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The Environment

70 Questions
Environment Quizzes & Trivia

Both tests from environment class to practice answers.

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    The question "Which is more important, the survival of people alive today or conservation of the environment?" is difficult to answer. Answering this question demands:
    • A. 

      A legal basis

    • B. 

      A global perspective

    • C. 

      Sustainability

    • D. 

      Value judgements

    • E. 

      Science and technology

  • 2. 
    The total amount of food produced each year worldwide is sufficient to feed all the world's people today. Why do famines nevertheless occur?
    • A. 

      Severe local shortage of firewood affects the ability to cook

    • B. 

      Worldwide transportation of food is inadequate

    • C. 

      Food production is insufficient in some local areas and worldwide transportation of food is inadequate

    • D. 

      Logging destroys agricultural land

    • E. 

      Food production is insufficient in some local areas

  • 3. 
    Justification that has to do with the belief that aspects of the environment have a right to exist
    • A. 

      Aesthetic

    • B. 

      Ecological

    • C. 

      Utilitarian

    • D. 

      Moral

    • E. 

      Economical

  • 4. 
    When did the most dramatic increase in the history of the human population occur?
    • A. 

      In the last part of the twentieth century

    • B. 

      During the middle ages

    • C. 

      Human population has increased on a steady rate

    • D. 

      During the French revolution

    • E. 

      In the early history of the human population

  • 5. 
    A hypothesis is defined as
    • A. 

      A statement that can be disproved

    • B. 

      An accepted theory

    • C. 

      A fact

    • D. 

      An interested inference

    • E. 

      True in facts but false in assumptions

  • 6. 
    Premise: A straight line is the shortest distance between two points.Premise: The line A to B is the shortest distance between points A and B.Conclusion: Therefore, the line from A to B is a straight line.The above syllogism is an example of ________.
    • A. 

      A hypothesis

    • B. 

      A scientific proof

    • C. 

      A scientific fact

    • D. 

      Deductive reasoning

    • E. 

      Inductive reasoning

  • 7. 
    The conclusion of an inductive proof is more _____ than the conclusion of a deductive proof.
    • A. 

      Speculative

    • B. 

      Certain

    • C. 

      General

    • D. 

      Accurate

    • E. 

      Precise

  • 8. 
    A scientist is testing the factors the lead to growth of larger tomatoes. In one particular series of experiments, she holds the moisture and the amount of fertilizer constant, but varies the soil type and measures the resulting changes in tomato weight. Which of the following is the independent variable in these experiments:
    • A. 

      Amount of sunlight

    • B. 

      Soil type

    • C. 

      Moisture

    • D. 

      Amount of fertilizer

    • E. 

      Tomato of weight

  • 9. 
    Which of the following is the correct sequence of steps, from beginning to end, in the Scientific Method:
    • A. 

      Conclusions -> controlled experiment -> observations -> hypothesis

    • B. 

      Conclusions -> observations -> alter observations to fit conclusions -> future research grants and awards

    • C. 

      Observations -> hypothesis -> controlled experiment -> conclusion

    • D. 

      Hypothesis -> controlled experiment -> inferences -> conclusions

    • E. 

      Controlled experiment -> inferences -> deductive proof -> hypothesis

  • 10. 
    A ____ type of feedback mechanism functions as a _____ process for the system as a whole.
    • A. 

      Negative; destabilizing

    • B. 

      Negative; stabilizing or self-regulating

    • C. 

      Positive; cleansing

    • D. 

      Equilibrium; stabilizing

    • E. 

      Positive; stabilizing or self-regulating

  • 11. 
    Why did Amboseli National Park suffer a serious loss of the woodland habitat?
    • A. 

      Overgrazing of cattle by the Masai people

    • B. 

      Damage to the trees by elephants

    • C. 

      Changes in rainfall and soil

    • D. 

      Damage tot he woodlands by wildebeest and zebras

    • E. 

      All of these

  • 12. 
    Consider a situation where increased solar radiation reaches the Earth's surface and raises the ocean temperature. This results in more evaporation, which produces more clouds. The increased cloud cover reduces the amount of solar radiation that reaches the surface of the Earth. This is an example of:
    • A. 

      Atmospheric moisture balance

    • B. 

      A negative feedback

    • C. 

      A positive feedback

    • D. 

      The greenhouse effect

    • E. 

      Uniformitarianism

  • 13. 
    The balance in your bank account is $1200. You have a monthly income of $600 and monthly expenses of $600. Calculate the average residence time (ART) of dollars in your account:
    • A. 

      $100

    • B. 

      2 months

    • C. 

      $400

    • D. 

      1 month

    • E. 

      0

  • 14. 
    In primitive countries, breast feeding slows population growth because:
    • A. 

      It keeps children from being hungry

    • B. 

      It increases the age at which women will bear their first child

    • C. 

      It increases the average number of years between births

    • D. 

      It is healthy and decreases infant mortality

    • E. 

      It decreases the frequency of sexual activity

  • 15. 
    Which of the following examples describes the maximum number of a particular species that an environment can support without degrading the environment?
    • A. 

      Sustainability

    • B. 

      Replacement fertility curve

    • C. 

      Carrying capacity

    • D. 

      Demographic transition

    • E. 

      Logistic growth curve

  • 16. 
    Calculate the doubling time of the population in Kellertopia. The annual population growth in this fictional country is 5.0%.
    • A. 

      14 years

    • B. 

      140 month

    • C. 

      14 month

    • D. 

      1.4 years

    • E. 

      7 years

  • 17. 
    The image below illustrates which of the following concepts:
    • A. 

      Population age structure

    • B. 

      Low death rates

    • C. 

      Logistic population growth

    • D. 

      Replacement level fertility

    • E. 

      Malthus' theory of human population

  • 18. 
    In a developing country, chronic diseases account for a ________ proportion of total mortality. Acute diseases account for a ________ proportion of total mortality.
    • A. 

      Small; small

    • B. 

      Small; large

    • C. 

      In developing countries, population is controlled by food supply, not disease

    • D. 

      Large; small

    • E. 

      Large; large

  • 19. 
    In June 2001, 17,800,000 people inhabited Demographica Island. During the time period from 2000 to 2001, 301,000 births were recorded. During the same period of time 120,000 deaths occurred. Calculate the growth rate (in %) for Demographica Island.
    • A. 

      0.001%

    • B. 

      0.01%

    • C. 

      1.0%

    • D. 

      10.0%

    • E. 

      10.1%

  • 20. 
    Which of the following cycles involves the movement of water from the surface of the Earth through the atmosphere back to the surface of the Earth?
    • A. 

      Hydrologic cycle

    • B. 

      Biochemical cycle

    • C. 

      Carbon cycle

    • D. 

      Geological cycle

    • E. 

      Nitrogen cycle

  • 21. 
    Fluxes of nitrogen both into and out of the atmosphere are controlled predominantly by:
    • A. 

      Chemical exchange with the oceans

    • B. 

      Transpiration by plants

    • C. 

      Geological activity

    • D. 

      The activity of microscopic bacteria

    • E. 

      Evaporation and precipitation

  • 22. 
    The following chemical equation describes which process:6CO2 + 6H2O ---> C6H12O6 + 6O2
    • A. 

      Respiration

    • B. 

      Carbonation

    • C. 

      Pyrolysis

    • D. 

      Photosynthesis

    • E. 

      Oxidation

  • 23. 
    Phosphorus, an important nutrient, enters living plants from:
    • A. 

      Solar radiation

    • B. 

      Surface water

    • C. 

      Groundwater

    • D. 

      Air

    • E. 

      Soil

  • 24. 
    Energy, chemical elements, and other compounds are transferred from creature to creature along:
    • A. 

      Trophic paths

    • B. 

      Symbiotic links

    • C. 

      Hydrological cycle

    • D. 

      Solar radiation

    • E. 

      Food chains

  • 25. 
    The simplest ecosystem needs ________ to function properly.
    • A. 

      Nutrients and water

    • B. 

      One species that produces its own food, also decomposes it, plus water and air

    • C. 

      There is no simple ecosystem

    • D. 

      One species that produces its own food, and a second that decomposes the waste of the first one, plus water and air

    • E. 

      Just air

  • 26. 
    Sea otters live along the Pacific coast of the US and Canada. The otters feed upon sea urchins, and urchins feed upon kelp. Reduction in the number of sea otters leads to an explosion in sea urchin populations, declines in kelp, and declines in all other species that feed upon kelp. Given this information, sea otters are an example of a(n):
    • A. 

      Food chain

    • B. 

      Dominant species

    • C. 

      Omnivores

    • D. 

      Keystone species

    • E. 

      An important animal

  • 27. 
    Processes that lead to changes in gene frequency include all the following except:
    • A. 

      Genetic drift

    • B. 

      Mutation

    • C. 

      Self reproduction

    • D. 

      Natural selection

    • E. 

      Migration

  • 28. 
    What is biological diversity?
    • A. 

      The complexity of life forms on earth

    • B. 

      The adaptation of living things to their environment

    • C. 

      The variety of life forms on earth

    • D. 

      The abundance of all species on earth

    • E. 

      The environmental variability of species

  • 29. 
    The three basic kinds of interaction between species are:
    • A. 

      Competition, symbiosis and predation-parasitism

    • B. 

      There are more than three basic kinds of interaction

    • C. 

      Competition, parasitism and adaptive radiation

    • D. 

      Migration, symbiosis and adaptive radiation

    • E. 

      Symbiosis, predation- parasitism and migration

  • 30. 
    Biological evolution matches most closely to which of the following descriptions:
    • A. 

      The origins of life

    • B. 

      The preservation of endangered species

    • C. 

      Genetic drift over time

    • D. 

      The change of inherited characteristics of a population

    • E. 

      Self- reproduction of a population over time

  • 31. 
    _______ are treeless plains in areas of low annual temperatures and low rainfall.
    • A. 

      Benthos

    • B. 

      Taiga

    • C. 

      Deserts

    • D. 

      Tundra

    • E. 

      Temperate grasslands

  • 32. 
    Which of the following is an example of an ecological island?
    • A. 

      An oasis in the desert

    • B. 

      A stand of trees within the prairie

    • C. 

      A city park

    • D. 

      A pond in the woods

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 33. 
    Similar environments in different locations lead to the evolution of species with:
    • A. 

      Similar predators

    • B. 

      Symbiotic relationships

    • C. 

      Similar adaptations

    • D. 

      Different biotic provinces

    • E. 

      The same behavior, but different bodily adaptations

  • 34. 
    The US has sent several space missions to the planet Mars. A major goal of these missions has been the search for life. Which of the following characteristics of Mars argues against the presence of life?
    • A. 

      The canyons on Mars show evidence of water erosion

    • B. 

      The atmosphere is mostly carbon dioxide and there is little oxygen

    • C. 

      The distance between Mars and the Sun is in the range to provide energy for life.

    • D. 

      Mars has a polar cap of frozen carbon dioxide

    • E. 

      All of the above argue for the presence of life on Mars

  • 35. 
    200,000,000 people in Africa are malnourished. What is the reason for such a situation?
    • A. 

      Droughts

    • B. 

      Wars

    • C. 

      Social strife

    • D. 

      Poor farming practices

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 36. 
    Organisms that make their own food from the energy in sulfur are called"
    • A. 

      Heterotrophs

    • B. 

      Chemozoans

    • C. 

      Chemoautotrophs

    • D. 

      Zooplankton

    • E. 

      Detrivores

  • 37. 
    Autotrophs, at the first trophic level, get their food from:
    • A. 

      Chemosynthesis

    • B. 

      Organic chemicals

    • C. 

      Organic compounds, water, air and sunlight

    • D. 

      Sunlight, air, and water

    • E. 

      Inorganic chemicals and sunlight

  • 38. 
    Gradual, sequential changes in the composition of an ecosystem, particularly following an initial disturbance is called:
    • A. 

      Tolerance

    • B. 

      Interference

    • C. 

      Facilitation

    • D. 

      Reforestation

    • E. 

      Succession

  • 39. 
    Immediately after a fire, vegetation grows back extremely rapidly mainly because:
    • A. 

      There is an increase in the availability of chemical elements

    • B. 

      Predators are removed from the environment

    • C. 

      There is sufficient water for all new plants available

    • D. 

      The shade of the forest is gone, and all the plants are able to grow faster

    • E. 

      Of an increase of organic compounds in the soil

  • 40. 
    Generally, from early- to mid- succession, a community experiences:
    • A. 

      An increase in diversity and a decrease in biomass

    • B. 

      No change in either diversity or biomass

    • C. 

      A decrease in diversity and a decrease in biomass

    • D. 

      An increase in diversity and an increase in biomass

    • E. 

      A decrease in diversity and in increase in biomass

  • 41. 
    Which of the terms below refers to the farming of foods in marine and freshwater habitats:
    • A. 

      Agriculture

    • B. 

      Aquaculture

    • C. 

      Forage crops

    • D. 

      Subsistence crops

    • E. 

      Mariculture

  • 42. 
    Which of the following refers to lack of a specific chemical component of food:
    • A. 

      Malnourishment

    • B. 

      Non-nourishment

    • C. 

      Famine

    • D. 

      Miasma

    • E. 

      Undernourishment

  • 43. 
    Monoculture is associated with:
    • A. 

      A high variety of crops produced

    • B. 

      Decreases in organic matter in the soil

    • C. 

      Decreased likelihood of crop diseases

    • D. 

      Gain of chemical elements in the soil

    • E. 

      Constant agro-ecosystem

  • 44. 
    What is the most important cause of starvation worldwide?
    • A. 

      Droughts

    • B. 

      Inadequate distribution of food resources

    • C. 

      Global warming

    • D. 

      Genetically engineered crops replacing local crops

    • E. 

      Floods

  • 45. 
    Use of predators, parasites, and competitors for pest control defines which of the following?
    • A. 

      Secondary pest outbreaks

    • B. 

      Integrated waste management

    • C. 

      Biological pest control

    • D. 

      Game ranching

    • E. 

      Effective methods for controlling malaria

  • 46. 
    Which of the following is not a major symptom of desertification?
    • A. 

      Loss of natural native vegetation

    • B. 

      Increased salt content of the soil

    • C. 

      Lowering of the water table

    • D. 

      Increased soil erosion

    • E. 

      Pollution by sediment, fertilizers, and pesticides

  • 47. 
    No-till agriculture is an agricultural technique where:
    • A. 

      Only natural pesticides and herbicides are used

    • B. 

      Fall plowing is favored

    • C. 

      Chemical wastes are naturally degraded by application to the land

    • D. 

      The land is not plowed

    • E. 

      No crop rotation takes place

  • 48. 
    What practice has greatly increased the farm yield per unit area
    • A. 

      Weed control

    • B. 

      Irrigation

    • C. 

      Modern fertilizers

    • D. 

      Pest control

    • E. 

      Contour plowing

  • 49. 
    Forests differ from many other natural resources in that:
    • A. 

      There is little government regulation associated with their use

    • B. 

      Overuse has adverse environmental consequences

    • C. 

      Their management is inexpensive

    • D. 

      In the US most are publicly owned

    • E. 

      They are potentially renewable

  • 50. 
    According to the textbook, the nation with the largest forested land surface is
    • A. 

      Russia

    • B. 

      USA

    • C. 

      Canada

    • D. 

      Brazil

    • E. 

      Argentina

  • 51. 
    As a forest management practice, clear cutting:
    • A. 

      Typically leads to increased soil erosion

    • B. 

      Is no longer frequently used

    • C. 

      Speeds the re-growth of the next generation of trees

    • D. 

      Is usually best used on steep hill slopes

    • E. 

      May be important in inducing regeneration of desirable species

  • 52. 
    Which of the following refers to the accumulation of a substance in living tissue as it moves through the food web
    • A. 

      Particulates

    • B. 

      Synergism

    • C. 

      Dose response

    • D. 

      Biomagnification

    • E. 

      Threshold

  • 53. 
    Biomagnification is associated with all the following except:
    • A. 

      The development of tolerance to a pesticide or toxin

    • B. 

      Herbivores ar eless impacted than carnivores

    • C. 

      Biomagnification can occur in both aquatic and terrestrial habitats

    • D. 

      Higher toxin concentrations at successive trophic levels

    • E. 

      The accumulation of chemicals in organisms

  • 54. 
    Which of the following examples is not a pollution point source:
    • A. 

      Air pollution from the smoke stack of a large chemical plant

    • B. 

      Water pollution from an oil refinery

    • C. 

      Contamination of groundwater from a solid waste landfill

    • D. 

      Chemicals leaked into a stream from an accidental spill

    • E. 

      Air pollution form automobile exhaust

  • 55. 
    Point C is a significant threshold (on this diagram, because I don't have the one from the exam it's NOAEL). What does point C signify?
    • A. 

      Harm exceeds benefits

    • B. 

      First measurable effects

    • C. 

      Death of 100% of a test population

    • D. 

      Death of 50% of a test population

    • E. 

      Maximum benefit

  • 56. 
    Which energy source supplies the majority of electrical power generation in the US?
    • A. 

      Oil

    • B. 

      Nuclear

    • C. 

      Coal

    • D. 

      Hydroelectric

    • E. 

      Solar

  • 57. 
    The first law of thermodynamics states that:
    • A. 

      Efficiency of energy conversion is always less than 100%

    • B. 

      Energy is measured in joules, power in watts

    • C. 

      The present is the key to the past

    • D. 

      Energy can go from higher quality forms to lower, but not in the opposite direction

    • E. 

      Energy is never created, never destroyed, but always preserved

  • 58. 
    Soft path energy is characterized as:
    • A. 

      Low technology,decentralized, with zero effect on the environment

    • B. 

      High quality, high technology, based on renewable sources

    • C. 

      Focused on conservation, centralized, and high technology

    • D. 

      Diverse, low quality energy, based on renewable sources

    • E. 

      Centralized, based on applying high-tech solutions to improve efficiency and yield

  • 59. 
    "Cogeneration" refers to the use of:
    • A. 

      Alternative energy sources

    • B. 

      Waste heat to improve overall efficiency

    • C. 

      Pump-storage facilities

    • D. 

      Steam turbines to produce electricity

    • E. 

      Scrubbers to reduce sulfur emissions

  • 60. 
    Which energy transformation occurs as a book falls from the top of your book shelf towards the floor?
    • A. 

      The book's potential energy and kinetic energy decreases

    • B. 

      The book's potential energy decreases and it's kinetic energy increases

    • C. 

      The book's potential energy and kinetic energy increase

    • D. 

      According tot he first law of thermodynamics, both energies stay the same

    • E. 

      The book's potential energy increases and it's kinetic energy decreases

  • 61. 
    Oil production, refining, and transportation have been associated with all the following environmental problems except:
    • A. 

      Disturbance of the land surface

    • B. 

      Acid mine drainage

    • C. 

      Pollution of groundwater

    • D. 

      Release of harmful gases

    • E. 

      Land subsidence

  • 62. 
    In some ways, natural gas is considered a better fossil fuel than oil. This is primarily because:
    • A. 

      Burning natural gas is cleaner than burning oil

    • B. 

      Gas is renewable resource

    • C. 

      Gas is easier to transport over long distances than oil

    • D. 

      Once a reservoir is located, gas commands a higher price than oil

    • E. 

      Gas is found at shallower depths than oil

  • 63. 
    Petroleum is usually found in which of the following situations?
    • A. 

      A fine grained reservoir rock, overlain by an organic rich cap rock

    • B. 

      A dense organic rich cap rock overlain by porous source rock

    • C. 

      A porous reservoir rock, overlain by an organic rich source rock

    • D. 

      An anticline or other trap overlain by porous reservoir rock

    • E. 

      A coarse and porous reservoir rock, overlain by an impermeable cap rock

  • 64. 
    All of the following are renewable energy sources except:
    • A. 

      Wind

    • B. 

      Solar

    • C. 

      Biofuel

    • D. 

      Hydroelectric

    • E. 

      Nuclear fission

  • 65. 
    Wind power is a clean energy source, but according to its detractors in some locations, it is associated with _________ pollution
    • A. 

      Water

    • B. 

      Thermal

    • C. 

      Particulate

    • D. 

      Noise

    • E. 

      Air

  • 66. 
    The primary sources of biofuel in India, an example of a developing country are:
    • A. 

      Nuclear and wood

    • B. 

      Wood and cattle dung

    • C. 

      Methanol and cattle dung

    • D. 

      Wood and coal

    • E. 

      Oil and coal

  • 67. 
    Direct conversion of electricity using sunlight, without using an intermediate fluid medium, is accomplished by:
    • A. 

      Solar collectors

    • B. 

      Thermal conversion

    • C. 

      Photovoltaic cells

    • D. 

      Power towers

    • E. 

      Passive solar system

  • 68. 
    Which of the terms below refers tot he process in which a nuclear fuel, such as Uranium, is split into small particles plus energy:
    • A. 

      Curie

    • B. 

      Breeder reactor

    • C. 

      Becquerel

    • D. 

      Radiation absorbed dose

    • E. 

      Fission

  • 69. 
    Exactly how does a commercial nuclear power plant convert the energy of atomic nuclei into electricity?
    • A. 

      Alpha decay emits electrons, which are collected by control rods

    • B. 

      Thermoelectric cells in the core convert heat into electricity

    • C. 

      The heat produced by radioactive decay boils water, which drives a turbine generate

    • D. 

      Spontaneous decay of radioisotopes creates a strong magnetic field, which induces a current in the electric dynamo

    • E. 

      Beta decay eliminates protons in the atomic nuclei, which creates a net negative charge

  • 70. 
    At the present time, the method for handling high-level nuclear waste in the US is
    • A. 

      Export to France or Britain

    • B. 

      Long term disposal in salt mines

    • C. 

      Ocean bottom disposal

    • D. 

      Temporary storage, pending completion of a permanent disposal site

    • E. 

      Dilute and disperse

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