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Hit Review Quiz 4

130 Questions
Data Management Quizzes & Trivia

HIT Review Quiz 4

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    In order to be useful, data must be
    • A. 

      Collated

    • B. 

      Arranged

    • C. 

      Processed

    • D. 

      Filed

  • 2. 
    In designing a new information system, the primary consideration should be the
    • A. 

      Cost of the system

    • B. 

      Requirements of the user

    • C. 

      Available technology

    • D. 

      Space available to house the system

  • 3. 
    One disadvangage of dedicated word processing system is
    • A. 

      They cannot store large numbers of documents

    • B. 

      Their cost is very high

    • C. 

      They can only be used for word processing

    • D. 

      They break down frequently

  • 4. 
    Which of the following is not considered a way to improve the security data in a computerized MPI?
    • A. 

      Audit trail

    • B. 

      User password

    • C. 

      Increasing the number of users

    • D. 

      Policies and procedures

  • 5. 
    Major hardware cmoponents of many telecommunications systems are
    • A. 

      Cables

    • B. 

      Modems

    • C. 

      CD-ROM drives

    • D. 

      Telegraph wires

  • 6. 
    Electronic mail is an example of a data communications application called
    • A. 

      Message switching

    • B. 

      Remote job entry

    • C. 

      Source data collection

    • D. 

      Time-sharing

  • 7. 
    Information is
    • A. 

      Less complex than data

    • B. 

      Part of data

    • C. 

      More complex than data

    • D. 

      Compiled from data

  • 8. 
    An integrated group of related activites that work together toward a common goal is a
    • A. 

      System

    • B. 

      Supersystem

    • C. 

      Set

    • D. 

      Mission

  • 9. 
    A hardware device that data may be entered into or retrieved from is
    • A. 

      Storage

    • B. 

      Control unit

    • C. 

      Arithmetic/logic unit

    • D. 

      Input device

  • 10. 
    The portion of the computer that directs the sequence of operations, interprets the coded instructions (the program), and initiates the proper commands to the computer circuits is the
    • A. 

      Storage

    • B. 

      Control unit

    • C. 

      Arithmetic/logic unit

    • D. 

      Peripheral unit

  • 11. 
    Careful planning to ensure that all required components exist in an information system, including appropriate equipment and programs, is generally encompassed in
    • A. 

      Profile analysis

    • B. 

      The data processing cycle

    • C. 

      Systems analysis

    • D. 

      Computer analysis

  • 12. 
    The concept of multiple users for one computer is termed
    • A. 

      Multiuser facility

    • B. 

      Time-sharing

    • C. 

      Real-time operation

    • D. 

      Facility sharing

  • 13. 
    In microcmoputers, the primary input device is the
    • A. 

      CPU

    • B. 

      Monitor

    • C. 

      Keyboard

    • D. 

      Cable

  • 14. 
    Ethernet is an example of
    • A. 

      Network topology

    • B. 

      WAN

    • C. 

      Token ring

    • D. 

      Star network

  • 15. 
    Which of the following is not considered a basic element of the data processing cycle?
    • A. 

      Output

    • B. 

      Storage

    • C. 

      Input

    • D. 

      Control unit

  • 16. 
    A problem with traditional manual file systems is that the same data are often stored in many different places. This is termed
    • A. 

      Data representation

    • B. 

      Data redundancy

    • C. 

      Data flow

    • D. 

      Data design

  • 17. 
    A kilobyte is equal to
    • A. 

      512 characters

    • B. 

      1 million characters

    • C. 

      1,024 characters

    • D. 

      1/1,000 of a character

  • 18. 
    In designing a record tracking system, all of the following are facts that would most probably best be supplied by the health information management director EXCEPT:
    • A. 

      The number of medical records on file

    • B. 

      The number of locationis the medical records might be used in the facility

    • C. 

      The duration of time medical records may spend in one location

    • D. 

      The costs of various components of the system

  • 19. 
    A system that shows who has accessed what information in a computer system, such as a patient registration database, is called a (an)
    • A. 

      Audit trail

    • B. 

      Smart card

    • C. 

      Voiceprint

    • D. 

      Password

  • 20. 
    The most sophisticated application of computers is
    • A. 

      Word processing

    • B. 

      Graphics

    • C. 

      Windowing programs

    • D. 

      Artificial intelligence

  • 21. 
    Client-server technology is comprised of
    • A. 

      A host computer and several workstations

    • B. 

      A network of personal computers with equal functionality

    • C. 

      A mainframe and several dumb terminals

    • D. 

      A standalone personal computer

  • 22. 
    All of the following can be used to connect computers together in a network EXCEPT:
    • A. 

      Twisted pair wiring

    • B. 

      Fiber optic cabling

    • C. 

      Telephone wiring

    • D. 

      Modems

  • 23. 
    In dictation systems, recording media that can be physically removed from the dictation equipment are termed
    • A. 

      Discrete

    • B. 

      Discontinuous

    • C. 

      Partial

    • D. 

      Handheld

  • 24. 
    Assume that one page of copy will hold 250 words. How many kilobytes of storage will be needed to store one page (one work equals six characters)?
    • A. 

      1.75

    • B. 

      1,500

    • C. 

      4.10

    • D. 

      1.46

  • 25. 
    A bedside terminal might use any of the following input devices EXCEPT:
    • A. 

      Light pen

    • B. 

      Keyboard

    • C. 

      Touch screen

    • D. 

      Digital plotter

  • 26. 
    Applications in which word processing may be useful include all of the following EXCEPT:
    • A. 

      Tumor or cancer registry

    • B. 

      Birth certificates

    • C. 

      Budget

    • D. 

      Medical staff committee minutes

  • 27. 
    One of the greatest challenges of computerizing health information is
    • A. 

      System breakdown

    • B. 

      Confidentiality

    • C. 

      Cost of obtaining new systems

    • D. 

      Maintenance cost

  • 28. 
    A device used is telecommunications, using telephone wires, is a
    • A. 

      Modem

    • B. 

      Printer

    • C. 

      Network

    • D. 

      Plotter

  • 29. 
    An optical disk storage system can store medical information from any of the following sources EXCEPT:
    • A. 

      Paper reports

    • B. 

      Radiologic images

    • C. 

      Text transcribed using a work processor

    • D. 

      Subpoenae duces tecum

  • 30. 
    The part of a computer system that contains instructions for storing, manipulating, and retrieving data is termed the
    • A. 

      Control unit

    • B. 

      Storage unit

    • C. 

      Program

    • D. 

      Arithmetic/logic unit

  • 31. 
    The industry standard for the average business word is five characters plus a space. How many words can be stored in a kilobyte of memory?
    • A. 

      170

    • B. 

      1,024

    • C. 

      124

    • D. 

      512

  • 32. 
    In an optical disk storage system, jukeboxes store
    • A. 

      Optical disk platters

    • B. 

      Optical disk software

    • C. 

      Printers

    • D. 

      Reports

  • 33. 
    An example of a high-level computer language is
    • A. 

      Machine language

    • B. 

      MUMPS

    • C. 

      DOS

    • D. 

      Assembly language

  • 34. 
    "The process of connecting records on the same individual that have been generated at different times and in different places" is called
    • A. 

      Record analysis

    • B. 

      Record linkage

    • C. 

      Data linkage

    • D. 

      Information analysis

  • 35. 
    A system whereby several microcomputers within a small geographic area are linked is called a
    • A. 

      Ring formation

    • B. 

      Star network

    • C. 

      Wide area network

    • D. 

      Local area network

  • 36. 
    Descrete storage media in a centralized dictation system using a telephone network include all of the following EXCEPT:
    • A. 

      Plastic belts or disks

    • B. 

      Microcassettes

    • C. 

      Magnetic belts

    • D. 

      Endless loop magnetic tape

  • 37. 
    The process of entering every medication provided, diagnostic test performed, meal served, and other patient service into a system is called
    • A. 

      Cost accounting

    • B. 

      Case-mix analysis

    • C. 

      Charge capture

    • D. 

      Claims processing

  • 38. 
    Medicare inpatient claims are submitted using the
    • A. 

      HCFA-1500

    • B. 

      UB-92

    • C. 

      Accounts receivable

    • D. 

      ECMS

  • 39. 
    All of the following are output devices EXCEPT:
    • A. 

      Optical character readers

    • B. 

      Microfilm units

    • C. 

      Audio response devices

    • D. 

      Printers

  • 40. 
    Computer-generated information regarding patient accounts not yet paid could assist the health information management department in all of the following EXCEPT:
    • A. 

      Determining which health records are not yet filed in the permanent file

    • B. 

      Determining which health records are not yet received from the nursing units

    • C. 

      Determining which health records are not yet coded

    • D. 

      Determining which health records have not yet had abstracted data entered into the computer system that provides information for billing purposes

  • 41. 
    A computerized Registration-Admissions, Discharge and Transfers (R-ADT) system would be used by
    • A. 

      The health information management department

    • B. 

      The admitting department

    • C. 

      The billing department

    • D. 

      Several departments, including the health information management department

  • 42. 
    Peripheral devices include
    • A. 

      Input-output devices

    • B. 

      Control unit

    • C. 

      Primary memory

    • D. 

      Software

  • 43. 
    Computer systems can aid nursing management in all of the following ways EXCEPT:
    • A. 

      Determining patient acuity levels

    • B. 

      Automation of practice guidelines

    • C. 

      Providing counseling to nursing personnel

    • D. 

      Scheduling nursing personnel

  • 44. 
    An example of self-contained dictation media is a
    • A. 

      Tank

    • B. 

      Cassteet

    • C. 

      Disk

    • D. 

      Roll

  • 45. 
    A disadvantage of a shared type of word processing system over a standalone system is that
    • A. 

      Only one person may use the system at any one time

    • B. 

      It is the most costly type of system

    • C. 

      When the system is down, no users are able to work with it

    • D. 

      Media storage is less efficient

  • 46. 
    A health information management department manager would most likely use spreadsheet software for
    • A. 

      Budgeting

    • B. 

      Fi-360 chart tracking

    • C. 

      Correspondence control

    • D. 

      Tumor registry

  • 47. 
    The application whereby a physician enters a request for a particular laboratory test and is able to review the outcome is called
    • A. 

      Test entry/outcome reporting

    • B. 

      Laboratory entry/results review

    • C. 

      Test data entry/laboratory results reporting

    • D. 

      Order entry/results reporting

  • 48. 
    Computer-based repositories of knowledge are called
    • A. 

      Text-based systems

    • B. 

      Expert systems

    • C. 

      Library systems

    • D. 

      Alert systems

  • 49. 
    Controls that can improve the accuracy of data in a computerized health information system must be able to assist all of the following EXCEPT:
    • A. 

      Eror detection

    • B. 

      Error location

    • C. 

      Error manipulation

    • D. 

      Error correction

  • 50. 
    All of the following are examples of administrative information systems that support the daily management of healthcare facilities EXCEPT:
    • A. 

      Patient registration systems

    • B. 

      Financial information systems

    • C. 

      Human resource managment systems

    • D. 

      Clinical decision support systems

  • 51. 
    ____________________ are attached to data bases for the purpose of diverting the transmissons of data.
    • A. 

      Sniffers

    • B. 

      Hackers

    • C. 

      Both B and C

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 52. 
    Which of the following is not a subcategory of the management support system, which provides reporting information?
    • A. 

      Management information systems

    • B. 

      Strategic decision support systems

    • C. 

      Facilities management systems

    • D. 

      Executive information systems

  • 53. 
    HIPPA data security provisions are divided into four sections, which include administrative provisions, physicial safeguards, technical safeguards, and ________________.
    • A. 

      Personnel

    • B. 

      Environmental

    • C. 

      Network and communication

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 54. 
    The system development life cycle (SDLC) includes four general phases that follow what sequence?
    • A. 

      Design, planning and analysis, implementation, maintenance and evaluation

    • B. 

      Planning and anaylsis, design, inplementation, maintenance and evaluation

    • C. 

      Planning and anaylsis, implementation, maintenance and evaluation, design

    • D. 

      Design, implementation, planning and implementation, maintenance and evaluation

  • 55. 
    What type of communication devices is used for patients to access information regarding office locations or patient aducational materials?
    • A. 

      Information kiosk

    • B. 

      Web center

    • C. 

      E-mail communication

    • D. 

      Smart card

  • 56. 
    As project manager of a new computer-based system at your healthcare facility, you are at the point where you must create the request for proposal. What phase of the systems development life cycle are you in?
    • A. 

      Planning and analysis

    • B. 

      Design

    • C. 

      Implentation

    • D. 

      Maintenance and evaluation

  • 57. 
    Who is responsible for leading the stragetic IS planning process for assisting and overseeing the organizations IS functions?
    • A. 

      Chief Information Officer (CIO)

    • B. 

      Information Systems Steering Committee

    • C. 

      Chief Security Officer (CSO)

    • D. 

      Chief Privacy Officer

  • 58. 
    A physician at your hospital wants to check on a patient and logs on to the computer where he/she looks at the patient's status, laboratory results, recent medications given, and former history and physical information. The software that can converge different types of documents together to allow this process is called
    • A. 

      Videoconferencing

    • B. 

      Groupware

    • C. 

      Decision support systems

    • D. 

      Interactive voice technology

  • 59. 
    The term _________ controls refer to the implementation of procedures used to keep documented logs of system access and access attempts iwth regards to HIPAA standards.
    • A. 

      Physical access

    • B. 

      Audit

    • C. 

      Authorization

    • D. 

      Access

  • 60. 
    The standard user interface that uses icons that represent different computer tasks and programs is known as
    • A. 

      Programming languages

    • B. 

      Structured query language (SQL)

    • C. 

      Graphical user interface (GUI)

    • D. 

      Database management system (DBMS)

  • 61. 
    Public Law 104-191, passed in 1996, which provides data security practices and standards, is known as the
    • A. 

      Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS)

    • B. 

      Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)

    • C. 

      National Research Council 2000 (NRC)

    • D. 

      Computer-based Patient Record Institute (CPRI)

  • 62. 
    You are a HIM Director and are in the process of writing a request for proposal (RFP) for a new system. The vendors that you hae selected to complete the cost-benefit analysis are Oracle, SQL Server, Sybase, and Access. What type of information system are you researching?
    • A. 

      Spreadsheet system

    • B. 

      Word sprocessing system

    • C. 

      Data base management system

    • D. 

      Graphical presentation system

  • 63. 
    What is the common language that is used to store and retrieve data in any data base management system?
    • A. 

      Use of ones and zeros (binary language)

    • B. 

      Standard set of abbreviations

    • C. 

      COBOL and BASIC

    • D. 

      structured query language (SQL)

  • 64. 
    What type of database stores data in predefined tables made up of rows and columns?
    • A. 

      Relational database

    • B. 

      Object-oriented database

    • C. 

      Object-relational database

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 65. 
    Computer networks rely on _______________ that use the same language to communicate.
    • A. 

      Controls

    • B. 

      Servers

    • C. 

      Protocols

    • D. 

      Services

  • 66. 
    Data _________________ provides the ability of a business to access data from multiple databases and combine the results into a single reporting interface.
    • A. 

      Dictionary

    • B. 

      Warehouse

    • C. 

      Security

    • D. 

      Availability

  • 67. 
    ________________ encodes information and converts it to unreadable symbols and characters, which must be decoded for the purose of protecting data.
    • A. 

      Access controls

    • B. 

      Authorization controls

    • C. 

      Encryption

    • D. 

      Entity authentication

  • 68. 
    • A. 

      1,033 lines per day

    • B. 

      1,030 lines per day

    • C. 

      858 lines per day

    • D. 

      5,150 lines per day

  • 69. 
    Quality management includes all of the following EXCEPT:
    • A. 

      Risk management

    • B. 

      Quality assessment

    • C. 

      Utilization management

    • D. 

      Billing process review

  • 70. 
    A hospital's utilization management plan should outline all of the following EXCEPT:
    • A. 

      The organization of the committee

    • B. 

      The administrative support for the utilization management program

    • C. 

      The relationship of the utilizationmanagement program to other quality management activites

    • D. 

      Qualifications of the utilization management coordinator

  • 71. 
    Programs designed to control liability for human errors and equipment failures are termed
    • A. 

      Utilization review/management programs

    • B. 

      Quality management programs

    • C. 

      Risk management programs

    • D. 

      Continuing education programs

  • 72. 
    Which type of review is not considered a medical staff function included in the quality management program?
    • A. 

      Blood usage review

    • B. 

      Medical revord review

    • C. 

      Surgical case review

    • D. 

      Safety review

  • 73. 
    To develop a frame of reference in order to understand the major facts, issues, and underlying theories already addressed that surround the research topic, the researcher should not do which of the following?
    • A. 

      Review literature in his or her own discispline

    • B. 

      Review literature in other disciplines

    • C. 

      Ignore if no literature in one's discipline is available

    • D. 

      Consult with colleagues and/or experts

  • 74. 
    Once the problem is found to be a feasible topic for study and has been clearly formulated, a second literature review at this point
    • A. 

      Is not necessary

    • B. 

      Can be minimal

    • C. 

      Is more selective than the first review

    • D. 

      Is unhelpful in determining the research design

  • 75. 
    A health information management's transcription unit is open Monday through Friday during the day. It is responsible for transcribing and average of 200,000 lines of dictation in each 4-week period. The transcription minimum productivity standard for this unit is 1,000 lines per day. How many FTE (fulltime equivalent) transcriptionist are needed to staff the unit?
    • A. 

      10.0

    • B. 

      7.14

    • C. 

      40.0

    • D. 

      8.0

  • 76. 
    PL 92-603 provided for the establishment of
    • A. 

      PSROs

    • B. 

      JCAHO as a government organization

    • C. 

      PROs

    • D. 

      ACS

  • 77. 
    Risk management programs were introduced to reduce
    • A. 

      Hospital charges

    • B. 

      Malpractice suits

    • C. 

      The number of hospital personnel

    • D. 

      Complaints related to billing

  • 78. 
    Screening criteria used in utilizatino review must be
    • A. 

      Objective

    • B. 

      Subjective

    • C. 

      Approved by the quality management committee

    • D. 

      Written by the individuals to whose services the criteria will be applied

  • 79. 
    Utilization review/management (UR/UM) first became mandatory
    • A. 

      With the passage of Medicare legislation

    • B. 

      With the passage of PSRO legislation

    • C. 

      When JCAHO assumed the task of accrediting hospitals

    • D. 

      As each state passed UR legislation

  • 80. 
    The QI pioneer who developed the threefaceted approach to quality or quality triangle, which included the quality, all-one-team, scientific approach
    • A. 

      W. Edward Deming

    • B. 

      Joseph Juran

    • C. 

      Philip Crosby

    • D. 

      Brian Joiner

  • 81. 
    The process advocate by JCAHO to monitor, evaluate, and solve problems in patient care is called the
    • A. 

      JCAHO process

    • B. 

      10 step process

    • C. 

      Medicare Quality Management process

    • D. 

      Clinical monitoring and evaluation process

  • 82. 
    PL 92-603 was
    • A. 

      An amendment to the Social Security Act

    • B. 

      The law establishing risk management programs in hospitals

    • C. 

      The law establishing quality management programs in hospitals

    • D. 

      The law that established the Medicare program

  • 83. 
    One a patient care service defines its important aspects of care, which of the following does not occur?
    • A. 

      Indicators are developed

    • B. 

      The services's major functions are defined

    • C. 

      Thresholds are defined

    • D. 

      Indicators are evaluated

  • 84. 
    Under PL 92-603, all hospitals were required to have a
    • A. 

      UR (UM) coordinator

    • B. 

      UR (UM) department

    • C. 

      UR (UM) secretary

    • D. 

      UR (UM) plan

  • 85. 
    Incident reports are analyzed
    • A. 

      Concurrently

    • B. 

      Within 2 month of discharge

    • C. 

      Immediately after discharge

    • D. 

      Within 3 months of discharge

  • 86. 
    A transcription unit supervisor decides that an error rate of 2% or less is acceptable; in other words, no more than 2% of the lines typed may contain errors. Through proofreading a sample of work, it is found that there are 156 lines with errors among 2,586 lines of dictation. This unit has
    • A. 

      Exactaly met its standard

    • B. 

      Done better than its standard

    • C. 

      Done worse than it standard

    • D. 

      An error rate that cannot be calculated, given the information provided

  • 87. 
    As a result of external pressure to contain costs, many hospitals are entering into insurance plans that provide clients (i.e., patients) with incentives to use that particular hospital. Such plans are termed
    • A. 

      Health maintain organizations

    • B. 

      Preferred provider organizations

    • C. 

      Fixed-cost associations

    • D. 

      Community health provider organizations

  • 88. 
    The purpose of QIOs does not include determining which of the following?
    • A. 

      Whether services provided were medically necessary

    • B. 

      Whether the quality of services provided met professionally recognized standards of health care

    • C. 

      Whether the care was provided in the most economical setting consistent with the patient's health care needs

    • D. 

      Whether the health care facility had met accreditation and licensing standards

  • 89. 
    A tool for identifying protential risks before an incident occurs is the
    • A. 

      Hazard surveillance report

    • B. 

      Quality assessment report

    • C. 

      Risk management report

    • D. 

      Utilization management report

  • 90. 
    In 1986, JCAHO launched a major new quality project that was intended to shift its emphasis from review of structure and process to review of
    • A. 

      Risk reduction

    • B. 

      Outcome

    • C. 

      Credentialing

    • D. 

      Utilization review procedures

  • 91. 
    Relevant findings from quality management activities must be considered as part of the
    • A. 

      Reappointment of medical staff members

    • B. 

      Selection or election of medical staff officers

    • C. 

      Renewal of contracts with hospital counsel

    • D. 

      Renewal of contracts with third-party payors

  • 92. 
    The type of review not performed in the UR/UM process is which of the following?
    • A. 

      Concurrent review

    • B. 

      Applied review

    • C. 

      Retrospective review

    • D. 

      Preadmission review

  • 93. 
    If the need for admission cannot be determined, the case is first referred to
    • A. 

      The attending physician

    • B. 

      A physician reviewer

    • C. 

      The utilization management coordinator

    • D. 

      The Utilization Management committee

  • 94. 
    A mechanism that can help identify risk from physician-related activities is termed
    • A. 

      Quality screening

    • B. 

      Incident screening

    • C. 

      Hazard screening

    • D. 

      Occurrrnce screening

  • 95. 
    A stringent test of the quality of professional research is
    • A. 

      Its ability to be duplicated with the same results

    • B. 

      Whether the results agree with the hypothesis

    • C. 

      Whether the research project can be completed

    • D. 

      Whether funding can be obtained to complete the research project

  • 96. 
    Which of the following would not be considered an example of overutilization?
    • A. 

      Repreated tests due to delays in reporting of results

    • B. 

      Premature discharge

    • C. 

      Ancillary services that are not beneficial

    • D. 

      Ambulatory care provided to an inpatient

  • 97. 
    The primary tool for identifying risk is the
    • A. 

      Medical record

    • B. 

      Incident report

    • C. 

      Subpoena duces tecum

    • D. 

      Diagnostic index

  • 98. 
    Besides JCAHO, organizations(s) that strongly influence(s) quality management activity in a hospital is (are)
    • A. 

      Medicare

    • B. 

      Centers for Disease Control

    • C. 

      State cancer registries

    • D. 

      Medical specialty boards

  • 99. 
    An example of hospitalwide quality assessment is
    • A. 

      Credentialing

    • B. 

      Blood usage review

    • C. 

      Dietetic review

    • D. 

      Infection control

  • 100. 
    Which of the following is not considered an example of research design?
    • A. 

      Descriptive studies

    • B. 

      Featured studies

    • C. 

      Exploratory studies

    • D. 

      Testing of casual relationships

  • 101. 
    Two types of casual research design are
    • A. 

      Comparative and correlational

    • B. 

      Historical and exploratory

    • C. 

      Survey and investigative

    • D. 

      Descriptive and experimental

  • 102. 
    Which of the following is not a data-gathering method?
    • A. 

      Mearuement

    • B. 

      Observation

    • C. 

      Correlation

    • D. 

      Questioning

  • 103. 
    If you want to analyze the relationship between age and weight in female patients over age 30, which diagram would help you determine if there is a relationship or not?
    • A. 

      Run chart

    • B. 

      Scatter diagram

    • C. 

      Pareto chart

    • D. 

      Flow chart

  • 104. 
    The sampling technique that is used when, for example, every 10th member of the population is chosen, is called
    • A. 

      Simple random

    • B. 

      Stratified random

    • C. 

      Cluster

    • D. 

      Systematic

  • 105. 
    An HIM department might utilize this QI tool to cahrt trends in response time to physicians' record requests
    • A. 

      Histogram

    • B. 

      Bar graph

    • C. 

      Frequency polygon

    • D. 

      Comparative list

  • 106. 
    This QI pioneer believed that the standard for quality should be "zero defects."
    • A. 

      W. Edward Deming

    • B. 

      Joseph Juran

    • C. 

      Philip Crosby

    • D. 

      Brian Joiner

  • 107. 
    The measure that shows the degree to which scores scatter around the mean is called the
    • A. 

      Median

    • B. 

      T-score

    • C. 

      Variance

    • D. 

      Z-score

  • 108. 
    When a researcher rejects the null hypothesis when it is true, the error is called
    • A. 

      A type II error

    • B. 

      A statistical error

    • C. 

      An error in significance

    • D. 

      A type I error

  • 109. 
    The characteristic of research procedures that is demonstrated when a data collection instrument (such as a text) is given twice under the same circumstances and produces identical data is called
    • A. 

      Validity

    • B. 

      Reliability

    • C. 

      Sensitivity

    • D. 

      Appropriateness

  • 110. 
    The exact reverse of the research hypothesis is the
    • A. 

      Type I hpyothesis

    • B. 

      Inferred hypothesis

    • C. 

      Null hypothesis

    • D. 

      Described hypothesis

  • 111. 
    If you want to make a month-to-month comparison of the number of coding errors by the coding staff, which of the following QI tools would provide an assessment of this raw data?
    • A. 

      Cause-and-effect diagram

    • B. 

      Flow chart

    • C. 

      Histogram

    • D. 

      Bar graph

  • 112. 
    The PDCA (Plan, Do, Check, Act) method was developed in the 1920s by__________?
    • A. 

      Brian Joiner

    • B. 

      Joseph Juran

    • C. 

      W. Edwards Deming

    • D. 

      Walter Shewhart

  • 113. 
    If you want to show how a process changes and fluctuates over a certain period of time, the CQI of choice would be a
    • A. 

      Bar graph

    • B. 

      Run chart

    • C. 

      Pie chart

    • D. 

      Pareto chart

  • 114. 
    This QI pioneer identified the 14 points for companies to follow for a successful quality improvement program
    • A. 

      Brian Joiner

    • B. 

      Joseph Juran

    • C. 

      W. Edwards Deming

    • D. 

      Walter Shewhart

  • 115. 
    You have noticed a problem with the filing of loose reports in the file area. As supervisor of the file area, you find out the root causes for this problem. The QI tool that you should use would be the
    • A. 

      Cause-and-effect diagram

    • B. 

      Flow chart

    • C. 

      Histogram

    • D. 

      Bar graph

  • 116. 
    You are HIM director and need to give a report on the number of delinquent records coming into your department for the month of November. Which QI tool would be helpful in gathering this information?
    • A. 

      Histogram

    • B. 

      Decision matrix

    • C. 

      Bar graph

    • D. 

      Check sheet

  • 117. 
    The crude distance between scores is the
    • A. 

      Interquartile range

    • B. 

      Mode

    • C. 

      Median

    • D. 

      Range

  • 118. 
    Under PL 92-603, which information was not necessary to review by the UR/UM committee?
    • A. 

      Medicaid admissions

    • B. 

      Medicare admissions

    • C. 

      Blue Cross admissions

    • D. 

      Maternal and Child Health Program admissions

  • 119. 
    The kind of measurement scale that orders data into ranks is called
    • A. 

      Nominal scale

    • B. 

      Ordinal scale

    • C. 

      Interval scale

    • D. 

      Ratio scale

  • 120. 
    The cause-and-effect diagram is also known as the
    • A. 

      Pareto chart

    • B. 

      Scatter diagram

    • C. 

      Fishbone diagram

    • D. 

      PDCA chart

  • 121. 
    You are HIM director and have noticed an increase in errors in your chart analysis clerks. After offering the chart analysis clerks an inservice, you would like to demonstrate that progress has been made and show before-and-after data. What QI tool would effectively display this before-and-after data and the progress made of these employee?
    • A. 

      Scatter diagram

    • B. 

      Radar chart

    • C. 

      Histogram

    • D. 

      Fishbone diagram

  • 122. 
    The terms "continuous quality improvement" and "quality assurance" are used interchangeably but are two different concepts. Which of the following would be characteristics of "continuous quality improvement?"
    • A. 

      Emphasis is on monitoring whether the appropriate things are being done correctly with a focus on indicidual performance

    • B. 

      Attention is first on the processes and causes

    • C. 

      The focus is on outliers, bad apples, and clinical outcomes

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 123. 
    _______________________ was designed in 1997 to incorporate outcomes measurement and monitoring into the accreditation process for hospitals, long-term care organizations, and health care networks.
    • A. 

      JCAHO's ten-step process

    • B. 

      ORYX initiative

    • C. 

      National Committee for Quality Assurance

    • D. 

      Clinical Practice Guidelines

  • 124. 
    A(n) ___________ is a measurement that targets events or patterns of events suggestive of a problematic process or behavior.
    • A. 

      Threshold

    • B. 

      Quality indicator

    • C. 

      Performance measure

    • D. 

      Variance

  • 125. 
    The QI pioneer who believed that training should be at top management to identify problems and opportunities for improvement, and then training of employees to assist in proposing and implementing solutions.
    • A. 

      Philip Crosby

    • B. 

      W. Edward Deming

    • C. 

      Brian Joiner

    • D. 

      Joseph Juran

  • 126. 
    Pareto charts
    • A. 

      Display categories of data in descending order

    • B. 

      Display how indicidual aspects relate to the whole

    • C. 

      Display how often an event occurs

    • D. 

      Display data over time

  • 127. 
    Which of the following represents the "Do" phase of the PDCA method?
    • A. 

      Incorporate changes into department policies

    • B. 

      Identify costs, people, and materials

    • C. 

      Decide on improvement initiatives

    • D. 

      Meet with staff to discuss changes

  • 128. 
    When you want to generate ideas on a particular subject and then incorporate a rating system for prioritizing ideas, you would use what QI tool?
    • A. 

      Questionnaire/survey

    • B. 

      Brainstorming

    • C. 

      Nominal Group Technique (NGT)

    • D. 

      Check sheet

  • 129. 
    A tool used for achieving simultaneous goals of optimal care and appropriate resource utilization are called
    • A. 

      Clinical pathways

    • B. 

      Total quality management

    • C. 

      Quality indictors

    • D. 

      Clinical practice quidelines

  • 130. 
    The terms used to mean the radical rethinking of the organization's processes rather than department performance is called
    • A. 

      Redesigning

    • B. 

      Change management

    • C. 

      Reengineering

    • D. 

      None of the above

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