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Lom Chapter 7-sxs Chapter 20-essentials Chapter 12

116 Questions
Book Quizzes & Trivia

Review week one mod 3.

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Portion of the urinary bladder:
    • A. 

      Pylorus

    • B. 

      Hilum

    • C. 

      Trigone

    • D. 

      Medulla

    • E. 

      Fundus

  • 2. 
    Glomerular:
    • A. 

      Pertaining to a tube in the bladder

    • B. 

      Pertaining to small balls of capillaries in the kidney

    • C. 

      Pertaining to a collecting chamber in the kidney

    • D. 

      Pertaining to a tube leading from the kidney to the bladder

    • E. 

      Pertaining to the urinary bladder

  • 3. 
    Meatal stenosis:
    • A. 

      Enalrgement of an opening

    • B. 

      Incision of an opening

    • C. 

      Stoppage of blood flow to the kidney

    • D. 

      Narrowing of the urethral opening to the outside of the body

    • E. 

      Widening of the bladder orifice

  • 4. 
    Electrolyte:
    • A. 

      Sodium

    • B. 

      Albumin

    • C. 

      Bilirubin

    • D. 

      Creatinine

    • E. 

      Glucose

  • 5. 
    Nitrogenous waste:
    • A. 

      Creatinine

    • B. 

      Lipid

    • C. 

      Fatty acid

    • D. 

      Sugar

    • E. 

      Carbon dioxide

  • 6. 
    Renal pelvis:
    • A. 

      Nephr/o

    • B. 

      Cyst/o

    • C. 

      Pyel/o

    • D. 

      Ren/o

    • E. 

      Py/o

  • 7. 
    A term that means no urine production is:
    • A. 

      Diuresis

    • B. 

      Anuria

    • C. 

      Nocturia

    • D. 

      Voiding

    • E. 

      Micturition

  • 8. 
    Surrounding the urinary bladder:
    • A. 

      Perinephric

    • B. 

      Perivisceral

    • C. 

      Perivesical

    • D. 

      Infrarenal

    • E. 

      Suprarenal

  • 9. 
    Uremia:
    • A. 

      Dysuria

    • B. 

      Azotemia

    • C. 

      Hemorrhage

    • D. 

      Dysuria

    • E. 

      Cystitis

  • 10. 
    X-ray of the urinary tract:
    • A. 

      BUN

    • B. 

      Cystoscopy

    • C. 

      Renal ultrasonography

    • D. 

      KUB

    • E. 

      Renal dialysis

  • 11. 
    Oliguria:
    • A. 

      Scanty urination

    • B. 

      Pus in the urine

    • C. 

      Nocturia

    • D. 

      Bacteriuria

    • E. 

      Polyuria

  • 12. 
    Diabetes insipidus is characterized by all of the following except:
    • A. 

      Glycosuria

    • B. 

      Polydipsia

    • C. 

      Insufficient ADH

    • D. 

      Pituitary gland malfunction

    • E. 

      Ployuria

  • 13. 
    Hernia of the tube connecting the kidney and urinary bladder:
    • A. 

      Urethroileostomy

    • B. 

      Herniorrhaphy

    • C. 

      Ureterocele

    • D. 

      Urethrostomy

    • E. 

      Urethrocele

  • 14. 
    Artificial kidney machine:
    • A. 

      CAPD

    • B. 

      Hemodialysis

    • C. 

      Renal biopsy

    • D. 

      Renal transplantation

    • E. 

      Lithotripsy

  • 15. 
    Nephrolithotomy:
    • A. 

      Removal of the urinary bladder and kidney stones

    • B. 

      Hardening of a stone

    • C. 

      Removal of the kidney and stones

    • D. 

      Incision to remove a renal calculus

    • E. 

      Bladder calculi

  • 16. 
    Protein in the urine:
    • A. 

      Albuminuria

    • B. 

      Acetonuria

    • C. 

      Ketonuria

    • D. 

      Hyperbilirubinemia

    • E. 

      Bilirubinuria

  • 17. 
    Renal abscess may lead to:
    • A. 

      Nephroptosis

    • B. 

      Ascites

    • C. 

      Pyuria

    • D. 

      Diabetes insipidus

    • E. 

      Diabetes mellitus

  • 18. 
    Alkaline:
    • A. 

      PH

    • B. 

      Acetone

    • C. 

      Water

    • D. 

      Acidic

    • E. 

      Basic

  • 19. 
    A group of symptoms marked by edema, proteinuria, and hypoalbuminemia:
    • A. 

      Renal ischemia

    • B. 

      Essential hypertension

    • C. 

      Polycystic kidney

    • D. 

      Nephrotic syndrome

    • E. 

      Diabetes mellitus

  • 20. 
    High levels of ketones in the blood can lead to:
    • A. 

      Excessive elimination of fats

    • B. 

      Acidosis

    • C. 

      High pH of urine

    • D. 

      Low specific gravity

    • E. 

      Diabetes insipidus

  • 21. 
    Childhood renal carcinoma:
    • A. 

      Hypernephroma

    • B. 

      Polycystic kidney

    • C. 

      Glomerulonephritis

    • D. 

      Wilms tumor

    • E. 

      Phenylketonuria

  • 22. 
    Urine is held in the bladder:
    • A. 

      Pyuria

    • B. 

      Urinary retention

    • C. 

      Polyuria

    • D. 

      Urinary incontinence

    • E. 

      Nocturia

  • 23. 
    Test that measures the amount of urea in the blood:
    • A. 

      RP

    • B. 

      CT scan

    • C. 

      Creatinine clearance test

    • D. 

      VCU

    • E. 

      BUN

  • 24. 
    Nephrosclerosis:
    • A. 

      A test of kidney function

    • B. 

      Loss of protein in the urine

    • C. 

      Prolapse of the kidney

    • D. 

      Hardening of blood vessels in the kidney

    • E. 

      Excess fluid in the kidney

  • 25. 
    Lithotripsy:
    • A. 

      Shock waves crush urinary tract stones

    • B. 

      Panendoscopy

    • C. 

      Renal transplant

    • D. 

      Foley catheterization

    • E. 

      Radioscopic study

  • 26. 
    Swelling;fluid in tissues:
    • A. 

      Edema

    • B. 

      Edemia

    • C. 

      Ademia

  • 27. 
    Visual examination of the bladder:
    • A. 

      Cystascopy

    • B. 

      Sistoscopy

    • C. 

      Cystoscopy

  • 28. 
    Hardening of vessels in the kidney:
    • A. 

      Neferosclerosis

    • B. 

      Nephrosclerosis

    • C. 

      Nephroscherosis

  • 29. 
    Protein in the urine:
    • A. 

      Albuminuria

    • B. 

      Albuminurea

    • C. 

      Albumenuria

  • 30. 
    Stone:
    • A. 

      Calculis

    • B. 

      Calculus

    • C. 

      Calkulus

  • 31. 
    Excessive thirst:
    • A. 

      Polydipsia

    • B. 

      Polidipsia

    • C. 

      Polydypsia

  • 32. 
    Collecting area in the kidney:
    • A. 

      Kalyx

    • B. 

      Calics

    • C. 

      Calyx

  • 33. 
    Inability to hold urine in bladder:
    • A. 

      Incontinence

    • B. 

      Incontinance

    • C. 

      Incontenence

  • 34. 
    Chemical that carries an electrical charge
    • A. 

      Electrolite

    • B. 

      Electricolyte

    • C. 

      Electrolyte

  • 35. 
    Hormone secreted by the kidney to increase red blood cells:
    • A. 

      Erythropoietin

    • B. 

      Erithropoeitin

    • C. 

      Erythropoeitin

  • 36. 
    Disease of the kidney: nephro____________
  • 37. 
    Incision to remove a stone from the renal pelvis: ____________lithotomy
  • 38. 
    Protein in the urine: ____________________uria
  • 39. 
    Visual examination of the urinary bladder: _________________scopy
  • 40. 
    Sugar in the urine: _____________uria
  • 41. 
    Vesic/o
  • 42. 
    Lith/o
  • 43. 
    Ren/o
  • 44. 
    Py/o
  • 45. 
    -tripsy
  • 46. 
    -poietin
  • 47. 
    -sclerosis
  • 48. 
    Peri-
  • 49. 
    Poly-
  • 50. 
    Dys-
  • 51. 
    Dia-
  • 52. 
    En-
  • 53. 
    New opening
  • 54. 
    Incision
  • 55. 
    Disease condition
  • 56. 
    Removal
  • 57. 
    Blood condition
  • 58. 
    Thirst
  • 59. 
    Night
  • 60. 
    Blood vessel
  • 61. 
    Colpotomy is an incision into the vagina
    • A. 

      T

    • B. 

      F

  • 62. 
    A radical vulvectomy is the removal of greater than 80% of the vulvar area
    • A. 

      T

    • B. 

      F

  • 63. 
    Diagnostic amniocentesis includes radiologic supervision and interpretaion
    • A. 

      T

    • B. 

      F

  • 64. 
    Reporting code 59300 is acceptable when reporting 59400
    • A. 

      T

    • B. 

      F

  • 65. 
    The code for a curettage performed after delivery is 58120
    • A. 

      T

    • B. 

      F

  • 66. 
    The code for destruction of a vaginal lesion is 17000
    • A. 

      T

    • B. 

      F

  • 67. 
    Surgical laparoscopy always includes:
    • A. 

      Paracervical block

    • B. 

      Diagnostic laparoscopy

    • C. 

      Biopsy

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 68. 
    For medical complications of pregnancy the physician would report his additional professional services using codes from what section or subsection
    • A. 

      Female genital system

    • B. 

      Maternity care and delivery

    • C. 

      E/M

    • D. 

      Medicine

  • 69. 
    When coding a total abdominal hysterectomy with an anterior/posterior colphorrhaphy the correct modifier to add to the second procedure would be
    • A. 

      -26

    • B. 

      -50

    • C. 

      -51

    • D. 

      -79

  • 70. 
    Antepartum care includes
    • A. 

      Initial and subsequent history, recording of weight, blood pressures, fetal heart tones, and routine Hgb

    • B. 

      Initial and subsequent history recording of weight, blood pressures, fetal heart tones, and routine UA

    • C. 

      Initial and subsequent history, physical exams, recording of weight, blood pressures, fetal heart tones, and routine Hgb

    • D. 

      Initial and subsequent history, physical exams, recording of wieght, blood pressures, fetal heart tones, and routine UA

  • 71. 
    The anatomy in the female genital system subsection starts with the vulva and progresses upward to the
    • A. 

      Fallopian tube

    • B. 

      Ovary

    • C. 

      Uterus

    • D. 

      Perineum

  • 72. 
    Incision and drainage of these glands are not reported using female genital system codes, but are instead reported using surgery section, urinary system codes:
    • A. 

      Skene's

    • B. 

      Bartholin's

    • C. 

      Weber's

    • D. 

      Virchow's

  • 73. 
    According to the text, vulvectomy codes are divided based on the ______ and extent of vulvar area removed during the procedure.
    • A. 

      Status (malignant or premalignant lesions)

    • B. 

      Recurrence

    • C. 

      Complexity

    • D. 

      Size

  • 74. 
    The term describes an insision of the vagina to gain access to the peritoneal cul-de-sac to esplore or to drain an abscess:
    • A. 

      Colpocentesis

    • B. 

      Perineoplasty

    • C. 

      Colpocleisis

    • D. 

      Oophorectomy

  • 75. 
    Loop electrode excision procedures are also referred to as
    • A. 

      LEEP

    • B. 

      LETZ

    • C. 

      Cervical loop diathermy

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 76. 
    Hysterectomy codes are first divided in the cpt manual based on the _______ and then on any secondary procedure(s) that were done
    • A. 

      Approach

    • B. 

      Severity

    • C. 

      Patient age

    • D. 

      Duration

  • 77. 
    In which of the following categories would you locate a code for the removal of an IUD
    • A. 

      Removal

    • B. 

      Introduction

    • C. 

      Excision

    • D. 

      Manipulation

  • 78. 
    Lysis of adhesions is performed on either the fallopian tubes or the
    • A. 

      Vagina

    • B. 

      Vulva

    • C. 

      Uterus

    • D. 

      Ovaries

  • 79. 
    You would expect to code a service for an amniocentesis using a code from the female genital system subsection and a code from the ____________ section
    • A. 

      Medicine

    • B. 

      Anesthesia

    • C. 

      Radiology

    • D. 

      E/M

  • 80. 
    The code 59400 doesnt include
    • A. 

      A cerclage

    • B. 

      The delivery

    • C. 

      Postpartum care

    • D. 

      Antepartum care

  • 81. 
    If a patient has had a previous cesarean delivery and the has a vaginal delivery, the correct code would be
    • A. 

      59618

    • B. 

      59400

    • C. 

      59410

    • D. 

      59610

  • 82. 
    A fetal non-stress test is completed on a 36-week pregnancy. the correct code would be
    • A. 

      59050

    • B. 

      59012

    • C. 

      59025

    • D. 

      59020

  • 83. 
    Biopsy of the vaginal mucosa code is
    • A. 

      56605

    • B. 

      58900

    • C. 

      57100

    • D. 

      57110

  • 84. 
    Aftificial insemination performed via intrauterine is reported using
    • A. 

      58321

    • B. 

      58322

    • C. 

      58323

    • D. 

      58350

  • 85. 
    What surgery subheading has only two codes
    • A. 

      Urinary system

    • B. 

      Intersex sugery

    • C. 

      Laparoscopy

    • D. 

      Delivery

  • 86. 
    The most commonly diagnosed std in the united states is
    • A. 

      Gonorrhea

    • B. 

      Genital herpes

    • C. 

      Human papillomavirus virus (HPV)

    • D. 

      Chancroid

  • 87. 
    HPV is commonly associated with
    • A. 

      Genital herpes

    • B. 

      Genital warts and many different types of cancer

    • C. 

      Trichomoniasis

    • D. 

      Syphilis

  • 88. 
    The STD sometimes referred to as the silent STD, which is more common than gonorrhea and a leading cause of PID, is
    • A. 

      Genital herpes

    • B. 

      Trichomoniasis

    • C. 

      Syphilis

    • D. 

      Chlamydia

  • 89. 
    Failure to seek treatment for a gonorrhea infection can result in complications including
    • A. 

      Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)

    • B. 

      Septicemia

    • C. 

      Septic arthritis

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 90. 
    The treatment of genital herpes is directed at
    • A. 

      Curing the disease

    • B. 

      Preventing transmission at all times

    • C. 

      Reducing the duration and frequency of outbreaks

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 91. 
    Which of the following statements is true about syphilis
    • A. 

      The cause and mode of transmission is unclear

    • B. 

      Syphilis can be cured with a course of antibiotic therapy

    • C. 

      No known cure of the disease exists

    • D. 

      When the primary lesion heals, the disease is cured

  • 92. 
    Invasive cervical cancer
    • A. 

      Is often considered a preventable disease

    • B. 

      Has no identifiable risk factors

    • C. 

      Is most commonly diagnosed before the age of 35

    • D. 

      Is none of the above

  • 93. 
    The pathologic outcomes of endometriosis includes
    • A. 

      Functioning endometrial tissue outside the uterine cavity

    • B. 

      changes that result from menopause

    • C. 

      Fluid-filled sacs that form on or near ovaries

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 94. 
    The diagnosis of PID may include
    • A. 

      A grams stain and sensitivity studies

    • B. 

      A laparoscopy

    • C. 

      Ultrasonography

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 95. 
    The cause of toxic shock syndrome is thought to be
    • A. 

      Unprotected sexual intercourse

    • B. 

      Staphylococcal toxin found in superabsorbent tampon fibers

    • C. 

      Estrogen replacement therapy

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 96. 
    Early diagnosis and prompt treatment of PID helps prevent complications including
    • A. 

      Pelvic adhesions

    • B. 

      Increased risk of ectopic pregnancy

    • C. 

      Peritonitis and septicemia

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 97. 
    The symptoms and signs of toxemia in pregnancy, preeclampsia, and eclampsia include
    • A. 

      Hypertension, edema, protein in the urine, and convulsions

    • B. 

      Symptoms that mimic pregnancy

    • C. 

      Hypotension and other indications of shock

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 98. 
    In pregnancy, when the placenta is implanted in the lower uterine segment and encroaches on the internal cervical os causing vaginal bleeding, the condition is called
    • A. 

      Placenta previa

    • B. 

      Abruptio placentae

    • C. 

      Ectopic pregnancy

    • D. 

      Hyperemesis gravidarum

  • 99. 
    Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) causes
    • A. 

      Acute onset of fever, malaise, and pain

    • B. 

      A weak stream of urine with inability to empty the bladder

    • C. 

      Swelling and tenderness of one or both tests.

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 100. 
    Diagnostic evaluation for prostatic cancer includes
    • A. 

      A rectal examination

    • B. 

      Blood testing for prostate-specific antigen (PSA)

    • C. 

      A biopsy to confirm the diagnosis

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 101. 
    Hormone replacement therapy for postmenopausal women
    • A. 

      Is highly individualized

    • B. 

      Is risk free

    • C. 

      Has no containdications

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 102. 
    The leading cause of deaths attributed to the female reproductive system is
    • A. 

      Uterine cancer

    • B. 

      PID

    • C. 

      Ovarian cancer

    • D. 

      Breast cancer

  • 103. 
    The first sign of testicular cancer is
    • A. 

      Sexual dysfunction

    • B. 

      A painful lump discovered in the testicle

    • C. 

      Urinary incontinence

    • D. 

      A painless lump discovered in the testicle

  • 104. 
    Risk factors that place women at a higher risk for cancer of the breast include
    • A. 

      Family history, being over age 50, and a history of exposure to radiation or carcinogens

    • B. 

      Never having been pregnant or a first pregnancy after age 35

    • C. 

      An early menarche or menopause occurring after age 50

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 105. 
    Endometrial cancer is
    • A. 

      May be detected on a routine pap smear

    • B. 

      Primarily a disease of postmenopausal women

    • C. 

      Is often due to high cumulative exposure to estrogen

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 106. 
    Either men or women can experience dyspareunia, but it is more common in women.
    • A. 

      T

    • B. 

      F

  • 107. 
    Alcohol, recreational drugs, antihistamines, diuretics, and drugs used to treat hypertension can cause impotence
    • A. 

      T

    • B. 

      F

  • 108. 
    There are various possible causes of male or female infertility, including the presence of an STD
    • A. 

      T

    • B. 

      F

  • 109. 
    The absence of menstrual periods, whether temporary or permanent, is called dysmenorrhea
    • A. 

      T

    • B. 

      F

  • 110. 
    The best prevention of epididymitis is the early treatment of urinary tract infections
    • A. 

      T

    • B. 

      F

  • 111. 
    Testicular cancer is most common in men over age 60
    • A. 

      T

    • B. 

      F

  • 112. 
    Hyperemesis gravidarum is usually self-limiting and transient
    • A. 

      T

    • B. 

      F

  • 113. 
    A sudden onset of severe lower abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding requires prompt medical attention
    • A. 

      T

    • B. 

      F

  • 114. 
    Altough the cause is not always clearly understood, the best prevention of premature labor is good prenatal care.
    • A. 

      T

    • B. 

      F

  • 115. 
    The patient with hydatidiform mole experiences symptoms that mimic pregnancy
    • A. 

      T

    • B. 

      F

  • 116. 
    Fibroadenoma is a nontender malignant tumor of the breast
    • A. 

      T

    • B. 

      F

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