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Human Genetics: 2

60 Questions
Genetics Quizzes & Trivia
Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Which of the choices best describes macroevolution?
    • A. 

      Individuals with one genotype reproduce more than individuals with another genotype in a population

    • B. 

      Many individuals move into a new area

    • C. 

      Mutation creates new alleles that are dominant

    • D. 

      A new species emerges

  • 2. 
    DNA analysis to determine genetic indentity applies
    • A. 

      Mendel;s law of independent assortment and the product rule

    • B. 

      Mendel;s law of segregation and the product rule

    • C. 

      The central dogma

    • D. 

      The law of polymorphism

  • 3. 
    A suspect's guilt seems highly likely when a very rare combination of markers is
    • A. 

      Found in the population the suspect comes from and at the crime scene

    • B. 

      Not found in the population the suspect comes from, but present at the crime scene

    • C. 

      Found in the suspect's DNA but not at the crime scene or in the opopulation the suspect comes from

    • D. 

      Found in the population the suspect comes from, in the suspect's DNA, and at the crime scene

  • 4. 
    Which choice describes a biological population?
    • A. 

      A bird, a lizard, and an insect in a cage at a zoo

    • B. 

      An all-male army

    • C. 

      People living in an apartment building

    • D. 

      Pebbles on a beach

  • 5. 
    All of the genes in a population comprise its
    • A. 

      Genotype

    • B. 

      Gene pool

    • C. 

      Gene frequency

    • D. 

      Gene frequency

  • 6. 
    CODIS is
    • A. 

      A fifteen-base DNA sequence used in DNA profiling

    • B. 

      A type of mutation used in forensic applications

    • C. 

      A system for crime laboratories to share DNA profiles

    • D. 

      The last name of the person who invented DNA profiling

  • 7. 
    Principles of population genetics must be applied to determine identity based on DNA profiling because
    • A. 

      VNTR's are not found in all populations

    • B. 

      Individuals are their own populations

    • C. 

      Random mating does not occur in all populations

    • D. 

      Alleles are invariant between all human populations

  • 8. 
    If one person in 50 is a carrier of an autosomal recessive disorder in a population, the cahnce tha an unrelated man and woman are both carriers is
    • A. 

      1/50

    • B. 

      1/100

    • C. 

      1/2500

    • D. 

      1/25000

  • 9. 
    Who invented DNA profiling?
    • A. 

      Godfrey Hardy

    • B. 

      William Weinberg

    • C. 

      Alec Jeffreys

    • D. 

      Godfrey Hardy and William Weinberg

  • 10. 
    Mitochondrial DNA is helful in obtaining a DNA profile for very degraded genetic material because
    • A. 

      Cells have many mitochondira, and therefore several copies of mtDNA sequences.

    • B. 

      The mitochondrial outer membrane protects it from being damaged

    • C. 

      Mitochondria contain oxidative enzymes ha protect the DNA

    • D. 

      MtDNA consists of a single helix, so it cannot be unwound

  • 11. 
    In a population in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, 75 percent of the individuals have a dominant allele for a particular genen (p+0.75) and 25 percent have a recessive allele (q=0.25). The proportion of homozygous recessive individuals in the F1 generation will be
    • A. 

      2.5%

    • B. 

      6.25%

    • C. 

      18.75%

    • D. 

      25%

  • 12. 
    If the incidence of an autosomal recessive condition is 1/3600 live births, what is the carrier frequency?
    • A. 

      .0003

    • B. 

      .029

    • C. 

      .286

    • D. 

      .684

  • 13. 
    Which of the folowing would not alter a gene's frequency in a population?
    • A. 

      Mutation

    • B. 

      Migration

    • C. 

      Random mating

    • D. 

      Inbreeding

  • 14. 
    Frequency of an X-linked recessive allele in males equals
    • A. 

      P^2

    • B. 

      2pq

    • C. 

      Q^2

    • D. 

      Q

  • 15. 
    If the incidence of Tay-Sachs is 1/3600 Ashkenazim births, what is the heterozygote (carrier) freuency?
    • A. 

      .0003

    • B. 

      .029

    • C. 

      .286

    • D. 

      .684

  • 16. 
    In order to identify (or rule out identity) from a DNA sample that is a mixture, the investigator should know
    • A. 

      How long the DNA has been exposed to the environment.

    • B. 

      How the person perished.

    • C. 

      The population groups to which the person of interest belongs or belonged.

    • D. 

      The genome sequence of the suspect or missing person.

  • 17. 
    VNTRs and STRs differ in that
    • A. 

      A VNTR repeat is shorter than an STR repeat.

    • B. 

      A VNTR repeat is longer than an STR repeat.

    • C. 

      a VNTR is a type of copy number variant and an STR is not.

    • D. 

      An STR is a type of copy number variant and a VNTR is not.

  • 18. 
     
    Frequency of an X-linked recessive allele in males equals
    • A. 

      P^2

    • B. 

      2pq

    • C. 

      Q^2

    • D. 

      Q

  • 19. 
    The allele T is in 85 percent of a population (p=0.85). According to the Hardy-Weinberg equation, what percentage of the population will have the recessive allele t (q=?)?
    • A. 

      15%

    • B. 

      50%

    • C. 

      85%

    • D. 

      100%

  • 20. 
    A "cold hit" refers to
    • A. 

      A DNA profile made from frozen DNA, such as from a wooly mammoth.

    • B. 

      Identifying a suspect from DNA alone.

    • C. 

      A technology to preserve DNA.

    • D. 

      Using CODIS to identify the victim of a crime.

  • 21. 
    Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is possible only if the population is
    • A. 

      Small, with no migration out of in, and females outnumbering males.

    • B. 

      large, with random mating and no migration, mutation, genetic drift, or natural selection.

    • C. 

      Small, with nonrandom mating and no migration, mutation, genetic drift, or artificial selection.

    • D. 

      Large, with nonrandom mating, mutation, genetic drift, and natural selection.

  • 22. 
    In the Hardy-Weinberg equation, 2pq refers to
    • A. 

      The proportion of heterozygotes in a population.

    • B. 

      The number of homozygous dominant individuals in a population.

    • C. 

      The most common phenotype in a population.

    • D. 

      Individuals who are homozygous recessive.

  • 23. 
    Principles of population genetics must be applied to determine identity based on DNA profiling because
    • A. 

      VNTRs are not found in all populations.

    • B. 

      Individuals are their own populations.

    • C. 

      Random mating does not occur in all populations.

    • D. 

      Alleles are invariant between all human populations.

  • 24. 
    Gene flow is the
    • A. 

      Migration of individuals between populations.

    • B. 

      transfer of genes within a population.

    • C. 

      Variation of alleles within a population.

    • D. 

      movement of alleles between populations.

  • 25. 
    In a population in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, the frequency of recessive alleles will _______ over time.
    • A. 

      Increase

    • B. 

      Decrease

    • C. 

      Remain the same

    • D. 

      Increase and then decrease

  • 26. 
    For a very rare inherited disease, the frequency of heterozygotes in a population is
    • A. 

      Half that of the dominant allele.

    • B. 

      Double that of the recessive allele.

    • C. 

      Very close to 0.

    • D. 

      Near 1.

  • 27. 
    The parts of the genome that are used in markers of identity in DNA profiling
    • A. 

      Are in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium and therefore not affected by natural selection acting on a phenotype.

    • B. 

      Are in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium and therefore not affected by natural selection acting on a genotype.

    • C. 

      Are not in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium and therefore not affected by natural selection acting on a phenotype.

    • D. 

      are not in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium and therefore not affected by natural selection acting on a genotype.

  • 28. 
    Which group is used to calculate the frequency of an allele in a population?
    • A. 

      Homozygous recessives

    • B. 

      The most fertile individuals

    • C. 

      Homozygous dominants

    • D. 

      Heterozygotes

  • 29. 
    If the incidence of an autosomal recessive condition is 1/3,600 live births, what is the carrier frequency?
    • A. 

      .0003

    • B. 

      .29

    • C. 

      .286

    • D. 

      .684

  • 30. 
    DNA profiling was less useful in identifying remains from the 2004 tsunami than in criminal cases because
    • A. 

      The DNA after the tsunami was too wet to analyze.

    • B. 

      Rescuers could not get to the scene of the tsunami in time to collect DNA.

    • C. 

      The tsunami left few bodies with collectible DNA.

    • D. 

      Not enough repeats were profiled.

  • 31. 
    A social characteristic that can create clines is
    • A. 

      Religion

    • B. 

      Marriage

    • C. 

      Language

    • D. 

      Geographic barries

  • 32. 
    A small group of islanders leave "island A" and travel to "island B." After several generations on island B, a researcher finds that a large percentage of the population is left-handed. Left-handedness is a relatively rare trait on island A. A genetic event that explains this is
    • A. 

      A population bottleneck

    • B. 

      Genetic load

    • C. 

      A founder effect

    • D. 

      Natural selection

  • 33. 
    The frequency of the allele that causes sickle cell disease is higher in some populations than in others because
    • A. 

      The gene mutates at different frequences in different parts of the world

    • B. 

      The incidence o malaria differs in different parts of the world

    • C. 

      Sickle cell disease screening is better in developed countries

    • D. 

      Heterozygotes are resistant to cholera

  • 34. 
    Darwin thought that all natural selection was negative. However, we have since learned that positive selection is a powerful force, and it
    • A. 

      Creates new gene variants that enhance the phenotype

    • B. 

      Retains gene variants or combinations that promote successful reproduction

    • C. 

      Enables people to resist infectious diseases

    • D. 

      Enables us to alter our genotypes

  • 35. 
    The population of HIV variants in a person's body changes during the course of infection due to
    • A. 

      Natural selection

    • B. 

      Mutation

    • C. 

      Migration

    • D. 

      Genetic drift

  • 36. 
    In human populations, Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is seen
    • A. 

      In small, isolated communities

    • B. 

      In popoulations with many immigrants

    • C. 

      In communities founded by a small number of people

    • D. 

      Infrequently and in large communities with random mating

  • 37. 
    ___in the mycobacterium tuberculosis population reduced the incidence and virulence of tuberculosis in the early twentieth century
    • A. 

      Natural selection

    • B. 

      Mutation

    • C. 

      Migration

    • D. 

      Nonrandom mating

  • 38. 
    Many alleles cause PKU. A unique mutation found only in Yemenite Jews is probably
    • A. 

      More ancient than other PKU mutations

    • B. 

      A result of genetic drift

    • C. 

      Due to a strong heterozygote advantage

    • D. 

      Identical to the original allele

  • 39. 
    To determine the evolutionary history of a gene, geneticists assume that the most prevalent alleles in a population
    • A. 

      Are dominant

    • B. 

      Have mutated the most

    • C. 

      Are the oldest

    • D. 

      Are the most recently acquired

  • 40. 
    A sharp cline may indicate
    • A. 

      A sudden increase in the mutation rate

    • B. 

      A population bottleneck

    • C. 

      A geographical obstacle, such as a moutain

    • D. 

      Exposure to a devasting infectious disease

  • 41. 
    Resistance of sickle cel disease carriers to malaria illustrates
    • A. 

      Genetic drift

    • B. 

      A population bottleneck

    • C. 

      Balanced polymorphism

    • D. 

      A founder effect

  • 42. 
    In the science fiction film When Worlds Collide, 100 individuals are selected to leave a doomed Earth in a spaceship to re-establish humanity elsewhere. This scenario illustrates
    • A. 

      A founder's effect

    • B. 

      A mutation effect

    • C. 

      A population funnel

    • D. 

      A deleterious allele

  • 43. 
    Memers of two populations in different parts of the world have the same form of inherited breast cancer. The affected individuals in each population have only one specific mutation, but it is different between the two populations. An explanation for this mutation difference among these populations is
    • A. 

      A founder eefect

    • B. 

      Mutations associated with religion

    • C. 

      Random mating

    • D. 

      Hardy-Weinberg disequilibrium

  • 44. 
    A founder effect within a founder effect occurred among the
    • A. 

      Old Order Amish of Pennsylvania

    • B. 

      Ashkenazi Jewish people of Eastern Europe

    • C. 

      Pingelapese people of Micronesia

    • D. 

      French Canadians of Quebec

  • 45. 
    • A. 

      A founder effect

    • B. 

      Genetic lad

    • C. 

      A population bottleneck

    • D. 

      A cline

  • 46. 
    A more recently developed cancer treatment is
    • A. 

      Releasing control over apoptosis.

    • B. 

      Stimulating telomerase activity.

    • C. 

      Stimulating cells to return to a stem-like state of specialization.

    • D. 

      Inhibiting angiogenesis.

  • 47. 
    Cancer cells
    • A. 

      divide uncontrollably and then die.

    • B. 

      Are particularly sensitive to extracellular signals.

    • C. 

      divide uncontrollably and are immortal.

    • D. 

      Are impossible to grow in culture.

  • 48. 
    BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutations
    • A. 

      Are X-linked.

    • B. 

      Are incompletely penetrant.

    • C. 

      are translocations.

    • D. 

      Cause several types of leukemia

  • 49. 
    The connection between stem cells and cancer is that
    • A. 

      All stem cells are also cancer cells.

    • B. 

      cells may become cancerous by expressing "stemness" genes.

    • C. 

      Stem cells rescue cells that have become cancerous.

    • D. 

      Stem cells become cancerous if a person smokes.

  • 50. 
    A breast cancer test for HER2 considers
    • A. 

      Genotype

    • B. 

      phenotype.

    • C. 

      Gene expression.

    • D. 

      Mutation rate.

  • 51. 
    Genes that normally prevent cell division are
    • A. 

      Tumor suppressors.

    • B. 

      Transcription factors.

    • C. 

      Proto-oncogenes.

    • D. 

      Growth factors

  • 52. 
    Growth of new blood vessels in and around tumors is called
    • A. 

      Invasiveness.

    • B. 

      angiogenesis.

    • C. 

      Metastasis

    • D. 

      Dedifferentiation.

  • 53. 
    Matthew has the inherited form of the eye cancer retinoblastoma. His disease is caused by
    • A. 

      A germinal mutation in one RB allele, and no mutation in the other allele.

    • B. 

      A somatic mutation in each copy of the RB gene in the same cell.

    • C. 

      A germinal mutation in one RB allele, then a somatic mutation in the other allele.

    • D. 

      A somatic mutation in the one of the RB genes in the same area of the retina of one eye.

  • 54. 
     
    Cancer does not typically follow a Mendelian pattern of inheritance because it is usually caused by
    • A. 

      Two gene variants, one dominant and one recessive, and no environmental input.

    • B. 

      specific combinations of alleles and an environmental factor.

    • C. 

      specific combinations of an environmental factor and one dominant gene variant.

    • D. 

      environmental insults and no genes at all.

  • 55. 
     
    The first mutation typically detected in FAP colon cancer is
    • A. 

      APC

    • B. 

      TGF

    • C. 

      P53

    • D. 

      PRL-3

  • 56. 
    Several genes that cause inherited forms of breast cancer have _____ in common.
    • A. 

      Broken single DNA strands

    • B. 

      increased likelihood of a translocation

    • C. 

      Interference with repair of a double-strand DNA breaks

    • D. 

      Attracting radiation from the environment to the DNA, where it causes breaks

  • 57. 
    Loss of tumor suppression in a cell usually results from
    • A. 

      Cytokine activation of a tumor suppressor gene.

    • B. 

      A translocation of a tumor suppressor gene.

    • C. 

      An inversion involving a tumor suppressor gene.

    • D. 

      A deletion of a tumor suppressor gene.

  • 58. 
    Which of these are thought to have anti-cancer benefits?
    • A. 

      Heterocyclic aromatic amines (HAs)

    • B. 

      Cruciferous vegetables such as broccoli

    • C. 

      Red meats

    • D. 

      Baked potatoes

  • 59. 
     
    Which type of study would compare the incidence of colon cancer among Japanese and Americans of Japanese descent?
    • A. 

      Clinical

    • B. 

      population

    • C. 

      prospective

    • D. 

      Case-control

  • 60. 
    • A. 

      Recessive or dominant mutation in a somatic cell.

    • B. 

      Recessive or dominant germline mutation.

    • C. 

      mutation in a sperm or oocyte.

    • D. 

      exposure to a cancer-causing virus.