Capsomers.

    • C. 

      Enzymes.

    • D. 

      DNA and RNA.

    • E. 

      Either DNA or RNA.


  • 60. 
    Virus capsids are made from subunits called
    • A. 

      Envelopes.

    • B. 

      Spikes.

    • C. 

      Capsomeres.

    • D. 

      Prophages.

    • E. 

      Peplomers.


  • 61. 
    Helical and icosahedral are terms used to describe the shapes of a virus
    • A. 

      Spike.

    • B. 

      Capsomere.

    • C. 

      Envelope.

    • D. 

      Capsid.

    • E. 

      Core.


  • 62. 
    Which of the following is correct about viruses?
    • A. 

      Cannot be seen with a light microscope

    • B. 

      Are procaryotic

    • C. 

      Contain 70S ribosomes

    • D. 

      Undergo binary fission

    • E. 

      Can be grown on nutrient agar


  • 63. 
    Which of the following is not associated with every virus?
    • A. 

      Envelope

    • B. 

      Capsomers

    • C. 

      Capsid

    • D. 

      Nucleic acid

    • E. 

      Genome


  • 64. 
    These structures are used by bacteriophages to attach to host cell receptors
    • A. 

      Sheath.

    • B. 

      Tail fibers.

    • C. 

      Nucleic acid.

    • D. 

      Capsid head.

    • E. 

      None of the choices are correct.


  • 65. 
    The correct sequence of events in viral multiplication is
    • A. 

      Penetration, replication, maturation, adsorption, assembly, release.

    • B. 

      Replication, penetration, maturation, assembly, absorption, release.

    • C. 

      Adsorption, penetration, replication, maturation, assembly, release.

    • D. 

      Assembly, maturation, replication, release, penetration, adsorption.

    • E. 

      Adsorption, release, maturation, replication, assembly, penetration.


  • 66. 
    Viruses acquire envelopes around their nucleocapsids during
    • A. 

      Replication.

    • B. 

      Assembly.

    • C. 

      Adsorption.

    • D. 

      Release.

    • E. 

      Penetration.


  • 67. 
    Which of the following will not support viral cultivation?
    • A. 

      Live lab animals

    • B. 

      Embryonated bird eggs

    • C. 

      Primary cell cultures

    • D. 

      Continuous cell cultures

    • E. 

      Blood agar


  • 68. 
    Host range is limited by
    • A. 

      Type of nucleic acid in the virus.

    • B. 

      Age of the host cell.

    • C. 

      Type of host cell receptors on cell membrane.

    • D. 

      Size of the host cell.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.


  • 69. 
    The virus-induced, specific damage to the host cell that can be seen in a light microscope is called
    • A. 

      Lysogeny.

    • B. 

      Budding.

    • C. 

      Plaques.

    • D. 

      Cytopathic effects.

    • E. 

      Pocks.


  • 70. 
    Visible, clear, well-defined patches in a monolayer of virus-infected cells in a culture are called
    • A. 

      Lysogeny.

    • B. 

      Budding.

    • C. 

      Plaques.

    • D. 

      Cytopathic effects.

    • E. 

      Pocks.


  • 71. 
    Viruses that cause infection resulting in alternating periods of activity with symptoms and inactivity without symptoms are called
    • A. 

      Latent.

    • B. 

      Oncogenic.

    • C. 

      Prions.

    • D. 

      Viroids.

    • E. 

      Delta agents.


  • 72. 
    Infectious protein particles are called
    • A. 

      Viroids.

    • B. 

      Phages.

    • C. 

      Prions.

    • D. 

      Oncogenic viruses.

    • E. 

      Spikes.


  • 73. 
    Infectious naked strands of RNA are called
    • A. 

      Viroids.

    • B. 

      Phages.

    • C. 

      Prions.

    • D. 

      Oncogenic viruses.

    • E. 

      Spikes.


  • 74. 
    Creutzfeld-Jacob disease is
    • A. 

      Caused by a chronic latent virus.

    • B. 

      Initiated by an oncogenic virus.

    • C. 

      Caused by a viroid.

    • D. 

      A spongiform encephalopathy of humans.

    • E. 

      Also called "mad cow disease".


  • 75. 
    Satellite viruses are
    • A. 

      Also called viroids.

    • B. 

      Dependent on other viruses for replication.

    • C. 

      The cause of spongiform encephalopathies.

    • D. 

      Significant pathogens of plants.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.


  • 76. 
    All of the following is correct about treating viral diseases except
    • A. 

      Viruses are killed by the same antibiotics that kill bacteria.

    • B. 

      Many antiviral drugs block viral replication.

    • C. 

      Many antiviral drugs cause severe side effects.

    • D. 

      Interferons show potential for treating and preventing viral infections.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.


  • 77. 
    Protists include
    • A. 

      Yeasts and molds.

    • B. 

      Algae and protozoa.

    • C. 

      Helminths.

    • D. 

      All of the choices are correct.

    • E. 

      None of the choices are correct.


  • 78. 
    Eucaryotic flagella differ from procaryotic flagella because only eucaryotic flagella
    • A. 

      Are used for cell motility.

    • B. 

      Facilitate chemotaxis.

    • C. 

      Facilitate phototaxis.

    • D. 

      Are long whip-like structures.

    • E. 

      Contain microtubules.


  • 79. 
    Cilia are found in certain
    • A. 

      Protozoa.

    • B. 

      Algae.

    • C. 

      Fungi.

    • D. 

      Bacteria.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.


  • 80. 
    Chitin is a chemical component of the cell walls of
    • A. 

      Protozoa.

    • B. 

      Algae.

    • C. 

      Fungi.

    • D. 

      Bacteria.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.


  • 81. 
    Which of the following is found in eucaryotic cells but not in procaryotic cells?
    • A. 

      Nucleus

    • B. 

      Mitochondria

    • C. 

      Endoplasmic reticulum

    • D. 

      Lysosomes

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.


  • 82. 
    The cell's series of tunnel-like membranes functioning in transport and storage are the
    • A. 

      Mitochondria.

    • B. 

      Lysosomes.

    • C. 

      Golgi apparatus.

    • D. 

      Chloroplasts.

    • E. 

      Endoplasmic reticulum.


  • 83. 
    An organelle that is a stack of flattened, membranous sacs and functions to receive, modify, and package proteins for cell secretion is the
    • A. 

      Mitochondria.

    • B. 

      Lysosomes.

    • C. 

      Golgi apparatus.

    • D. 

      Chloroplasts.

    • E. 

      Endoplasmic reticulum.


  • 84. 
    Which organelle contains cristae where enzymes and electron carriers for aerobic respiration are found?
    • A. 

      Mitochondria

    • B. 

      Lysosomes

    • C. 

      Golgi apparatus

    • D. 

      Chloroplasts

    • E. 

      Endoplasmic reticulum


  • 85. 
    Organelles found in algae but not found in protozoa or fungi are the
    • A. 

      Mitochondria.

    • B. 

      Lysosomes.

    • C. 

      Golgi apparatus.

    • D. 

      Chloroplasts.

    • E. 

      Endoplasmic reticulum.


  • 86. 
    Filamentous fungi are called
    • A. 

      Pseudohyphae.

    • B. 

      Septa.

    • C. 

      Molds.

    • D. 

      Dimorphic.

    • E. 

      Mycelium.


  • 87. 
    When buds remain attached, they form a chain of yeast cells called
    • A. 

      Pseudohyphae.

    • B. 

      Septa.

    • C. 

      Molds.

    • D. 

      Dimorphic.

    • E. 

      Mycelium.


  • 88. 
    Fungi that grow as yeast at one temperature but will grow as mold at another temperature are called
    • A. 

      Dimorphic.

    • B. 

      Saprobes.

    • C. 

      Pseudohyphae.

    • D. 

      Spores.

    • E. 

      Fungi Imperfecti (Deuteromycota).


  • 89. 
    The motile, feeding stage of protozoa is called the
    • A. 

      Trophozoite.

    • B. 

      Cyst.

    • C. 

      Sporozoite.

    • D. 

      Oocyst.

    • E. 

      Food vacuole.


  • 90. 
    Larvae and eggs are developmental forms of
    • A. 

      Protozoa.

    • B. 

      Algae.

    • C. 

      Helminths.

    • D. 

      Fungi.

    • E. 

      None of the choices are correct.


  • 91. 
    Sources for human infection with worms are all of the following except
    • A. 

      Infected animals.

    • B. 

      Contaminated food.

    • C. 

      Contaminated water.

    • D. 

      Contaminated soil.

    • E. 

      Contaminated air.


  • 92. 
    The organelle involved in intracellular digestion of food particles is the
    • A. 

      Golgi apparatus.

    • B. 

      Lysosomes.

    • C. 

      Cisternae.

    • D. 

      Transitional vesicles.

    • E. 

      Smooth endoplasmic reticulum.


  • 93. 
    All of the following are found in some or all protozoa except
    • A. 

      Motility.

    • B. 

      Ectoplasm and endoplasm.

    • C. 

      Heterotrophic nutrition.

    • D. 

      Formation of a cyst stage.

    • E. 

      Cell wall.


  • 94. 
    Microorganisms require large quantities of this nutrient for use in cell structure and metabolism:
    • A. 

      Element

    • B. 

      Macronutrient

    • C. 

      Water

    • D. 

      Growth factor

    • E. 

      Trace element


  • 95. 
    Microorganisms require small quantities of this nutrient for enzyme function and maintenance of protein structure:
    • A. 

      Element

    • B. 

      Macronutrient

    • C. 

      Water

    • D. 

      Growth factor

    • E. 

      Trace element


  • 96. 
    The term phototroph refers to an organism that
    • A. 

      Uses CO2 for its carbon source.

    • B. 

      Must obtain organic compounds for its carbon needs.

    • C. 

      Gets energy from sunlight.

    • D. 

      Gets energy by oxidizing chemical compounds.

    • E. 

      Does not need a carbon source.


  • 97. 
    The term heterotroph refers to an organism that
    • A. 

      Uses CO2 for its carbon source.

    • B. 

      Must obtain organic compounds for its carbon needs.

    • C. 

      Gets energy from sunlight.

    • D. 

      Gets energy by oxidizing chemical compounds.

    • E. 

      Does not need a carbon source.


  • 98. 
    Organisms that feed on dead organisms for nutrients are called
    • A. 

      Saprobes.

    • B. 

      Parasites.

    • C. 

      Autotrophs.

    • D. 

      Lithoautotrophs.

    • E. 

      Phototrophs.


  • 99. 
    The movement of substances from lower to higher concentration across a semipermeable membrane that must have a specific protein carrier and use energy is called
    • A. 

      Facilitated diffusion.

    • B. 

      Diffusion.

    • C. 

      Active transport.

    • D. 

      Osmosis.

    • E. 

      Endocytosis.


  • 100. 
    The movement of substances from higher to lower concentration across a semipermeable membrane that must have a specific protein carrier but no energy expenditure is called
    • A. 

      Facilitated diffusion.

    • B. 

      Diffusion.

    • C. 

      Active transport.

    • D. 

      Osmosis.

    • E. 

      Endocytosis.


  • 101. 
    The use of energy by a cell to enclose a substance in its membrane by forming a vacuole and engulfing it is called
    • A. 

      Facilitated diffusion.

    • B. 

      Diffusion.

    • C. 

      Active transport.

    • D. 

      Osmosis.

    • E. 

      Endocytosis.


  • 102. 
    An organism with a temperature growth range of 45 degrees Celsius to 60 degrees Celsius would be called a/an
    • A. 

      Extremophile.

    • B. 

      Thermophile.

    • C. 

      Psychrophile.

    • D. 

      Facultative psychrophile.

    • E. 

      Thermoduric.


  • 103. 
    A microaerophile
    • A. 

      Grows best in an anaerobic jar.

    • B. 

      Grows with or without oxygen.

    • C. 

      Needs normal atmospheric levels of oxygen.

    • D. 

      Requires a small amount of oxygen but won't grow at normal atmospheric levels.

    • E. 

      None of the choices are correct.


  • 104. 
    The time interval from parent cell to two new daughter cells is called the
    • A. 

      Binary fission.

    • B. 

      Growth curve.

    • C. 

      Generation time.

    • D. 

      Death phase.

    • E. 

      Culture time.


  • 105. 
    The phase of the bacterial growth curve in which newly inoculated cells are adjusting to their new environment, metabolizing but not growing is the
    • A. 

      Lag phase.

    • B. 

      Log phase.

    • C. 

      Stationary phase.

    • D. 

      Death phase.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.


  • 106. 
    The breakdown of peptidoglycan to N-acetylmuramic acid, N-acetylglucosamine and peptides is an example of
    • A. 

      Anabolism.

    • B. 

      Catabolism.

    • C. 

      Phosphorylation.

    • D. 

      Fermentation.

    • E. 

      Biosynthesis.


  • 107. 
    Enzymes are
    • A. 

      Broken down in reactions that require energy input.

    • B. 

      Proteins that function as catalysts.

    • C. 

      Electron carrier molecules.

    • D. 

      Not needed for catabolic reactions.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.


  • 108. 
    Formation of peptide bonds between amino acids to build a polypeptide would be called
    • A. 

      Anabolism.

    • B. 

      Phosphorylation.

    • C. 

      Fermentation.

    • D. 

      Exergonic.

    • E. 

      Glycolysis.


  • 109. 
    Enzymes that can function at boiling water temperatures or other harsh conditions would be termed
    • A. 

      Denatured.

    • B. 

      Ribozymes.

    • C. 

      Abzymes.

    • D. 

      Exoenzymes.

    • E. 

      Extremozymes.


  • 110. 
    In the cell, energy released by electrons is often used to phosphorylate
    • A. 

      ATP.

    • B. 

      ADP.

    • C. 

      Pyruvic acid.

    • D. 

      Oxygen.

    • E. 

      NAD.


  • 111. 
    During aerobic cellular respiration, the final electron acceptor is
    • A. 

      Pyruvic acid.

    • B. 

      Oxygen.

    • C. 

      Nitrate.

    • D. 

      Cytochrome c.

    • E. 

      FAD.


  • 112. 
    In bacterial cells, the electron transport system is located in the
    • A. 

      Cell membrane.

    • B. 

      Mitochondria.

    • C. 

      Chloroplasts.

    • D. 

      Ribosomes.

    • E. 

      Cytoplasm.


  • 113. 
    In which pathway is the most NADH generated?
    • A. 

      Electron transport system

    • B. 

      TCA cycle

    • C. 

      Glycolysis

    • D. 

      Alcoholic fermentation

    • E. 

      Mixed acid fermentation


  • 114. 
    During which of the phases of cellular respiration is the majority of ATP formed?
    • A. 

      Electron transport

    • B. 

      TCA cycle

    • C. 

      Glycolysis

    • D. 

      Processing of pyruvic acid for the TCA cycle

    • E. 

      All phases produce the same number of ATP molecules.


  • 115. 
    Among the microorganisms, various genomes can include
    • A. 

      Chromosomes.

    • B. 

      Plasmids.

    • C. 

      Mitochondrial DNA.

    • D. 

      Chloroplast DNA.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.


  • 116. 
    The DNA of microorganisms is made up of subunits called
    • A. 

      Histones.

    • B. 

      Amino acids.

    • C. 

      Nucleotides.

    • D. 

      MRNA.

    • E. 

      Polymerases.


  • 117. 
    The antiparallel arrangement within DNA molecules refers to
    • A. 

      Each base bonding at 1' position of the sugar.

    • B. 

      A purine always bonding to a pyrimidine.

    • C. 

      One helix strand that runs from the 5' to 3' direction and the other strand runs from the 3' to 5' direction.

    • D. 

      An original parent DNA strand and one newly synthesized DNA strand comprising a new DNA molecule.

    • E. 

      None of the choices are correct.


  • 118. 
    Semiconservative replication refers to
    • A. 

      Each base bonding at the 1' position of the sugar.

    • B. 

      A purine always bonding to a pyrimidine.

    • C. 

      One helix strand that runs from the 5' to 3' direction and the other strand runs from the 3' to 5' direction.

    • D. 

      An original parent DNA strand and one newly synthesized DNA strand comprising a new DNA molecule.

    • E. 

      None of the choices are correct.


  • 119. 
    The duplication of a cell's DNA is called
    • A. 

      Mitosis.

    • B. 

      Replication.

    • C. 

      Transcription.

    • D. 

      Translation.

    • E. 

      Mutation.


  • 120. 
    An organism's genotype includes all the following except they
    • A. 

      Are inherited.

    • B. 

      Are structural genes coding for proteins.

    • C. 

      Are genes coding for RNA.

    • D. 

      Are regulatory genes controlling gene expression.

    • E. 

      Are the expressed traits governed by the genes.


  • 121. 
    Groups of three consecutive bases along the DNA of a gene have the code for one
    • A. 

      Protein.

    • B. 

      Nucleotide.

    • C. 

      Amino acid.

    • D. 

      Purine.

    • E. 

      None of the choices are correct.


  • 122. 
    The RNA molecules that carry amino acids to the ribosomes during protein synthesis are called
    • A. 

      Ribosomal RNA.

    • B. 

      Messenger RNA.

    • C. 

      Transfer RNA.

    • D. 

      Primer RNA.

    • E. 

      Ribozymes.


  • 123. 
    A mutation that changes a normal codon to a stop codon is called a
    • A. 

      Point mutation.

    • B. 

      Silent mutation.

    • C. 

      Back mutation.

    • D. 

      Missense mutation.

    • E. 

      Nonsense mutation.


  • 124. 
    Bacterial conjugation involves
    • A. 

      Bacteriophage carrying donor DNA to the recipient cell.

    • B. 

      A donor cell with a plasmid and a pilus.

    • C. 

      Naked DNA fragments from a lysed donor cell are taken up by a recipient cell.

    • D. 

      New progeny cells with genes from two parent bacterial cells.

    • E. 

      None of the choices are correct.


  • 125. 
    The various techniques by which scientists manipulate DNA in the lab is called
    • A. 

      Genetic engineering.

    • B. 

      Biotechnology.

    • C. 

      Recombinant DNA.

    • D. 

      Gel electrophoresis.

    • E. 

      Gene probes.


  • 126. 
    The deliberate removal of genetic material from one organism and combining it with the genetic material of another organism is a specific technique called
    • A. 

      Genetic engineering.

    • B. 

      Biotechnology.

    • C. 

      Recombinant DNA.

    • D. 

      Gel electrophoresis.

    • E. 

      Gene probes.


  • 127. 
    A technique that separates a readable pattern of DNA fragments is
    • A. 

      Genetic engineering.

    • B. 

      Biotechnology.

    • C. 

      Recombinant DNA.

    • D. 

      Gel electrophoresis.

    • E. 

      Gene probes.


  • 128. 
    EcoRI and HindIII are
    • A. 

      Palindromes.

    • B. 

      Reverse transcriptase.

    • C. 

      Restriction endonucleases.

    • D. 

      Ligases.

    • E. 

      DNA polymerases.


  • 129. 
    Sequences of DNA that are identical when read from the 5' to 3' direction on one strand and the 3' to 5' direction on the other strand are
    • A. 

      Palindromes.

    • B. 

      Reverse transcriptase.

    • C. 

      Restriction endonucleases.

    • D. 

      Ligases.

    • E. 

      DNA polymerases.


  • 130. 
    Analysis of DNA fragments in gel electrophoresis involves
    • A. 

      Larger fragments move slowly and remain closer to the wells.

    • B. 

      DNA has an overall negative charge and moves to the positive pole.

    • C. 

      DNA fragments are stained to see them.

    • D. 

      An electric current through the gel causes DNA fragments to migrate.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.


  • 131. 
    Amplification of DNA is accomplished by
    • A. 

      Polymerase chain reaction.

    • B. 

      DNA sequencing.

    • C. 

      Gene probes.

    • D. 

      Southern blot.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.


  • 132. 
    Thermococcus litoralis and Thermus aquaticus are thermophilic bacteria that are
    • A. 

      Used as cloning vectors.

    • B. 

      Sources of heat stable DNA polymerases.

    • C. 

      Genetically engineered bacteria.

    • D. 

      Principal sources of restriction endonucleases.

    • E. 

      None of the choices are correct.


  • 133. 
    Transgenic animals
    • A. 

      Can be engineered to become factories for manufacturing proteins.

    • B. 

      Are often obtained from germ line engineering.

    • C. 

      Will pass the genes on to their offspring.

    • D. 

      Commonly include mice.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.


  • 134. 
    When patient tissues are transfected with viruses carrying a needed, normal human gene, the technique is called
    • A. 

      Cloning.

    • B. 

      Gene therapy.

    • C. 

      Antisense therapeutic.

    • D. 

      DNA fingerprinting.

    • E. 

      None of the choices are correct.


  • 135. 
    This is often used in forensic science to distinguish one sequence of DNA from another by comparing the sequence of the strands at specific loci:
    • A. 

      Cloning

    • B. 

      Gene therapy

    • C. 

      Antisense therapeutic

    • D. 

      DNA fingerprinting

    • E. 

      None of the choices are correct.


  • 136. 
    Microbiological contaminants are best described as
    • A. 

      Unwanted microbes present on or in a substance.

    • B. 

      Any and all microbes present on or in a substance.

    • C. 

      Pathogenic microbes present on or in a substance.

    • D. 

      Vegetative microbes present on or in a substance.

    • E. 

      None of the choices are correct.


  • 137. 
    Physical agents for controlling microbial growth include all the following except
    • A. 

      Ultraviolet radiation.

    • B. 

      Boiling water.

    • C. 

      HEPA filters.

    • D. 

      Pasteurization.

    • E. 

      Hydrogen peroxide.


  • 138. 
    The process that destroys or removes all microorganisms and microbial forms including bacterial endospores is
    • A. 

      Disinfection.

    • B. 

      Sterilization.

    • C. 

      Antisepsis.

    • D. 

      Sanitization.

    • E. 

      Degermation.


  • 139. 
    The use of chemical agents directly on exposed body surfaces to destroy or inhibit vegetative pathogens is
    • A. 

      Disinfection.

    • B. 

      Sterilization.

    • C. 

      Antisepsis.

    • D. 

      Sanitization.

    • E. 

      Degermation.


  • 140. 
    Sterilization is achieved by
    • A. 

      Flash pasteurization.

    • B. 

      Hot water.

    • C. 

      Boiling water.

    • D. 

      Steam autoclave.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.


  • 141. 
    The shortest time required to kill all the microbes in a sample at a specified temperature is called the
    • A. 

      Thermal death point (TDP).

    • B. 

      Thermal death time (TDT).

    • C. 

      Sporicidal time.

    • D. 

      Death phase point.

    • E. 

      None of the choices are correct.


  • 142. 
    HEPA filters are used to remove microbes from
    • A. 

      Air.

    • B. 

      Liquids.

    • C. 

      Human tissues.

    • D. 

      Medical instruments.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.


  • 143. 
    The easiest microbial forms to kill or inhibit are
    • A. 

      Naked viruses.

    • B. 

      Vegetative bacteria and fungi.

    • C. 

      Endospores.

    • D. 

      Protozoan cysts.

    • E. 

      Mycobacteria and staphylococci.


  • 144. 
    Which common hospital pathogen is able to grow abundantly in soap dishes?
    • A. 

      Escherichia coli

    • B. 

      Pseudomonas

    • C. 

      Hemophilus influenzae

    • D. 

      Mycobacteria tuberculosis

    • E. 

      Salmonella


  • 145. 
    All of the following are correct about food irradiation except
    • A. 

      Food is not made radioactive by the process.

    • B. 

      The World Health Organization does not endorse this process.

    • C. 

      It is approved in the U.S. for beef, chicken and pork.

    • D. 

      It can lead to a longer shelf life for the irradiated food.

    • E. 

      No irradiated food can be sold without clear labeling.


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