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209 Questions
Health Quizzes & Trivia

Review week 3 mod 7

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Parathormone
  • 2. 
    Adenohypophysis
  • 3. 
    Goiter
  • 4. 
    Mineralocorticoid
  • 5. 
    Gonadotropin
  • 6. 
    A.courtisolB. cortisolA or B:_____ meaning:_______________________
  • 7. 
    A. pitiutary glandB. pituitary glandA or B:____ meaning:________________________
  • 8. 
    ADH
  • 9. 
    T4
  • 10. 
    Acromegalyhyper or hypo:______ endocrine gland involved:_____________
  • 11. 
    Diabetes mellitushyper or hypo:________ endocrine gland involved:____________
  • 12. 
    Cretinismhyper or hypo:________ endorcrine gland involved
  • 13. 
    Glycosuria
  • 14. 
    Type 2
  • 15. 
    RAI
  • 16. 
    T4
  • 17. 
    Which is a function of the thyroid gland
    • A. 

      Secretes immunologic substances

    • B. 

      Secretes thymosin

    • C. 

      Secretes corticosteroids

    • D. 

      Secretes thyroid stimulating hormone

    • E. 

      Secretes thyroxine

  • 18. 
    What is another name for the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland
    • A. 

      Hypophysis

    • B. 

      Hypothalamus

    • C. 

      Adenohypophysis

    • D. 

      Neurohypophysis

    • E. 

      Thalamus

  • 19. 
    Which of the following secretes cortisol
    • A. 

      Testes

    • B. 

      Ovaries

    • C. 

      Adrenal medulla

    • D. 

      Adrenal cortex

    • E. 

      Pituitary gland

  • 20. 
    Which is a hormone secreted by the pancreas
    • A. 

      Estrogen

    • B. 

      Insulin

    • C. 

      Vasopressin

    • D. 

      Epinephrine

    • E. 

      Glucose

  • 21. 
    Which hormone stimulates the adrenal cortex to secrete hormones
    • A. 

      Growth hormone

    • B. 

      ADH

    • C. 

      ACTH

    • D. 

      Cortisone

    • E. 

      Secretin

  • 22. 
    Which is an example of an electrolyte
    • A. 

      Insulin

    • B. 

      Sodium

    • C. 

      Renin

    • D. 

      Glucagon

    • E. 

      Steroid

  • 23. 
    Which is an element that is present in thyroxine
    • A. 

      Iron

    • B. 

      Calcium

    • C. 

      Vitamin D

    • D. 

      Glucose

    • E. 

      Iodine

  • 24. 
    Which is a hormone secreted by the ovary and adrenal cortex
    • A. 

      Follicle-stimulating hormone

    • B. 

      Luteinizing hormone

    • C. 

      Adrogen

    • D. 

      Estrogen

    • E. 

      Oxytocin

  • 25. 
    Which is a description of gonadotropins
    • A. 

      Secreted by the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland

    • B. 

      Stimulate the growth of long bones

    • C. 

      Stimulate glucose uptake in cells

    • D. 

      Secreted by the testes

    • E. 

      Stimulate the secretion of milk

  • 26. 
    What is the term for excessive development of mammary tissue in a male
    • A. 

      Homeostasis

    • B. 

      Hypogonadism

    • C. 

      Galactorrhea

    • D. 

      Gynecomastia

    • E. 

      Hypernatremia

  • 27. 
    Kal/i is a combining form for which substance
    • A. 

      Phosphorus

    • B. 

      Sodium

    • C. 

      Calcium

    • D. 

      Milk

    • E. 

      Potassium

  • 28. 
    Insulin deficiency or resistance leads to hyperglycemia and ketoacidosis
    • A. 

      Graves disease

    • B. 

      Diabetes mellitus

    • C. 

      Cushing syndrome

    • D. 

      Acromegaly

    • E. 

      Myxedema

  • 29. 
    A group of symptoms produced by excess of cortisol from the adrenal cortex
    • A. 

      Graves disease

    • B. 

      Diabetes mellitus

    • C. 

      Cushing syndrome

    • D. 

      Acromegaly

    • E. 

      Myxedema

  • 30. 
    Advanced hypothyroidism in adulthood
    • A. 

      Graves disease

    • B. 

      Diabetes mellitus

    • C. 

      Cushing syndrome

    • D. 

      Acromegaly

    • E. 

      Myxedema

  • 31. 
    Thyrotoxicosis; hypersecretion of the thyroid gland
    • A. 

      Graves disease

    • B. 

      Diabetes mellitus

    • C. 

      Cushing syndrome

    • D. 

      Acromegaly

    • E. 

      Myxedema

  • 32. 
    Which term means enlargement of the thyroid gland
    • A. 

      Hypergonadism

    • B. 

      Euthyroid

    • C. 

      Goiter

    • D. 

      Hypophyseal enlargement

    • E. 

      Tetany

  • 33. 
    Exophthalmos is a symptom of which endocrine disorder
    • A. 

      Endemic goiter

    • B. 

      Thyroid carcinoma

    • C. 

      Graves disease

    • D. 

      nodular goiter

    • E. 

      Pituitary gland hypertrophy

  • 34. 
    Natr/o is the combining form for which substance
    • A. 

      Sugar

    • B. 

      Milk

    • C. 

      Sodium

    • D. 

      Iodine

    • E. 

      Potassium

  • 35. 
    Characteristic of type 1 diabetes mellitus
    • A. 

      Gradual onset; patient is asymptomatic

    • B. 

      Ketoacidosis seldom occurs

    • C. 

      Treatment is diet and oral hypoglycemic agents

    • D. 

      Little or no insulin produced

    • E. 

      Usually occurs after age 30

  • 36. 
    Which of the following is associated with neuropathy, nephropathy, and retinopathy
    • A. 

      Hyperthyroidism

    • B. 

      Deficient ADH secretion

    • C. 

      Secondary complications of diabetes mellitus

    • D. 

      Hypergonadism

    • E. 

      Panhypopituitarism

  • 37. 
    Which is a description of achondroplasia
    • A. 

      Enlargement of extremities

    • B. 

      Defective cartilage formation that affects bone growth

    • C. 

      Tumor of the sella turcica

    • D. 

      Abnormal formation of cartilage in an adult

    • E. 

      Hyperfunctioning of pituitary gland

  • 38. 
    Which is a description of a thyroid scan
    • A. 

      Ct image of thyroid gland

    • B. 

      Radioimmunoassay of thyroxine in the bloodstream

    • C. 

      Ultrasound image of the neck

    • D. 

      Skull x-ray of the brain

    • E. 

      Administration of radioactive compound and visualization with a scanner to detect tumors or nodules

  • 39. 
    Hormone secreted by the thyroid gland
    • A. 

      Thyroixine

    • B. 

      Thiroxine

    • C. 

      Thyroxine

  • 40. 
    Constant muscle contraction
    • A. 

      Tetany

    • B. 

      Teteny

    • C. 

      Tettany

  • 41. 
    Part of the brain that controls the secretions of the pituitary gland
    • A. 

      Hypothalmus

    • B. 

      Hypothalmis

    • C. 

      Hypothalamus

  • 42. 
    Hormone secreted by the islet of cells of langerhans
    • A. 

      Insalin

    • B. 

      Insulin

    • C. 

      Insulen

  • 43. 
    Select the term that is spelled correctly
    • A. 

      Courtisol

    • B. 

      Cortisol

  • 44. 
    Select the term that is spelled correctly
    • A. 

      Estrogen

    • B. 

      Estrogin

  • 45. 
    Select the term that is spelled correctly
    • A. 

      Pitiutary gland

    • B. 

      Pituitary gland

  • 46. 
    Select the term that is spelled correctly
    • A. 

      Gonadotrophan

    • B. 

      Gonadotropin

  • 47. 
    Select the term that is spelled correctly
    • A. 

      Uthyroid

    • B. 

      Euthyroid

  • 48. 
    Select the term that is spelled correctly
    • A. 

      Hypocalemia

    • B. 

      Hypokalemia

  • 49. 
    Select the term that is spelled correctly
    • A. 

      Hypophysectomy

    • B. 

      Hypophisectomy

  • 50. 
    Select the term that is spelled correctly
    • A. 

      Pancrease

    • B. 

      Pancreas

  • 51. 
    Select the term that is spelled correctly
    • A. 

      Corticosteroid

    • B. 

      Cortikosteroid

  • 52. 
    Cancer of the thyroid gland (papillary and follicular are types)
    • A. 

      Adrenal virilism

    • B. 

      Cushing syndrome

    • C. 

      Thyroid carcinoma

    • D. 

      Myxedema

  • 53. 
    Excessive thirst
    • A. 

      Electrolyte

    • B. 

      Polysipsia

    • C. 

      Hyponatremia

  • 54. 
    Hormone secreted by the thyroid gland; lowers blood calcium
    • A. 

      Aldosterone

    • B. 

      Calcitonin

    • C. 

      Glycosuria

  • 55. 
    Type of hormone secreted by the adrenal cortex; necessary for the use of sugars, fats and proteins
    • A. 

      Progesterone

    • B. 

      Calcitonin

    • C. 

      Glucocoticoid

  • 56. 
    Anterior lobe of the pituitary gland
    • A. 

      Adenohypophysis

    • B. 

      Hypothalamus

    • C. 

      Oxytocin

  • 57. 
    Hormone secreted by the ovaries
    • A. 

      Parathyroidectomy

    • B. 

      Hypokalemia

    • C. 

      Progesterone

  • 58. 
    Region of the brain that produces factors to stimulate the pituitary gland
    • A. 

      Calcitonin

    • B. 

      Hypothalamus

    • C. 

      Oxytocin

  • 59. 
    Test that measures levels of sugar in the blood
    • A. 

      Cretinism

    • B. 

      Glucose tolerance test

    • C. 

      Tetany

  • 60. 
    Benign tumor of the adrenal medulla
    • A. 

      Thyrotoxicosis

    • B. 

      Pheochromocytoma

    • C. 

      Exophthalmos

  • 61. 
    Sympathomimetic; elevates heart rate, blood pressure
    • A. 

      Aldosterone

    • B. 

      Epinephrine

    • C. 

      Thyroxine

  • 62. 
    Increases metabolism in body cells
    • A. 

      Thyroxine

    • B. 

      Aldosterone

    • C. 

      Cortisol

  • 63. 
    Stimulates secretion of hormones from adrenal cortex
    • A. 

      Cortisol

    • B. 

      ACTH

    • C. 

      Insulin

  • 64. 
    Increases blood sugar
    • A. 

      Testosterone

    • B. 

      Cortisol

    • C. 

      Estradiol

  • 65. 
    Helps transport glucose to cells and decreases blood sugar
    • A. 

      Insulin

    • B. 

      Thyroxine

    • C. 

      Parathyroid hormone

  • 66. 
    Diabetes insipidus
    • A. 

      A mineral salt found in the blood and in tissues

    • B. 

      Disease condition due to malfunction of cells in pancreas

    • C. 

      Disease condition due to malfunction of the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland

  • 67. 
    Prolactin
    • A. 

      Hormone secreted by the adrenal cortex

    • B. 

      Hormone secreted by the anterior lobe of pituitary gland

    • C. 

      Homone secreted by the ovary

  • 68. 
    T4
    • A. 

      This is an electrolyte

    • B. 

      Hormone secreted from the thyroid gland

    • C. 

      Secretion of this hormone stimulates an endocrine gland above the kidney

  • 69. 
    GTT
    • A. 

      Test to assess the sugar levels in the blood

    • B. 

      Treatment for graves disease to destroy an overactive thyroid gland

    • C. 

      Somatotropin

  • 70. 
    Located behind the stomach; alpha and beta islet cells secrete hormones
    • A. 

      Adrenal medulla

    • B. 

      Pituitary gland

    • C. 

      Pancreas

  • 71. 
    Located in the neck on either side of the treachea; secretes thyroxine
    • A. 

      Adrenal cortex

    • B. 

      Thyroid gland

    • C. 

      Adrenal medulla

  • 72. 
    Located at the base of the brain in the sella turcica; hypophysis
    • A. 

      Pituitary gland

    • B. 

      Parathyroid glands

    • C. 

      Thyroid gland

  • 73. 
    Male hormone secreted by the testes
    • A. 

      Androgen

    • B. 

      Aldosterone

    • C. 

      Cortisol

  • 74. 
    Secreted by the posterior lob of the pituitary gland; vasopressin
    • A. 

      Calcitonin

    • B. 

      Estradiol

    • C. 

      Antidiuretic hormone

  • 75. 
    Secreted by the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland; stimulates secretion by the thyroid gland
    • A. 

      Oxytocin

    • B. 

      Thyroxine

    • C. 

      Thyroid-stimulating hormone

  • 76. 
    Male hormone secreted by the testes
    • A. 

      Testosterone

    • B. 

      Luteinizing hormone

    • C. 

      Prolactin

  • 77. 
    Name the endocrine organ that produces the following hormone:insulin:
  • 78. 
    Name the endocrine organ that produces the following hormone:  epinephrine:
  • 79. 
    Name the endocrine organ that produces the following hormone:follicle-stimulating hormone:
  • 80. 
    Name the endocrine organ that produces the following hormone:aldosterone:
  • 81. 
    Removal of the pituitary gland: ________ectomy
  • 82. 
    Deficient sodium in the blood: hypo___________
  • 83. 
    Disease condition of adrenal gland: adreno__________
  • 84. 
    Normal thyroid function:_______thyroid
  • 85. 
    Hormone secreted by the thyroid gland: tri______________
  • 86. 
    Aden/o:
  • 87. 
    Adren/o
  • 88. 
    Cortic/o
  • 89. 
    Dips/o
  • 90. 
    Gluc/o
  • 91. 
    Glyc/o
  • 92. 
    Gonad/o
  • 93. 
    Lact/o
  • 94. 
    Myx/o
  • 95. 
    Natr/o
  • 96. 
    Pancreat/o
  • 97. 
    Ur/o
  • 98. 
    -ectomy
  • 99. 
    -genic
  • 100. 
    Poly-
  • 101. 
    There are _________ glands in the endocrine system of the body
    • A. 

      4

    • B. 

      5

    • C. 

      8

    • D. 

      9

  • 102. 
    The endocrine subsection of the cpt manual contains codes for ________ endocrine glands
    • A. 

      3

    • B. 

      4

    • C. 

      5

    • D. 

      6

  • 103. 
    Within the endocrine system description, the terms subtotal and ________ mean something less than the total
    • A. 

      Radical

    • B. 

      Partial

    • C. 

      Segmental

    • D. 

      Limited

  • 104. 
    Name the four glands represented in the Endocrine subsection
  • 105. 
    When a society tends to be hasty in bringing lawsuits, it is said to be
    • A. 

      Illegal

    • B. 

      Litigious

    • C. 

      Diligent

    • D. 

      Formidable

  • 106. 
    The latin term for "let the master answer" is
    • A. 

      Litigious

    • B. 

      Ancillary

    • C. 

      Negligent

    • D. 

      Respondeat superior

  • 107. 
    Members of a medical team who are not physicians are called _________ members.
    • A. 

      Cohort

    • B. 

      Third party

    • C. 

      Ancillary

    • D. 

      Emancipated

  • 108. 
    Elements of a legal contract include all of the following except
    • A. 

      An attorney

    • B. 

      Consideration

    • C. 

      Competent parties

    • D. 

      Offer and acceptance

  • 109. 
    A proposition to create a contract is the
    • A. 

      Offer

    • B. 

      Acceptance

    • C. 

      Consideration

    • D. 

      Binding element

  • 110. 
    The "thing of value" that each party gives to the other is the
    • A. 

      Offer

    • B. 

      Acceptance

    • C. 

      Consideration

    • D. 

      Binding element

  • 111. 
    A contract can be terminated when
    • A. 

      A full year has passed

    • B. 

      Both parties agree to terminate it

    • C. 

      Either party defaults on the provisions

    • D. 

      Both b and c are correct

  • 112. 
    The type of contract that exists between a healthcare provider and a patient is a/an
    • A. 

      Implied contract

    • B. 

      Verbal contract

    • C. 

      Written contract

    • D. 

      All of the above are correct

  • 113. 
    When certain precise steps are not followed when a physician terminates the patient/doctor contract it is called
    • A. 

      Cessation

    • B. 

      Termination

    • C. 

      Abandonment

    • D. 

      Altercation

  • 114. 
    A health insurance company is referred to as the
    • A. 

      First party

    • B. 

      Second party

    • C. 

      Third party

    • D. 

      Fourth party

  • 115. 
    The federal act that states that medicare is the secondary payer in the case of automobile or liability coverage is the
    • A. 

      Federal privacy act of 1974

    • B. 

      Federal omnibus budget reconciliation act of 1980

    • C. 

      Tax equity and fiscal responsibility act of 1982

    • D. 

      Consolidated omnibus budget reconciliation act of 1986

  • 116. 
    The act that made medicare benefits secondary to employer group health plans for employees (or spouses) over 65 is the
    • A. 

      Federal privacy act of 1974

    • B. 

      Federal omnibus budget reconciliation act of 1980

    • C. 

      Tax equity and fiscal responsibility act of 1982

    • D. 

      Consolidated omnibus budget reconciliation act of 1986

  • 117. 
    The act that addresses the prevention of healthcare fraud and abuse of patients eligible for medicare and medicaid benefits is the
    • A. 

      Fraud and abuse act

    • B. 

      Federal privacy act of 1974

    • C. 

      Federal omnibus budget reconciliation act of 1980

    • D. 

      Tax equity and fiscal responsibility act of 1982

  • 118. 
    Standards of human conduct (sometimes called morals) are
    • A. 

      Ethics

    • B. 

      Etiquette

    • C. 

      Socialization

    • D. 

      Protocol

  • 119. 
    Following the rules and conventions governing correct or polite behavior in society is called
    • A. 

      Ethics

    • B. 

      Etiquette

    • C. 

      Socialization

    • D. 

      Protocol

  • 120. 
    HIPAA was signed into law in
    • A. 

      1988

    • B. 

      1996

    • C. 

      2000

    • D. 

      2005

  • 121. 
    In compliance with HIPAA, when patients visit their healthcare providers for treatment, they are given a
    • A. 

      Privacy statement

    • B. 

      Waiver of accountability

    • C. 

      Availability statement

    • D. 

      Both a and b are correct

  • 122. 
    When two patients recognize each other in a medical practices reception area, HIPAA refers to this as a/an
    • A. 

      Breach of confidentiality

    • B. 

      Infringement of etiquette

    • C. 

      Incidental disclosure

    • D. 

      Violation of compliance

  • 123. 
    The office of inspector general (OIG) recommends all medical facilities have a
    • A. 

      Protection policy

    • B. 

      Soundproof exam room

    • C. 

      Third-party review panel

    • D. 

      HIPAA compliance plan

  • 124. 
    Medicare and medicaid records must be kept a minimum of _____ years.
    • A. 

      Two

    • B. 

      Three

    • C. 

      Five

    • D. 

      Ten

  • 125. 
    Before medical information can be divulged to a third party, the patient should sign a
    • A. 

      Written consent form

    • B. 

      Assignment of benefits form

    • C. 

      Release of medical information form

    • D. 

      Either a or c is correct

  • 126. 
    Exceptions to confidentiality include all of the following except
    • A. 

      Child abuse

    • B. 

      Emergency treatment

    • C. 

      Communicable diseases

    • D. 

      Injuries caused by firearms

  • 127. 
    An authorization to release information should contain all of the following except the
    • A. 

      Patients name

    • B. 

      Primary diagnosis

    • C. 

      Patients signature

    • D. 

      Description of the information to be released

  • 128. 
    When a health insurance professional intentionally and knowingly misrepresents facts to increase the payment of a claim, it is commonly known as
    • A. 

      Fraud

    • B. 

      Abuse

    • C. 

      Criminal intent

    • D. 

      A breach of etiquette

  • 129. 
    Improper methods of doing business that are contradictory to accepted business practices is a definition of
    • A. 

      Fraud

    • B. 

      Abuse

    • C. 

      Criminal intent

    • D. 

      A breach of etiquette

  • 130. 
    The primary objectives of HIPAA include all of the following except to
    • A. 

      Ensure health insurance portability

    • B. 

      Reduce healthcare fraud/abuse

    • C. 

      Enforce standards for health information

    • D. 

      Lower healthcare costs

  • 131. 
    Upcoding and unbundling of charges are examples of
    • A. 

      Healthcare fraud

    • B. 

      Confidentiality breaches

    • C. 

      HIPAA deregulations

    • D. 

      Exceptions to privacy

  • 132. 
    A clinical, scientific, administrative, and legal document of facts containing statements relating to a patient is a definition of a/an
    • A. 

      Compliance plan

    • B. 

      HIPAA standard

    • C. 

      Medical record

    • D. 

      Retention statute

  • 133. 
    Failure to exercise a resonable degree of care is a definition of
    • A. 

      Fraud

    • B. 

      Abuse

    • C. 

      A crime

    • D. 

      Negligence

  • 134. 
    A legal document that requires an individual to appear in court with a piece of evidence that can be examined by the court is called a/an
    • A. 

      Respondeat superior

    • B. 

      Subpoena duces tecum

    • C. 

      Certificate of evidence

    • D. 

      Notarized sanction

  • 135. 
    Electronic transmissions were first used during what decade
    • A. 

      1940s

    • B. 

      1950s

    • C. 

      1960s

    • D. 

      1970s

  • 136. 
    In order to help improve the healthcare administrative process and, at the same time, simplify it, ________ was created
    • A. 

      CMS

    • B. 

      DHS

    • C. 

      HCFA

    • D. 

      HIPAA

  • 137. 
    A standard format used to transfer information electronically between two parties is known as
    • A. 

      PHI

    • B. 

      EDI

    • C. 

      ICD

    • D. 

      DHS

  • 138. 
    A type of electronic textual messaging system for sending free-format, electronic messages from one party to another is called 
    • A. 

      Faxing

    • B. 

      E-mailing

    • C. 

      Mailboxing

    • D. 

      Transmitting

  • 139. 
    All of the following items are necessary for a medical practice to send claims electronically except 
    • A. 

      A printer

    • B. 

      A modem

    • C. 

      A computer

    • D. 

      HIPAA-compliant software

  • 140. 
    When a medical practice makes a decision to submit insurance claims electronically to a third-party payer, it must usually first go through a/an
    • A. 

      Internal audit

    • B. 

      Appeals process

    • C. 

      Enrollment process

    • D. 

      Background check

  • 141. 
    A type of business whose function is to receive insurance claims from multiple medical practices, consolidate them, and transmit them on to various insurance carriers is known as a/an
    • A. 

      EDI transmitter

    • B. 

      Fiscal intermediary (FI)

    • C. 

      Claims clearinghouse

    • D. 

      Claims consolidation firm

  • 142. 
    The name of the system that electronically transfers data representing money between accounts or organizations is
    • A. 

      Direct data entry (DDE)

    • B. 

      Electronic funds transfer (EFT)

    • C. 

      Electronic medical record (EMR)

    • D. 

      Electronic remittance advice (ERA)

  • 143. 
    The electronic computer file that stores patients health information is called
    • A. 

      Direct data entry (DDE)

    • B. 

      Electronic funds transfer (EFT)

    • C. 

      Electronic medical record (EMR)

    • D. 

      Electronic remittance advice (ERA)

  • 144. 
    One of the most important roles of the healthcare industry is
    • A. 

      Drug management

    • B. 

      Office management

    • C. 

      Inventory management

    • D. 

      Information management

  • 145. 
    One of the chief concerns of electronic medical records (EMRs) is
    • A. 

      Cost

    • B. 

      Training capable staff

    • C. 

      Keeping hardware/software up to date

    • D. 

      Keeping patient information confidential

  • 146. 
    The process by which claims are submitted directly to the insurance carrier is called
    • A. 

      Electronic claims transfer

    • B. 

      Electronic submission

    • C. 

      Electronic transmittal

    • D. 

      Direct data entry

  • 147. 
    The most cost-effective way of submitting claims (when submitting primarily to one carrier) is by using
    • A. 

      Direct data entry (DDE)

    • B. 

      A claims clearinghouse

    • C. 

      A fiscal intermediary (FI)

    • D. 

      U.S. mail

  • 148. 
    Transmitting claim information electronically using a computer and modem is commonly known as
    • A. 

      Electronic ANSII transfer

    • B. 

      Telecommunication

    • C. 

      Facsimile(FAX)

    • D. 

      E-mail

  • 149. 
    The acronym for the federal act that amended HIPAA requiring all medicare claims to be submitted electronically (except for certain circumstances) is
    • A. 

      HHS

    • B. 

      CMS( formerly HCFA)

    • C. 

      ASCA

    • D. 

      EMTLA

  • 150. 
    The primary goal of the health insurance professional is to complete and submit insurance claims
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 151. 
    Since insurance is not a universal concern, health insurance professionals do not need to worry about legal issues
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 152. 
    Medical law and liability is the same in all 50 states
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 153. 
    A contract must be legal before it can be enforced
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 154. 
    Under no circumstances can a minor enter into a legally binding contract
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 155. 
    A patient can terminate the doctor/patient contract simply by paying the bill and not returning to the practice
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 156. 
    In todays healthcare environment, patients are frequently referred to as customers
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 157. 
    HIPAA's regulations affect only healthcare issues
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 158. 
    Businesses have the same obligation to protect medical records as medical practices
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 159. 
    A medical record serves only one purpose-to chronologically document a patients healthcare treatment
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 160. 
    All 50 states have a mandatory, 5-year retention of records law.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 161. 
    It is generally an accepted fact that medical records are the property of the healthcare facility
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 162. 
    There is a subtle distinction between "privacy" and "confidentiality"
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 163. 
    A patient who is being treated for an injury as a result of an accident on the job is not required to sign a release of information
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 164. 
    HIPAA affects various categories of people/businesses involved with healthcare
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 165. 
    Day to day contact with patients presents continuous ethical and legal responsibilities for the health insurance professional
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 166. 
    A three-way contract exists between the physician, the patient, and the insurance carrier
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 167. 
    A medical record is not a legal document
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 168. 
    Timely, complete, and accurate documentation is an important factor in quality patient care
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 169. 
    It is illegal for the health insurance professional to make any documentation entries in a petients health record
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 170. 
    Under no circumstance may information in a patients record be released with the express written authorization by the patient or his/her parent/gaurdian
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 171. 
    The terms fraud and abuse are interchangeable
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 172. 
    Child abuse, but not the abuse of an adult, is an exception to confidentiality
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 173. 
    The federal false claim amendments act (of 1986) expands to the governments ability to control fraud and abuse in healthcare
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 174. 
    COBRA affects employers with more than 20 employees
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 175. 
    With the advent of HIPAA, specific federal guidelines are now in place that provide security and protection for PHI for all healthcare information transmitted electronically
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 176. 
    The uses of standard transaction formats and code sets is required by CMS (formely HCFA) for electronically transmitted health information from providers, health plans, and healthcare clearinghouses
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 177. 
    Effective october 16, 2003, HIPAA made it mandatory ( with no exceptions) that all medicare claims be submitted electronically
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 178. 
    According to ASCA, no other transactions (changes, adjustments, or appeals to the initial claim) are required to be submitted electronically
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 179. 
    Claims submitted via direct data entry (DDE) fall under the category of "other type of electronic claims" and are not subject to the "rule"
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 180. 
    One of the major obstacles in getting a medical practice set up for electronic claims submission is the time it takes to acquire approval from various state and federal agencies
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 181. 
    All medical providers who change to using electronic submissions rather than paper ones will see immediate significant savings
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 182. 
    HIPAA regulations do not apply to the medicare program because it is not considered a "health plan"
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 183. 
    Patient accounting systems can be set up to receive automatic ERA payments
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 184. 
    While EMRs may be the wave of the future, the internet is not safe enough to store and transmit the confidential information contained in them
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 185. 
    The "administrative staff" are the only members of the medical team that are typically involved in the preparation and training of the conversion from a paper to a computerized system
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 186. 
    A "small provider" is a medical facility that has fewer than two practicing physicians
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 187. 
    A medical facility, physician, practitioner, or supplier with fewer than 10 FTEs is called a "small supplier"
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 188. 
    According to ASCA, no claim payment will be made under either Parts A or B of the medicare program unless the claim is submitted electronically with a few exceptions
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 189. 
    A system wherein data representing money is moved electronically between accounts or organizations is called and EMR
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 190. 
    A hospital, skilled nursing facility, home health agency, or hospice with fewer than 25 FTEs is called a
  • 191. 
    Direct and indirect patient contact involves ____________ and ______________ responsibilities
  • 192. 
    Legal form is only applicable in ______________ contracts.
  • 193. 
    To be HIPAA-compliant, a medical facility should develop and maintain a 7-step ___________________________
  • 194. 
    When an individual has the legal ability to handle another persons affairs, he/she is said to have ______________________
  • 195. 
    A physician, practitioner, facility, or supplier with fewer than 10 full-time equivalent (FTE) employees is called a ____________________
  • 196. 
    An electronic file wherein patients health information is stored in a computer system is called a/an ________________________________
  • 197. 
    The document that allows the providers office to receive explanation of benefits electronically is the
  • 198. 
    Which of the following disorders may occur if the thyroid fails to function properly during the formative years of a child's development
    • A. 

      Goiter

    • B. 

      Hashimotos disease

    • C. 

      Graves disease

    • D. 

      Cretinism

  • 199. 
    Because of the drugs action to suppress the bodys inflammatory response, patients on long term adrenocorticoid agents are at risk for the unrecognized advance of which of the following
    • A. 

      Tuberculosis or perforated ulcers

    • B. 

      Hypoglycemia or depression

    • C. 

      Insomnia or lymphedema

    • D. 

      Cancer or emphysema

  • 200. 
    The goal of insulin pump therapy is to do which of the following?
    • A. 

      Deliver a continuous amount of insulin into the bloodstream to maintain a steady blood glucose level

    • B. 

      Deliver boluses of insulin on demand to meet the bodys need

    • C. 

      Deliver both basal doses and boluses to simulate normal beta cell function

    • D. 

      Deliver bolus doses of insulin when activated by the patient

  • 201. 
    Which of the following is necessary for oral hypolycemic agents to be effective in managing diabetes
    • A. 

      Complete lack of insulin production by the body

    • B. 

      Complete normal function of the pancreas

    • C. 

      Insulin resistance

    • D. 

      Release of residual insulin by the pancreas

  • 202. 
    The hormone that induces favorable conditions for the growth and development of the fetus is:
    • A. 

      Estrogen

    • B. 

      Follicle-stimulating hormone

    • C. 

      Progesterone

    • D. 

      Luteinizing hormone

  • 203. 
    Regulating hormones that affect all the other endocrine glands in the body are secreted in which of the following locations
    • A. 

      Medulla

    • B. 

      Posterior lobe of the pituitary

    • C. 

      Anterior lobe of the pituitary

    • D. 

      Thymus

  • 204. 
    Hypothyroidism tends to occur in geographic regions that are deficient in which of the following
    • A. 

      Sunlight

    • B. 

      Fluoride

    • C. 

      Iodine

    • D. 

      Calcium

  • 205. 
    Which of the following are used to suppress the thyroid gland before surgery
    • A. 

      Methimazole and propylthiouracil

    • B. 

      Cortisone and hyrocortisone

    • C. 

      Synthetic thyroid preparations

    • D. 

      Prednisone and triamcinolone

  • 206. 
    Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) has what effect on the body
    • A. 

      Suppression of adrenal hormone secretion

    • B. 

      Stimulation of thyroid hormone secretion

    • C. 

      Suppression of rheumatoid arthritis symptoms

    • D. 

      Stimulation of hydrocortisone secretion

  • 207. 
    Which of the following may accompany the use of hormone replacement therapy for women in menopause
    • A. 

      Urogenital dryness and osteoporosis

    • B. 

      Breast cancer and cardiovascular complications

    • C. 

      Decreased blood glucose and hot flashes

    • D. 

      Insomnia and mood swings

  • 208. 
    Teriparatide (Forteo), a medication used to treat osteoporosis, is derived from which source
    • A. 

      The ornamental yew tree, taxus brevifolia

    • B. 

      Recombinant DNA of human parathyroid hormone

    • C. 

      The rosy periwinkle in madagascar

    • D. 

      Chemically synthesized minerals

  • 209. 
    Which of the following are true about raloxifene hydrochloride (Evista)? select all that apply
    • A. 

      It is prescribed for the treatment of osteomalacia

    • B. 

      It has a lower incidence of breast cancer as a side effect than other similar medications

    • C. 

      It should be used with caution in postmenopausal women

    • D. 

      It is injected on a monthly basis

    • E. 

      It is taken by mouth daily