Microbiology Exam 2

71 Questions  I  By K33m
Microbiology Exam 2
Exam 2 for Microbiology 130

  
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1.  Which nutritional requirement is “iron (Fe2+)†considered to be a part of?
A.
B.
C.
D.
2.  Cells that live in high salt environments are called ________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
3.  For a mesophile, the maximum growth temperature would be ____ C.
A.
B.
C.
D.
4.  For a thermophile, the minimum growth temperature would be ____C.
A.
B.
C.
D.
5.  Which of these is a good method of preserving microbial cultures?
A.
B.
C.
D.
6.  Which of these organisms would not be able to grow in water that has oxygen pumped into it (aerated)?
A.
B.
C.
D.
7.  Mannitol salt agar contains 7.5% salt which only allows the growth of microbes associated with the human body, such as Staphylococcus species. Furthermore, those that are able to ferment mannitol appear yellow in color. What type of medium is Mannitol salt agar?
A.
B.
C.
D.
8.  Protein synthesis during lag phase is not occuring because cells are not actively dividing.
A.
B.
9.  Which of these microbes is most problematic to humans?
A.
B.
C.
D.
10.  Salts and sugars work to preserve foods by creating a ____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
11.  The large intestines is an environment that lacks any oxygen. Which of the following types of organisms would most likely be found there?
A.
B.
C.
D.
12.  At which stage of bacterial growth is cell division the most rapid?
A.
B.
C.
D.
13.  Which of these microbes is most likely to grow at room temperature (25 C)?
A.
B.
C.
D.
14.  ____ is used if you want to study obligate anaerobic microbes.
A.
B.
C.
D.
15.  You want to quantify a culture of motile bacteria. Which method of quantifying would you use if you needed the most accurate information as soon as possible?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
16.  Motility medium is a growth agar medium that contains a low agar concentration. Cells that are motile will be able to grow throughout the medium whereas non-motile cells will only grow where they were inoculated. What type of medium is motility medium.
A.
B.
C.
D.
17.  Which of these organisms would not be able to grow in water that has oxygen pumped into it (aerated)?
A.
B.
C.
D.
18.  Most human pathogens are _________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
19.  Which method of quantifying bacterial numbers would be most effective for measuring the numbers of bacteria in drinking water, when you expect the numbers to be relatively low?
A.
B.
C.
D.
20.  Which of the following is a limitation of the autoclave?
A.
B.
C.
D.
21.  Which of the following treatments does not yield a sterile product?
A.
B.
C.
D.
22.  A microbial culture contains 1 million cells. If it takes 25 minutes to kill all microbes in a culture, the DRT is ______.
A.
B.
C.
23.  Which one of the following would be the most likely to spoil a jar of jam in your fridge?
A.
B.
C.
D.
24.  Based upon the information provided, which of these disinfectant treatments is more effective, a higher concentration for a shorter time, or a lower concentration for a longer time?
A.
B.
C.
25.  In the disk-diffusion method, a ____ zone of inhibition around a filter soaked with a chemical indicates that the test bacteria is resistant to the chemical.
A.
B.
C.
D.
26.  Which of the following is not used to preserve foods?
A.
B.
C.
D.
27.  Which of these are most likely to survive in a hypertonic environment?
A.
B.
C.
D.
28.  Pseudomonas species are unusually resistant to antimicrobial treatment due to the presence of _________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
29.  Which of these have a direct effect on antimicrobial treatments?
A.
B.
C.
D.
30.  All media needs to be free of microbes, so you need to ____ media before you use it.
A.
B.
C.
D.
31.  Bacterial death will result from damage to which of the following structures?
A.
B.
C.
D.
32.  Salts and sugars work to preserve foods by creating a ____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
33.  A bacterial culture was treated at 55 C. Treating the culture for 5 and 10 minutes did not effectively kill the bacteria, but treatment for 15 minutes killed all the cells. What is the TDT?
A.
B.
C.
D.
34.  A microbial culture contains 1 million cells. If it takes 25 minutes to kill all microbes in a culture, the TDT is ______.
A.
B.
C.
35.  Commercial sterilization involves heat treatment to destroy ______ of bacteria.
A.
B.
C.
D.
36.  TRNA molecules serve as a link between ______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
37.  A gene is best defined as ______.
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B.
C.
D.
38.  The LacI repressor of the lac operon binds to the ______ when lactose is not present.
A.
B.
C.
D.
39.  Which of these anticodons are found on the tRNA molecule for the amino acid methionine?
A.
B.
C.
D.
40.  Which of these is involved in translation?
A.
B.
C.
D.
41.  The information carried by DNA is used to create a _____ which then moves to the ribosome for protein synthesis.
A.
B.
C.
D.
42.  Which of the following properties are exclusive (unique) to mRNA?
A.
B.
C.
D.
43.  E. coli can metabolize both glucose and lactose. If grown in the presence of both sugars, E. coli will metabolize glucose first. This is referred to as _______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
44.  The enzyme responsible for transcription is
A.
B.
C.
D.
45.  Which of the following properties are exclusive (unique) to rRNA?
A.
B.
C.
D.
46.  The three nucleotide units in an mRNA molecule that code for amino acids are called ______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
47.  Which of the following properties are exclusive (unique) to tRNA?
A.
B.
C.
D.
48.  A sequence of DNA nucleotides which provides genetic information for a functional product is a ______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
49.  Which enzyme is responsible for unzipping the double stranded DNA?
A.
B.
C.
D.
50.  Phosphoglycerate kinase (PGK), an enzyme involved in glycolysis, is constitutively expressed. Which statement is true about the PGK gene?
A.
B.
C.
D.
51.  An anticodon would be found in/on a _____ molecule.
A.
B.
C.
D.
52.  Which of the following is not a disadvantage of E. coli for making a human gene product?
A.
B.
C.
D.
53.  A technique used to identify bacteria carrying a specific gene is ______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
54.  Two daughter cells are most likely to inherit which one of the following from the parent cell?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
55.  A ______ is able to transfer antibiotic resistance to other bacteria via conjugation.
A.
B.
C.
D.
56.  In transformation, the recipient cell is a _____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
57.  How does a shuttle vector differ from a "regular" plasmid vector? Shuttle vectors _____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
58.  A typical transposon is flanked by _____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
59.  What is the primary purpose of PCR?
A.
B.
C.
D.
60.  The genetic information needed for a F+ cell to participate in conjugation can be found in the DNA of a cell's ____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
61.  An advantage of a subunit vaccine is that subunit vaccines _______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
62.  Gene therapy would describe which of the following scenarios?
A.
B.
C.
D.
63.  Hfr cells arise when _____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
64.  Bioinformatics is the field of study that employs computers to understand ______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
65.  _______ is gene transfer mediated by bacteriophages.
A.
B.
C.
66.  In transduction, the donor cell could be _____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
67.  An auxotroph can best be described as _______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
68.  Electroporation is a technique that is used to _____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
69.  In conjugation, the donor cell could be ______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
70.  Which of the following is not a method of horizontal gene transfer?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
71.  Which method of microbial control aims to destroy all microbes?
A.
B.
C.
D.
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