Exam 4, Micro Study For Final

54 Questions  I  By Smoore2
Please take the quiz to rate it.

Study Guide Quizzes & Trivia
Exam 4 study guide for final, summer 2010

  
Changes are done, please start the quiz.


Questions and Answers

Removing question excerpt is a premium feature

Upgrade and get a lot more done!
  • 1. 
    Infection occurs when
    • A. 

      Contaminants are present on the skin

    • B. 

      A person swallows microbes in/on food

    • C. 

      A person inhales microbes in the air

    • D. 

      Pathogens enter and multiply in body tissues

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct


  • 2. 
    All infectious diseases
    • A. 

      Are contagious

    • B. 

      Only occur in human

    • C. 

      Are caused by microorganisms or their products

    • D. 

      Are caused by vectors

    • E. 

      Involve viruses as the pathogens


  • 3. 
    Which is not terminology used for resident flora
    • A. 

      Pathogenic flora

    • B. 

      Normal flora

    • C. 

      Indigenous flora

    • D. 

      Normal microflora

    • E. 

      All of the above


  • 4. 
    Endogenous infectios agents arise from microbes that are
    • A. 

      In food

    • B. 

      In patients own normal flora

    • C. 

      On fomites

    • D. 

      In the air

    • E. 

      Transmitted from one person


  • 5. 
    Virulence factors include all of the following except
    • A. 

      Capsules

    • B. 

      Ribosomes

    • C. 

      Exoenzymes

    • D. 

      Endotoxin

    • E. 

      Exotoxin


  • 6. 
    These bacteria are opportunistic pathogens. These microbes pose an increased threat for those suffering from cystic fibrosis
    • A. 

      Pseudomonas sp.

    • B. 

      Enterobacteriaceae

    • C. 

      Staphyloicoccus sp.

    • D. 

      Streptococcus sp.


  • 7. 
    Which STD is estimated to be the most prevalent in cases each year in the USA
    • A. 

      Herpex simplex

    • B. 

      AIDS

    • C. 

      Human papillomavirus

    • D. 

      Syphillis

    • E. 

      Trichomoniasis


  • 8. 
    The time from when pathogen first enters the body and begins to multiply, until symptoms first appear is the
    • A. 

      Prodromal stage

    • B. 

      Convalescent stage

    • C. 

      Incubation period

    • D. 

      Period of invasion

    • E. 

      All of the above


  • 9. 
    Local edema, swollen lymph nodes, fever, soreness, and abscesses are indications of
    • A. 

      Toxemia

    • B. 

      Inflammation

    • C. 

      Sequelae

    • D. 

      A syndrome

    • E. 

      Latency


  • 10. 
    The principal government agency responsible for rtacking infectious diseases in the USA is
    • A. 

      Centers for Disease Control and Prevention

    • B. 

      World Health Organization

    • C. 

      National Institute of Health

    • D. 

      United States Department of Agriculture

    • E. 

      Infections Control Committee


  • 11. 
    A disease that has a steady frequency over time in a population is
    • A. 

      Epidemic

    • B. 

      Endemic

    • C. 

      Pandemic

    • D. 

      Sporadic

    • E. 

      Chronic


  • 12. 
    The primary, natural habitat of a pathogen where it continues to exist is called the
    • A. 

      Fomite

    • B. 

      Carrier

    • C. 

      Vector

    • D. 

      Reservoir

    • E. 

      Source


  • 13. 
    An inanimate object that harborts and transmits a pathogen is a
    • A. 

      Fomite

    • B. 

      Carrier

    • C. 

      Vector

    • D. 

      Reservoir

    • E. 

      Source


  • 14. 
    Nosocomial infections involve all the following except
    • A. 

      They are only transmitted by medical personell

    • B. 

      They often involve the patients urinary tract and surgical incisions

    • C. 

      The patients resident flora can be the infectious agent

    • D. 

      Escherichia coli and Staphylococci are common infectious agents

    • E. 

      Medical and surgical asepsis help lower their occurrence


  • 15. 
    When would Koch's Postulates be utilized
    • A. 

      To determine the cause of a ptients illeness in a hospital microbiology labe

    • B. 

      To develop a new antibiotic in a pharmaceutical lab

    • C. 

      To determine the cause of a new disease in a microbiology lab

    • D. 

      To formulate a vaccine against a new pathogen in a genetic engineering lab

    • E. 

      Whenever the scientific method is used to investigate a microbiological problem


  • 16. 
    Components of the first line of defense include all of the following except
    • A. 

      The tough cell sheet of the upper epidermis of the skin

    • B. 

      Nasal hairs

    • C. 

      Flushing action of tears and blinking

    • D. 

      Flushing action of urine

    • E. 

      Phagocytic white blood cells


  • 17. 
    Nonspecific chemical defense include
    • A. 

      Lysozyme

    • B. 

      Lactic acid and electrolytes of sweat

    • C. 

      Skins acidic PH and fatty acid

    • D. 

      All of the abvove


  • 18. 
    Which cell type is phagocytotic and can migrate out into body tissues to differentiate inot macrophages
    • A. 

      Basophil

    • B. 

      Eosinophil

    • C. 

      Nuetrophil

    • D. 

      Monocyte

    • E. 

      Lymphocyte


  • 19. 
    Diapedesis is the
    • A. 

      Loss of blood due to hemorhaging

    • B. 

      Production of only red blood cells

    • C. 

      Production of white blood cells

    • D. 

      Plugging of broken vessels to stop bleeding

    • E. 

      Migration of white blood cells from the blood out to the tissue


  • 20. 
    Plasma cells
    • A. 

      Function in cell mediated immunity

    • B. 

      Are derived from T-lymphocytes

    • C. 

      Function in blood clotting

    • D. 

      Produce and secrete antibodies

    • E. 

      All of the above


  • 21. 
    The circulating subastances that affect the hypothalmus and initiate fever are
    • A. 

      Complement

    • B. 

      Interferons

    • C. 

      Leukotrienes

    • D. 

      Pyrogens

    • E. 

      Lysozymes


  • 22. 
    Which is incorrect about complement
    • A. 

      Composed of at least 26 blood protiens

    • B. 

      Only appear in the blood during a response to a pathogen

    • C. 

      Act in a cascade reaction

    • D. 

      Involves a classical pathway

    • E. 

      Involves an alternate pathway


  • 23. 
    The membrane attack stage of the complement cascade involves
    • A. 

      Initiation of the cascade

    • B. 

      Production of inflammatory cytokines

    • C. 

      Ring shaped protein consisting of many C9 proteins, digests holes in bacterial cell membrane and virus envelopes

    • D. 

      Cleaving of C3 to yield C3a and C3b

    • E. 

      C1q binds to surface receptors on a membrane


  • 24. 
    All of the following are types of granulocytes because they have prominent cytoplasmic granules when stained except
    • A. 

      Eosinophils

    • B. 

      Monocytes

    • C. 

      Neutrophils

    • D. 

      Basophils

    • E. 

      They are all granulocytes


  • 25. 
    The contribution of B cells is mainly in
    • A. 

      Inflamation

    • B. 

      Humoral immunity

    • C. 

      Complement activity

    • D. 

      Cell mediated immunity

    • E. 

      Phagocytosis


  • 26. 
    The blood cells that particularly target parasitic worms and fungi are
    • A. 

      Basophils

    • B. 

      Eosinophils

    • C. 

      Neutrophils

    • D. 

      Monocytes

    • E. 

      Lymphocytes


  • 27. 
    Cell surface markers involved in immune reactions
    • A. 

      Are the result of genetic expression.

    • B. 

      Function in recognition of self molecules.

    • C. 

      Recieve and transmit chemical messages among other cells of the system.

    • D. 

      Aid in cellular development.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.


  • 28. 
    The major histocompatability complex is
    • A. 

      A group of blood vessels that protects the nervous system.

    • B. 

      A set of genes that code for MHC cell receptors.

    • C. 

      Also known as the complement system.

    • D. 

      Located in the thymus gland.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.


  • 29. 
    Class II MHC genes code for
    • A. 

      Certain secreted complement componets.

    • B. 

      Self receptors recognized by natural killer cells.

    • C. 

      All HLA antigens

    • D. 

      Receptors located primarily on macrphages, dendritic cells, and B cells.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.


  • 30. 
    The monomer subunit of immunoglobulin molecules has all the following except
    • A. 

      Two identical heavy polypeptide chains.

    • B. 

      Two identical light polypeptide chains.

    • C. 

      Disulfide bonds between polypeptide chains.

    • D. 

      Four antigen binding sites.

    • E. 

      A vaiable and constant region on each polypeptide chain.


  • 31. 
    Small foreign molecules that are too small by themselves to elict an immune response are termed
    • A. 

      Antigentic determinant.

    • B. 

      Hapten.

    • C. 

      Antigen binding sites.

    • D. 

      Variable region.

    • E. 

      None of the choices are correct.


  • 32. 
    Superantigens are
    • A. 

      Body tissues that the immune system mistakes as foreign.

    • B. 

      Cell markers found in some member of a species but not in other members.

    • C. 

      Bacterial toxins that activate T cells at a times greater rate then other antigens.

    • D. 

      Those that evoke allergic reactions.

    • E. 

      None of the choices are correct.


  • 33. 
    Antigen presenting cells
    • A. 

      Include dendritic cells.

    • B. 

      Include macrophages.

    • C. 

      Engulf and modify antigen to be more immunogentic.

    • D. 

      Hold and present processed antigen on their cell membrane surface.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.


  • 34. 
    Mold spores and animal dander are cinsidered to be wich type af allergen?
    • A. 

      Ingestant

    • B. 

      Inhalant

    • C. 

      Injectant

    • D. 

      Contactant

    • E. 

      None of the choices are correct.


  • 35. 
    The initial encounter with an allergen is called the
    • A. 

      Sensitizing dose

    • B. 

      Provocative dose

    • C. 

      Allergic dose

    • D. 

      Hypersensitivity dose

    • E. 

      Desensitizing dose


  • 36. 
    What will be the immediate action of allergen when it enters the body for a second time?
    • A. 

      Degranulation

    • B. 

      Bonding of allergin to adjacent IgE binding sites on mast cells and basophils

    • C. 

      Binding of IgE by the Fc region to mast cells and basophils

    • D. 

      Histamine acts on smooth muscle

    • E. 

      Prostaglandins cause vasodilation and increased vasuclar permeability


  • 37. 
    Allergic patients recieving small, controlled injections of specific allergens are undergoing
    • A. 

      Desensitization

    • B. 

      Sensitazation

    • C. 

      Tissue matching

    • D. 

      Degranulation

    • E. 

      Non of the above


  • 38. 
    When trafted tissue such as bone marrow contatins passenger lymphocytes what could result
    • A. 

      Host rejection of graft

    • B. 

      Graft versus host disease

    • C. 

      Formation of autoantibodies

    • D. 

      Hypogammaglobulemia

    • E. 

      None of the above


  • 39. 
    A secondary acquired immunodeficiency is
    • A. 

      AIDS

    • B. 

      Adesnosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency

    • C. 

      DiGeorge syndrome

    • D. 

      Agammaglobulemia

    • E. 

      Type I diabetes


  • 40. 
    The receptors on macrophages that bind to antigen non-specifically and illicit a non specific response and signals to the adaptive immunity response
    • A. 

      T-cell Receptor

    • B. 

      Toll-like receptor

    • C. 

      B cell receptor

    • D. 

      IgD

    • E. 

      MHC class II


  • 41. 
    Any heighrtened or inappropriate immune response, an exaggerated, misdeirected expression of immune responses resulting in tissue damage is called a/an
    • A. 

      Autoimmune disease

    • B. 

      Immunodeficiency

    • C. 

      Hypersensitivity

    • D. 

      Transfusion reaction

    • E. 

      Desenstitization


  • 42. 
    Transfusion of the wrong blood type can cause
    • A. 

      Recipient antibody activiating the complement cascade to attack the RBC's

    • B. 

      Fever and anemia

    • C. 

      Systemic shock and kidney failure

    • D. 

      Massive hemolysis of the donor RBC's

    • E. 

      All of these choices


  • 43. 
    Hypersensitivity type II involves
    • A. 

      Recation that lyse foreign cells

    • B. 

      Antibodies, complement, leading to lysis of foreign cell

    • C. 

      Transfusion reactions such as ABO blood groups

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      None of the above


  • 44. 
    The immunoglobulins found on the surface of B cells is/are
    • A. 

      IgM

    • B. 

      IgG

    • C. 

      IgD

    • D. 

      IgM and IgG

    • E. 

      IgE and IgA


  • 45. 
    When antiserum is subjected to electrophoresis, the gamma globulin band contains mostly
    • A. 

      IgM

    • B. 

      IgA

    • C. 

      IgD

    • D. 

      IgE

    • E. 

      IgG


  • 46. 
    Which of the following is incorrect about the role of mast cells and basophils in allergies
    • A. 

      They degranulate when triggered by a specific allergen through the IgE bound to them

    • B. 

      They carry high nuimbers of cell receptors that bind to IgE antibodies

    • C. 

      Their cytoplasmic secretory vesicles contain physiologically active cytokines

    • D. 

      They are found mainly in the lymph nodes

    • E. 

      None of the above


  • 47. 
    Cyto T cells
    • A. 

      Stimulate B cell proliferation

    • B. 

      Lack specificty for a target cell

    • C. 

      Secrete granzymes and perforins that damage target cells

    • D. 

      Secrete interleukin-2 to stimulate B and T cells

    • E. 

      All of the above


  • 48. 
    An example of artifical passive immunity would be
    • A. 

      Chicken pox infection is followed by lifelong immunity

    • B. 

      Chicken pox vaccine triggers exteded immunity to chickenpox

    • C. 

      Giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus afer exposure to the disease

    • D. 

      A fetus acuiring materanl IgG to the chicken pox virus accros the placenta

    • E. 

      None of the above


  • 49. 
    All of the following characterize the secondary response to an antigen except
    • A. 

      A higher titer of anitbody is produced than the primary response

    • B. 

      A longer persistence of antibody than with the primary response

    • C. 

      A quicker rate of antibody synthesis thatn the primary response

    • D. 

      It is mostly IgM antibodies that are produced

    • E. 

      It is also known as the anamnestic response


  • 50. 
    Hemopoiesis is the
    • A. 

      Loss of blood due to hemorrhaging

    • B. 

      Production of only red blood cells

    • C. 

      Production of white blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets

    • D. 

      Plugging of broken vessels to stop bleeding

    • E. 

      Migration of white blood cells from the blood to the tissue


  • 51. 
    Killed or inactivated vaccines are prepared by
    • A. 

      Removal of virulence genes from the microbe

    • B. 

      Treatment with formalin, heat, radiation

    • C. 

      Passage of the pathogen through unnatural hosts or tissue culture

    • D. 

      Long term subculturing of the microbe

    • E. 

      All of these choices


  • 52. 
    Which gland shrinks in size during adulthood, and has hormones that function in maturation of T-lymphocytes
    • A. 

      Lymph nodes

    • B. 

      Thymus

    • C. 

      Spleen

    • D. 

      GALT

    • E. 

      Tonsils


  • 53. 
    Which of the following is a special binding substance that enhances immugenicity and prolongs antigen retention at the injection site
    • A. 

      Adjuvant

    • B. 

      Booster

    • C. 

      Antibodies to toxin

    • D. 

      Gamma globulins

    • E. 

      Trojan horse, recombinant vaccine


  • 54. 
    All of the following are characteristics of an effective vaccine except
    • A. 

      It should have a relatively long shelf life

    • B. 

      It should stimulate only the antibody (B-cell) response

    • C. 

      It should protect against wild froms of the pathogens

    • D. 

      It should not require numerous boosters

    • E. 

      It should be easy to administer


Back to top

Removing ad is a premium feature

Upgrade and get a lot more done!
Take Another Quiz
We have sent an email with your new password.