Kettering Practice Exam

160 Questions  I  By LynnetHuggins
The CRT Practice exam that is in the Kettering package.

  
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1.  What is the normal range for pulmonary capillary wedge pressure in an adult?    
A.
B.
C.
D.
2.  Which of the following techniques measures total lung capacity? 1. Helium dilution 2. Body plethysmograph 3. Single Breath Nitrogen Elimination
A.
B.
C.
D.
3.  Which of the following will give the most accurate measurements of volume and flow? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
4.  The most significant problem associated with the use of a bronchoscope is 
A.
B.
C.
D.
5.  All of the following are true statements about spacers and holding chambers, EXCEPT 
A.
B.
C.
D.
6.  During oral endotracheal intubation, the tip of the Macintosh laryngoscope blade should be placed 
A.
B.
C.
D.
7.  A heat moisture exchanger (HME) could be appropriately used in which of the following situations?  1. Long term mechanical ventilation  2. Short term mechanical ventilation  3. Transport mechanical ventilation 
A.
B.
C.
D.
8.  Which of the following statements is true concerning positive expiratory pressure (PEP) therapy? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
9.  Which of the following drug(s) can be administered via an endotracheal tube? 1. naloxone (Narcan) 2. epinephrine (Adrenaline) 3. diazepam (Valium) 
A.
B.
C.
D.
10.  Which of the following drugs will increase cardiac output and decrease pulmonary vascular resistance? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
11.  Which of the following drugs will lower blood pressure and decrease right ventricular preload by direct vasodilation? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
12.  Which of the following drugs should the therapist recommend for a patient with a serious gram negative infection? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
13.  A patient has taken an overdose of morphine. What drug is indicated to counteract the effects of the morphine? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
14.  A patient with a head injury has increased intracranial swelling. What drug(s) should the therapist recommend to reduce the ICP?  1. acetazolamide (Diamox) 2. mannitol (Osmitrol) 3. succinylcholine (Anectine) 
A.
B.
C.
D.
15.   What is the recommended I:E ratio for NPPV? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
16.  All of the following statements are true concerning NPPV ventilation EXCEPT 
A.
B.
C.
D.
17.  Which of the following controls are available on a chest cuirass ventilator? 1. Tidal volume 2. FI02 3. Inspiratory Time 4. Negative Pressure 5. Flowrate 
A.
B.
C.
D.
18.  What is the correct formula to measure the static lung compliance of a patient on a volume-limited ventilator? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
19.  Which artery should a therapist palpate when deciding whether to initiate chest compressions on an adult patient? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
20.  When initiating oxygen therapy on a patient with a nasal cannula, the therapist would need all of the following EXCEPT 
A.
B.
C.
D.
21.  Mycobacterium tuberculosis is spread primarily by 
A.
B.
C.
D.
22.  Which of the following presents the greatest potential for nosocomial infection? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
23.  The distribution of ventilation in the lungs is measured by: 1. Phase III of the SBN2 Elimination Test 2. N2 wash out time 3. Ventilation lung scan 
A.
B.
C.
D.
24.  Measurement of the PD20% is significant for which of the following? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
25.  A patient develops ascites and shortness of breath. Where is tissue edema most likely to show up first? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
26.  A patient has frequent premature ventricular contractions. Which of the following laboratory measurements would be helpful in determining the cause? 1. Ca02 2. BUN 3. serum electrolytes 
A.
B.
C.
D.
27.  A 48-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after collapsing in a restaurant. Auscultation reveals fine rales in both bases and the electrocardiogram shows a right axis deviation with significant Q waves in leads I and AVL. What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
28.  A patient's chest x-ray reveals increased vascular engorgement emanating from the hilar area in a bat-wing pattern. What is the most likely cause of this finding? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
29.  A patient's electrocardiogram shows a _ depressed S-T segment and inverted T waves during an exercise tolerance test. This would indicate 
A.
B.
C.
D.
30.  During bedside assessment, the therapist auscultates the patient's chest and determines that the patient has bilateral inspiratory and expiratory wheezing. This would imply the patient has 
A.
B.
C.
D.
31.  A flattened diaphragm, widened intercostal spaces and blunting of the costophrenic angles on a chest x-ray would be most consistent with 
A.
B.
C.
D.
32.  Chest x-ray findings of a right-shift of the mediastinum, hyperlucency of the left chest with absent vascular markings would be most likely caused by 
A.
B.
C.
D.
33.  A fiberoptic light source is placed on an infant's right thorax. A lighted halo is seen around the point of contact. The light is then placed on the infant's left chest and no light can be seen. This would indicate that 
A.
B.
C.
D.
34.  Which of the following pieces of equipment would be LEAST appropriate for the victim of a house fire? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
35.  A patient has a transcutaneous oxygen monitor ordered. In order to properly maintain the monitor the therapist should 
A.
B.
C.
D.
36.  A patient is suspected of having developed a pulmonary embolus. Which of the following tests should the therapist recommend to confirm the diagnosis? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
37.  The physician has ordered a shunt study for a patient. After administering 100% oxygen for 20 minutes arterial and mixed venous blood gases are obtained and analyzed:  The patient's PA02 is determined to be 650 mmHg. This would indicate the patient has 
A.
B.
C.
D.
38.  The patient's P(A-a)02 is calculated to be 410 torr. This should be interpreted as 
A.
B.
C.
D.
39.  Based on the P(A-a)02 the respiratory therapist should inform the physician this patient most likely has a problem with 
A.
B.
C.
D.
40.  A patient's Ca02 is 20.1 vol% and the CV02 is 14.6 vol%. The oxygen consumption is 220 mLlmin. The patient's cardiac output would be 
A.
B.
C.
D.
41.  A post-operative patient appears tachypneic and anxious. The patient's PaC02 is 40 torr and the PEC02 is 10 torr. What does this data indicate? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
42.  A patient with chronic ventilatory failure enters the emergency room. The following blood gases and vital signs are obtained while he is breathing room air:  The patient is alert and oriented yet complaining of shortness of breath. Which of the following is the correct acid-base interpretation of these results? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
43.  Serial measurements of the Ca02 and CV02 have been gathered on a patient receiving mechanical ventilation following coronary artery bypass surgery. Which of the a-v content differences below show the greatest decrease in cardiac output? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
44.  A 10-year-old patient with asthma needs to monitor his airflow improvement following each Beta-2 agonist treatment taken at home. Which of the following should the therapist recommend? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
45.  Which of the following can be used to calculate inspiratory capacity? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
46.  The pulmonologist has ordered pulmonary function studies on a patient with severe kyphoscoliosis. Which method would be best to obtain the patient's height? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
47.  The following flow-volume loop was obtained from a 58-year-old man.  What is the most likely diagnosis? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
48.  The following pulmonary function data was obtained from a patient:  These values would be consistent with which of the following conditions? 1. Restrictive pulmonary disease 2. Obstructive pulmonary disease 3. Pulmonary diffusion defect 
A.
B.
C.
D.
49.  A therapist obtains the following information from a patient:  Given this information, this patient 
A.
B.
C.
D.
50.  When the FI02 setting on a large volume nebulizer is changed from 40% to 60%, which of the following will occur? 1. Total flow to the patient will increase 2. More air will be entrained through the nebulizer 3. The density of the aerosol will increase 
A.
B.
C.
D.
51.  An adult patient is intubated with a 7.0 mm 10 endotracheal tube. What size suction catheter should be used to suction this patient? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
52.  A patient with chronic bronchitis is to receive therapy to help remove a large amount of thick purulent secretions. Which of the following devices would be most helpful? 1. mechanical percussor 2. incentive spirometer 3. heated humidifier 4. ultrasonic nebulizer 
A.
B.
C.
D.
53.  A patient is receiving 60% oxygen via a heated nebulizer. The therapist notes that there is insufficient aerosol flow being delivered to the patient. Possible reasons for this include 1. water collecting in tubing 2. low nebulizer water level 3. excessive flow 4. shallow breathing 
A.
B.
C.
D.
54.  A patient has a tracheostomy tube in place. The measured cuff pressure is 28 torr. Which of the following statements is/are true of this situation? 1. The pressure is appropriate for minimal tracheal occlusion. 2. This pressure will most likely cause arterial occlusion. 3. At this pressure, only lymphatic flow will be affected. 4. The pressure will cause tracheal necrosis if maintained. 
A.
B.
C.
D.
55.  A patient has just been intubated with a naso- tracheal tube and is being manually ventilated. As the therapist ventilates the patient, he notices that there is no chest movement, minimal breath sounds and air escaping from the mouth as the bag is squeezed. A chest x-ray has determined that the endotracheal tube is in the correct position. What is the most likely cause of this situation? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
56.  A 2-year-old child with croup has been intubated for 4 days with a 4 mm ID uncuffed endotracheal tube. Heated aerosol at an FI02 of .21 has been delivered to the patient. The physician asks the therapist to evaluate the patient for possible extubation. Which of the following would most likely indicate that the patient is ready for extubation? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
57.  The therapist receives an order for postural drainage and vibration. With the bed flat, the therapist places the patient in a prone position with pillows under his hips. Which lung segments are being treated with this position? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
58.  During CPR the physician is having difficulty establishing an IV route to administer emergency medications. The therapist should recommend that the physician 
A.
B.
C.
D.
59.  While using a pressure-cycled ventilator, an increase in the patient's static lung compliance will 
A.
B.
C.
D.
60.  A pressure-cycled ventilator being used for continuous ventilation fails to cycle into inspiration. This might be caused by: 1. Sensitivity set too high 2. Failure of apnea control 3. An obstruction in the system 4. Expiratory line disconnected 
A.
B.
C.
D.
61.  A patient is receiving controlled ventilation via a Bird Mark 7 ventilator. Suddenly, the ventilator will not cycle into expiration. This problem may be caused by 1. development of pneumothorax. 2. disconnected expiratory valve. 3. leak in the patient tubing. 4. ruptured endotracheal tube cuff. 
A.
B.
C.
D.
62.  Proper instruction for a post-op appendectomy patient receiving incentive spirometry therapy would include: 1. Deep inspirations 2. Inspiratory hold 3. Strong cough effort 4. Pursed lip breathing 
A.
B.
C.
D.
63.  A patient with an artificial airway in place is being ventilated with a pressure cycled ventilator that will not cycle off at end- inspiration. The most likely problem is 
A.
B.
C.
D.
64.  Which of the following will increase the volume delivered to a patient on a pressure limited ventilator?  1. Decreasing the sensitivity 2. Increasing the flow setting 3. Decreasing the flow setting 4. Increasing the pressure setting 
A.
B.
C.
D.
65.  The therapist wants to increase the minute volume for a patient receiving continuous ventilation with a volume-cycled ventilator. Which controls could help accomplish this? 1. Rate 2. Pressure limit 3. Tidal volume 4. Flowrate 
A.
B.
C.
D.
66.  Over the last hour a patient being ventilated with a volume cycled ventilator in the control mode has had a decrease in urine output from 35 mLlhour to 10 mLlhour. The most likely cause of this change would be an increase in the 
A.
B.
C.
D.
67.  The following data has been obtained from four patients who are receiving mechanical ventilation:  Which of the patients meets the criteria for weaning from mechanical ventilation? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
68.  A patient with ARDS is receiving mechanical ventilation in the SIMV mode with an FI02 of 0.60. The physician asks the therapist to perform an optimal PEEP study and the following data is obtained:  What is the optimal PEEP level for this patient? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
69.  A patient requires mechanical ventilation as a result of multiple trauma sustained in an automobile accident several days ago. The current settings are as follows:  The following hemodynamic values have been obtained over the past 4 hours:  The most probable cause for the change in the pressure values would be 
A.
B.
C.
D.
70.  A patient has been weaned from mechanical ventilation. The physician would like the patient's respiratory muscle strength evaluated to determine further weanability. The therapist should evaluate which of the following? 1. VDNT 2. VE 3. MIP 4. CST 5. VC 
A.
B.
C.
D.
71.  A patient's minute volume is 8.5 Llmin and the respiratory rate is 13. What is the tidal volume? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
72.  A patient has reduced lung compliance. Which of the following approaches to ventilation would decrease the risk of barotrauma? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
73.  In order to reduce a patient's PaC02 from 40 torr to 32 torr, all of the following could be increased EXCEPT 
A.
B.
C.
D.
74.  A change in airway resistance would be reflected by a change in 
A.
B.
C.
D.
75.  ll of the following could cause the high pressure alarm on a volume cycled ventilator to sound EXCEPT 
A.
B.
C.
D.
76.  The first parameter to measure when a mechanically ventilated patient is placed on PEEP is 
A.
B.
C.
D.
77.  Which of the following would NOT occur when increasing the flowrate on a constant flow, volume-cycled ventilator that is in the control mode? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
78.  Which of the following would indicate that the lung compliance of a patient on a volume cycled ventilator is increasing? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
79.  When initiating mechanical ventilation for a patient with chronic CO2 retention, the therapist must assure adequate inspiratory flow in order to prevent 
A.
B.
C.
D.
80.  A therapist is administering one rescuer CPR to an adult victim. Another therapist enters the room to help. The therapist doing chest compressions should 
A.
B.
C.
D.
81.  During resuscitation efforts, the therapist notes that the resuscitation bag collapses easily when squeezed and there is no evidence of chest expansion. What would cause this to occur? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
82.  The therapist is resuscitating a patient with chronic CO2 retention. Which of the following flow rates and oxygen concentrations should the therapist use to resuscitate this patient? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
83.  The respiratory therapist is performing manual ventilation via endotracheal tube during cardiopulmonary resuscitation. The patient is a 65-year-old male with a history of lung carcinoma with recurrent pleural effusion. The therapist notes increased resistance during manual ventilation with decreased chest movement and diminished breath sounds on the left. The therapist's first response should be to 
A.
B.
C.
D.
84.  Polysomnography is conducted on a 46-year- old obese woman who complains of insomnia and nocturnal dyspnea. The following results were obtained:  This pattern represents 
A.
B.
C.
D.
85.  A patient is receiving oxygen therapy via a heated nebulizer with an FI02 of 0.60 at a flow of 8 Llmin. What is the total flow delivered to the patient? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
86.  A patient is receiving 40% oxygen via a Venturi-mask at 8 Llmin. While performing oxygen rounds, the therapist notes that the flowmeter setting has been changed to 12 Llmin. How would this change affect the accuracy of the delivery device? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
87.  A patient is receiving heliox therapy with an 80%/20% mixture via non-rebreathing mask. The therapist is using an oxygen flowmeter to deliver the gas mixture. The flowmeter is set at a flow of 10 Llmin. What is the actual flow being delivered to the patient? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
88.  Which of the following devices is best suited for administration of oxygen to a patient with acute pulmonary edema? 
A.
B.
C.
D.