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Chapter 7-12

400 Questions
Technology Quizzes & Trivia
Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Although information technology projects have a poor track record in meeting project goals, they have a good track record in meeting budget goals.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 2. 
    Preparing cost estimates is a job for accountants.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 3. 
    Any new technology or business process is untested and has inherent risks.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 4. 
    Many projects that are started never finish because of cost management problems.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 5. 
    When justifying investments in new information systems and technology, the focus should only be on revenues or expenses.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 6. 
    Organizations have a history of spending too much money in the early phases of information technology projects.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 7. 
    Project managers must conduct cash flow analysis to determine net present value.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 8. 
    Direct costs cannot be directly attributed to a certain project.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 9. 
    When deciding what projects to invest in or continue, you should include sunk costs.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 10. 
    Learning curve theory does not apply to the amount of time it takes to complete some tasks.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 11. 
    If a project manager gets sick for two weeks or an important supplier goes out of business, management reserve could be set aside to cover the resulting costs.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 12. 
    ROM estimates can be referred to as a ballpark estimate, a guesstimate, a swag, or a broad gauge.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 13. 
    A definitive estimate should be the least accurate of the three types of estimates.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 14. 
    Estimates are usually done at various stages of a project and should become more accurate as time progresses.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 15. 
    The cost management plan is part of the overall project management plan.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 16. 
    A large percentage of total project costs are often labor costs.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 17. 
    Parametric models are least reliable when historical information was used to create the model.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 18. 
    When developing an estimate for a large software project, estimates cannot be made before clear system requirements have been produced.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 19. 
    The people who develop software cost estimates often have a great deal of experience with cost estimation.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 20. 
    Every cost estimate is unique.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 21. 
    The WBS is not a required input when developing a cost estimate.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 22. 
    Most organizations have a well-established process for preparing budgets.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 23. 
    Cost budgeting provides information for project funding requirements.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 24. 
    There does not need to be a change control system to define procedures for changing the cost baseline.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 25. 
    The formulas for variances and indexes start with EV, the earned value.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 26. 
    If cost variance is a positive number, it means that performing the work cost more than planned.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 27. 
    If the cost performance index is less than one or less than 100 percent, the project is under budget.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 28. 
    In an earned value chart, when the actual cost line is right on or above the earned value line, costs are less than or equal to planned.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 29. 
    Many projects, particularly information technology projects, do not have good planning information, so tracking performance against a plan might produce misleading information.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 30. 
    Databases are a common tool for cost estimating, cost budgeting, and cost control.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 31. 
    The Standish Group’s CHAOS studies reported an average cost overrun for unsuccessful IT projects ranged from 180 percent in 1994 to ____ percent in 2004.
    • A. 

      A. 28

    • B. 

      B. 43

    • C. 

      C. 56

    • D. 

      D. 73

  • 32. 
    Three separate surveys of software project cost overruns found that the average cost overrun for all of the projects in their survey samples (not just unsuccessful projects) were ____ percent.
    • A. 

      A. 13–14

    • B. 

      B. 23–24

    • C. 

      C. 33–34

    • D. 

      D. 43–44

  • 33. 
    ____ includes the processes required to ensure that a project team completes a project within an approved budget.
    • A. 

      A. Cost budgeting

    • B. 

      B. Cost estimating

    • C. 

      C. Cost control

    • D. 

      D. Project cost management

  • 34. 
    ____ involves developing an approximation or estimate of the costs of the resources needed to complete a project.
    • A. 

      A. Determining the budget

    • B. 

      B. Consolidation of costs

    • C. 

      C. Controlling costs

    • D. 

      D. Estimating costs

  • 35. 
    ____ involves allocating the overall cost estimate to individual work items to establish a baseline for measuring performance.
    • A. 

      A. Determining the budget

    • B. 

      B. Consolidation of costs

    • C. 

      C. Controlling costs

    • D. 

      D. Estimating costs

  • 36. 
    ____ is the ratio of revenues to profits.
    • A. 

      A. Profit

    • B. 

      B. Profit margin

    • C. 

      C. Cost structure

    • D. 

      D. Cost margin

  • 37. 
    ____ helps you develop an accurate projection of a project’s financial costs and benefits.
    • A. 

      A. Profit cycle costing

    • B. 

      B. Financial costing

    • C. 

      C. Life cycle costing

    • D. 

      D. Profit margin costing

  • 38. 
    ____, with assistance from financial experts in their organizations, should create estimates of the costs and benefits of the project for its entire life cycle.
    • A. 

      A. Financial managers

    • B. 

      B. Project managers

    • C. 

      C. Budget managers

    • D. 

      D. System managers

  • 39. 
    Since organizations depend on reliable information technology, there are also huge costs associated with ____.
    • A. 

      A. work time

    • B. 

      B. technical planning

    • C. 

      C. uptime

    • D. 

      D. downtime

  • 40. 
    ____ is a method for determining the estimated annual costs and benefits for a project and the resulting annual cash flow.
    • A. 

      A. Life cycle costing

    • B. 

      B. Profit margin analysis

    • C. 

      C. Cost estimating

    • D. 

      D. Cash flow analysis

  • 41. 
    ____ are those costs that an organization can easily measure in dollars.
    • A. 

      A. Intangible costs

    • B. 

      B. Direct costs

    • C. 

      C. Tangible costs

    • D. 

      D. Indirect costs

  • 42. 
    Project managers should focus on ____, since they can control them.
    • A. 

      A. sunk costs

    • B. 

      B. indirect costs

    • C. 

      C. direct costs

    • D. 

      D. intangible costs

  • 43. 
    ____ are costs that are not directly related to the products or services of the project, but are indirectly related to performing the project.
    • A. 

      A. Intangible costs

    • B. 

      B. Tangible costs

    • C. 

      C. Direct costs

    • D. 

      D. Indirect costs

  • 44. 
    ____ should be forgotten.
    • A. 

      A. Sunk costs

    • B. 

      B. Indirect costs

    • C. 

      C. Direct costs

    • D. 

      D. Intangible costs

  • 45. 
    ____ allow for future situations that may be partially planned for.
    • A. 

      A. Contingency reserves

    • B. 

      B. Management reserves

    • C. 

      C. Unknown unknowns

    • D. 

      D. Direct reserves

  • 46. 
    ____ allow for future situations that are unpredictable.
    • A. 

      A. Contingency reserves

    • B. 

      B. Management reserves

    • C. 

      C. Known unknowns

    • D. 

      D. Indirect reserves

  • 47. 
    A ____ provides an estimate of what a project will cost.
    • A. 

      A. budgetary estimate

    • B. 

      B. definitive estimate

    • C. 

      C. rough order of magnitude estimate

    • D. 

      D. final estimate

  • 48. 
    A ____ is done very early in a project or even before a project is officially started.
    • A. 

      A. budgetary estimate

    • B. 

      B. definitive estimate

    • C. 

      C. rough order of magnitude estimate

    • D. 

      D. final estimate

  • 49. 
    A ____ is used to allocate money into an organization’s budget.
    • A. 

      A. budgetary estimate

    • B. 

      B. definitive estimate

    • C. 

      C. rough order of magnitude estimate

    • D. 

      D. final estimate

  • 50. 
    A ____ is used for making many purchasing decisions for which accurate estimates are required and for estimating final project costs.
    • A. 

      A. budgetary estimate

    • B. 

      B. definitive estimate

    • C. 

      C. rough order of magnitude estimate

    • D. 

      D. final estimate

  • 51. 
    ____ use the actual cost of a previous, similar project as the basis for estimating the cost of the current project.
    • A. 

      A. Actual estimates

    • B. 

      B. Parametric estimates

    • C. 

      C. Bottom-up estimates

    • D. 

      D. Analogous estimates

  • 52. 
    ____ involve estimating individual work items or activities and summing them to get a project total.
    • A. 

      A. Actual estimates

    • B. 

      B. Parametric estimates

    • C. 

      C. Bottom-up estimates

    • D. 

      D. Analogous estimates

  • 53. 
    A(n) ____ might provide an estimate of $50 per line of code for a software development project based on the programming language the project is using, the level of expertise of the programmers, the size and complexity of the data involved, and so on.
    • A. 

      A. analogous cost estimate

    • B. 

      B. parametric model

    • C. 

      C. bottom-up estimate

    • D. 

      D. reserve analysis

  • 54. 
    Tom DeMarco, a well-known author on software development, suggests ____ reasons for the inaccuracies of many information technology project cost estimates and some ways to overcome them.
    • A. 

      A. three

    • B. 

      B. four

    • C. 

      C. five

    • D. 

      D. six

  • 55. 
    If the cost estimate will be the basis for contract awards and performance reporting, it should be a ____ and as accurate as possible.
    • A. 

      A. budgetary estimate

    • B. 

      B. definitive estimate

    • C. 

      C. rough order of magnitude estimate

    • D. 

      D. final estimate

  • 56. 
    The main goal of the ____ process is to produce a cost baseline for measuring project performance and project funding requirements.
    • A. 

      A. cost budgeting

    • B. 

      B. cost consolidation

    • C. 

      C. cost control

    • D. 

      D. cost estimating

  • 57. 
    A ____ is a time-phased budget that project managers use to measure and monitor cost performance.
    • A. 

      A. budget baseline

    • B. 

      B. ledger

    • C. 

      C. cost baseline

    • D. 

      D. cost line

  • 58. 
    The project management plan, project funding requirements, work performance data, and organizational process assets are inputs for the process of ____.
    • A. 

      A. controlling costs

    • B. 

      B. budgeting costs

    • C. 

      C. consolidating costs

    • D. 

      D. estimating costs

  • 59. 
    ____ is a project performance measurement technique that integrates scope, time, and cost data.
    • A. 

      A. Cost baseline

    • B. 

      B. Earned value management

    • C. 

      C. Constructive cost modeling

    • D. 

      D. Parametric modeling

  • 60. 
    The ____ is that portion of the approved total cost estimate planned to be spent on an activity during a given period.
    • A. 

      A. AC

    • B. 

      B. EV

    • C. 

      C. RP

    • D. 

      D. PV

  • 61. 
    The ____ is the ratio of actual work completed to the percentage of work planned to have been completed at any given time during the life of the project or activity.
    • A. 

      A. AC

    • B. 

      B. EV

    • C. 

      C. RP

    • D. 

      D. PV

  • 62. 
    The ____ is an estimate of the value of the physical work actually completed.
    • A. 

      A. AC

    • B. 

      B. EV

    • C. 

      C. RP

    • D. 

      D. PV

  • 63. 
    The ____ is the total direct and indirect costs incurred in accomplishing work on an activity during a given period.
    • A. 

      A. AC

    • B. 

      B. EV

    • C. 

      C. RP

    • D. 

      D. PV

  • 64. 
    Variances are calculated by subtracting the actual cost or planned value from ____.
    • A. 

      A. EV

    • B. 

      B. AC

    • C. 

      C. PV

    • D. 

      D. RP

  • 65. 
    ____ is the earned value minus the actual cost.
    • A. 

      A. SV

    • B. 

      B. CV

    • C. 

      C. CPI

    • D. 

      D. SPI

  • 66. 
    ____ is the earned value minus the planned value.
    • A. 

      A. SV

    • B. 

      B. CV

    • C. 

      C. CPI

    • D. 

      D. SPI

  • 67. 
    The ____ is the ratio of earned value to actual cost and can be used to estimate the projected cost of completing the project.
    • A. 

      A. SV

    • B. 

      B. CV

    • C. 

      C. CPI

    • D. 

      D. SPI

  • 68. 
    The ____ is the ratio of earned value to planned value and can be used to estimate the projected time to complete the project.
    • A. 

      A. SV

    • B. 

      B. CV

    • C. 

      C. CPI

    • D. 

      D. SPI

  • 69. 
    The ____ is an estimate of what it will cost to complete the project based on performance to date.
    • A. 

      A. CPI

    • B. 

      B. SV

    • C. 

      C. EAC

    • D. 

      D. SPI

  • 70. 
    Using simplified percentage complete amounts for a one-year project with weekly reporting and an average task or work packet size of one week, you can expect about a(n) ____ percent error rate.
    • A. 

      A. 1

    • B. 

      B. 5

    • C. 

      C. 11

    • D. 

      D. 15

  • 71. 
    Most people simply accept poor quality from many information technology products.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 72. 
    The majority of people in the United States use the Internet.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 73. 
    When an information system does not function correctly, it is generally a slight inconvenience.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 74. 
    Quality is a lower priority than project scope, time, and cost.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 75. 
    The quality planning process involves taking responsibility for quality throughout the project’s life cycle.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 76. 
    Quality planning implies the ability to anticipate situations and prepare actions that bring about the desired outcome.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 77. 
    Understanding which variables affect outcome is a very important part of quality planning.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 78. 
    Design of experiments cannot be applied to project management issues such as cost and schedule trade-offs.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 79. 
    Organizational policies related to quality, the particular project’s scope statement and product descriptions, and related standards and regulations are all important input to the quality assurance process.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 80. 
    It is important to clarify what functions and features the system must perform, and what functions and features are optional.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 81. 
    Most information technology products can reach 100 percent reliability.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 82. 
    Project managers are ultimately responsible for quality management on their projects.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 83. 
    Continuous quality improvement is not a goal of quality assurance.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 84. 
    Only in-house auditors can perform quality audits.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 85. 
    If products are accepted, they are considered to be validated deliverables.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 86. 
    In a Pareto chart, the variables described by the histogram are ordered chronologically.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 87. 
    To obtain valid statistics, it is important to study every member of a population.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 88. 
    Control charts are one tool used in the analyze phase of the DMAIC process.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 89. 
    All of the Six Sigma principles are brand new.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 90. 
    Using Six Sigma principles is an organization-wide commitment.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 91. 
    Minimizing defects does not matter if an organization is making a product that no one wants to buy.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 92. 
    The term sigma means median.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 93. 
    Testing needs to be done during almost every phase of the systems development life cycle.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 94. 
    Integration testing replaces the other forms of testing with a single comprehensive test.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 95. 
    Modern quality management requires customer satisfaction, prefers prevention to inspection, and recognizes management responsibility for quality.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 96. 
    In TQC, product quality is less important than production rates, and workers are not allowed to stop production whenever a quality problem occurs.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 97. 
    ISO 9000 provides minimum requirements needed for an organization to meet its quality certification standards.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 98. 
    Many quality experts believe the main cause of quality problems is the lack of leadership.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 99. 
    DeMarco and Lister found direct correlations between productivity and programming language, years of experience, and salary.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 100. 
    Expectations can vary based on an organization’s culture or geographic region.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 101. 
    It took only ____ years for 50 million people to use the Internet compared to 25 years for 50 million people to use telephones.
    • A. 

      A. three

    • B. 

      B. five

    • C. 

      C. seven

    • D. 

      D. nine

  • 102. 
    ____ means the project’s processes and products meet written specifications.
    • A. 

      A. Conformance to requirements

    • B. 

      B. Fitness for use

    • C. 

      C. Quality conformance

    • D. 

      D. Documentation matching

  • 103. 
    The ____ ultimately decides if quality is acceptable.
    • A. 

      A. project team

    • B. 

      B. CEO

    • C. 

      C. project manager

    • D. 

      D. customer

  • 104. 
    Project quality management involves ____ main processes.
    • A. 

      A. two

    • B. 

      B. three

    • C. 

      C. four

    • D. 

      D. five

  • 105. 
    ____ includes identifying which quality standards are relevant to the project and how to satisfy those standards.
    • A. 

      A. Performing quality assurance

    • B. 

      B. Performing quality control

    • C. 

      C. Checking quality

    • D. 

      D. Planning quality

  • 106. 
    The main outputs of ____ are a quality management plan, quality metrics, quality checklists, a process improvement plan, and project document updates.
    • A. 

      A. quality control

    • B. 

      B. quality planning

    • C. 

      C. quality assurance

    • D. 

      D. quality certification

  • 107. 
    ____ involves periodically evaluating overall project performance to ensure that the project will satisfy the relevant quality standards.
    • A. 

      A. Performing quality assurance

    • B. 

      B. Performing quality control

    • C. 

      C. Checking quality

    • D. 

      D. Planning quality

  • 108. 
    ____ involves monitoring specific project results to ensure that they comply with the relevant quality standards while identifying ways to improve overall quality.
    • A. 

      A. Performing quality assurance

    • B. 

      B. Performing quality control

    • C. 

      C. Checking quality

    • D. 

      D. Planning quality

  • 109. 
    The ____ process is often associated with the technical tools and techniques of quality management, such as Pareto charts, quality control charts, and statistical sampling.
    • A. 

      A. quality planning

    • B. 

      B. quality certification

    • C. 

      C. quality assurance

    • D. 

      D. quality control

  • 110. 
    ____ is the degree to which a system performs its intended function.
    • A. 

      A. Reliability

    • B. 

      B. Performance

    • C. 

      C. Maintainability

    • D. 

      D. Functionality

  • 111. 
    ____ are the system’s special characteristics that appeal to users.
    • A. 

      A. Features

    • B. 

      B. System outputs

    • C. 

      C. Properties

    • D. 

      D. Functions

  • 112. 
    ____ addresses how well a product or service performs the customer’s intended use.
    • A. 

      A. Reliability

    • B. 

      B. Performance

    • C. 

      C. Maintainability

    • D. 

      D. Functionality

  • 113. 
    ____ is the ability of a product or service to perform as expected under normal conditions.
    • A. 

      A. Reliability

    • B. 

      B. Performance

    • C. 

      C. Maintainability

    • D. 

      D. Functionality

  • 114. 
    ____ addresses the ease of performing maintenance on a product.
    • A. 

      A. Reliability

    • B. 

      B. Performance

    • C. 

      C. Maintainability

    • D. 

      D. Functionality

  • 115. 
    ____ generates ideas for quality improvements by comparing specific project practices or product characteristics to those of other projects or products within or outside the performing organization.
    • A. 

      A. Design of experiments

    • B. 

      B. Quality auditing

    • C. 

      C. Testing

    • D. 

      D. Benchmarking

  • 116. 
    ____determine(s) if the products or services produced as part of the project will be accepted or rejected.
    • A. 

      A. Process adjustments

    • B. 

      B. Rework

    • C. 

      C. Acceptance decisions

    • D. 

      D. Auditing

  • 117. 
    ____ is action taken to bring rejected items into compliance with product requirements or specifications or other stakeholder expectations.
    • A. 

      A. A process adjustment

    • B. 

      B. Rework

    • C. 

      C. An acceptance decision

    • D. 

      D. Auditing

  • 118. 
    ____ correct(s) or prevent(s) further quality problems based on quality control measurements.
    • A. 

      A. Process adjustments

    • B. 

      B. Rework

    • C. 

      C. Acceptance decisions

    • D. 

      D. Auditing

  • 119. 
    A ____ is a graphic display of data that illustrates the results of a process over time.
    • A. 

      A. statistical sampling chart

    • B. 

      B. Pareto chart

    • C. 

      C. Six Sigma chart

    • D. 

      D. control chart

  • 120. 
    The ____ states that if seven data points in a row are all below the mean, above the mean, or are all increasing or decreasing, then the process needs to be examined for non-random problems.
    • A. 

      A. ten run rule

    • B. 

      B. six 9s of quality rule

    • C. 

      C. seven run rule

    • D. 

      D. Six Sigma rule

  • 121. 
    ____ help(s) you identify the vital few contributors that account for most quality problems in a system.
    • A. 

      A. Statistical sampling

    • B. 

      B. Pareto charts

    • C. 

      C. Six Sigma

    • D. 

      D. Quality control charts

  • 122. 
    ____ involves choosing part of a population of interest for inspection.
    • A. 

      A. Statistical sampling

    • B. 

      B. Pareto analysis

    • C. 

      C. Six Sigma

    • D. 

      D. Quality control charting

  • 123. 
    A certainty factor of 1.960 is used for ____ percent desired certainty.
    • A. 

      A. 75

    • B. 

      B. 95

    • C. 

      C. 96

    • D. 

      D. 99

  • 124. 
    ____ is a comprehensive and flexible system for achieving, sustaining and maximizing business success.
    • A. 

      A. Statistical sampling

    • B. 

      B. Pareto analysis

    • C. 

      C. Six Sigma

    • D. 

      D. Quality control charting

  • 125. 
    Six Sigma’s target for perfection is the achievement of no more than ____ defects, errors, or mistakes per million opportunities.
    • A. 

      A. 1.34

    • B. 

      B. 3.4

    • C. 

      C. 34

    • D. 

      D. 340

  • 126. 
    Important tools used in the ____ phase of the DMAIC process include a project charter, a description of customer requirements, process maps, and Voice of the Customer (VOC) data.
    • A. 

      A. define

    • B. 

      B. measure

    • C. 

      C. analyze

    • D. 

      D. improve

  • 127. 
    An important tool used in the ____ phase of the DMAIC process is the fishbone or Ishikawa diagram.
    • A. 

      A. define

    • B. 

      B. measure

    • C. 

      C. analyze

    • D. 

      D. improve

  • 128. 
    A ____ is a bell-shaped curve that is symmetrical regarding the average value of the population (the data being analyzed).
    • A. 

      A. skewed distribution

    • B. 

      B. normal distribution

    • C. 

      C. polynomial distribution

    • D. 

      D. symmetrical distribution

  • 129. 
    In any normal distribution, ____ percent of the population is within three standard deviations of the mean.
    • A. 

      A. 95.5

    • B. 

      B. 99.0

    • C. 

      C. 99.7

    • D. 

      D. 99.9

  • 130. 
    A(n) ____ is any instance where the product or service fails to meet customer requirements.
    • A. 

      A. defect

    • B. 

      B. failure

    • C. 

      C. error

    • D. 

      D. recall

  • 131. 
    A(n) ____ is done to test each individual component (often a program) to ensure that it is as defect-free as possible.
    • A. 

      A. integration test

    • B. 

      B. unit test

    • C. 

      C. user acceptance test

    • D. 

      D. system test

  • 132. 
    ____ is an independent test performed by end users prior to accepting the delivered system.
    • A. 

      A. Integration testing

    • B. 

      B. Unit testing

    • C. 

      C. User acceptance testing

    • D. 

      D. System testing

  • 133. 
    One of ____ 14 Points for Management states that an organization should cease dependence on inspection to achieve quality.
    • A. 

      A. Deming’s

    • B. 

      B. Juran’s

    • C. 

      C. Crosby’s

    • D. 

      D. Ishikawa’s

  • 134. 
    One of ____ ten steps states that an organization should build awareness of the need and opportunity for improvement.
    • A. 

      A. Deming’s

    • B. 

      B. Crosby’s

    • C. 

      C. Juran’s

    • D. 

      D. Ishikawa’s

  • 135. 
    Juran’s final step to quality improvement is ____.
    • A. 

      A. organize to reach the goals (establish a quality council, identify problems, select projects, appoint teams, designate facilitators)

    • B. 

      B. keep score

    • C. 

      C. report progress

    • D. 

      D. maintain momentum by making annual improvement part of the regular systems and processes of the company

  • 136. 
    ____ wrote Quality Is Free in 1979 and is best known for suggesting that organizations strive for zero defects.
    • A. 

      A. Juran

    • B. 

      B. Ishikawa

    • C. 

      C. Crosby

    • D. 

      D. Deming

  • 137. 
    ____, a quality system standard developed by the ISO, is a three-part, continuous cycle of planning, controlling, and documenting quality in an organization.
    • A. 

      A. IEEE 15504

    • B. 

      B. ISO 9000

    • C. 

      C. IEEE 9000

    • D. 

      D. ISO 15504

  • 138. 
    ____ is the cost of evaluating processes and their outputs to ensure that a project is error-free or within an acceptable error range.
    • A. 

      A. Prevention cost

    • B. 

      B. Appraisal cost

    • C. 

      C. Internal failure cost

    • D. 

      D. External failure cost

  • 139. 
    ____ is a cost that relates to all errors not detected and not corrected before delivery to the customer.
    • A. 

      A. Prevention cost

    • B. 

      B. Appraisal cost

    • C. 

      C. Internal failure cost

    • D. 

      D. External failure cost

  • 140. 
    ____ helps integrate traditionally separate organizational functions, set process improvement goals and priorities, provide guidance for quality processes, and provide a point of reference for appraising current processes.
    • A. 

      A. SQFD

    • B. 

      B. CMM

    • C. 

      C. SQMMI

    • D. 

      D. CMMI

  • 141. 
    Most project managers agree that managing human resources effectively is one of the toughest challenges they face.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 142. 
    The global job market for information technology workers is contracting.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 143. 
    Hiring managers say interpersonal skills are the least important soft skill for information technology workers.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 144. 
    As the job market changes, people should upgrade their skills to remain marketable and flexible.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 145. 
    Many highly qualified information technology workers lost their jobs in the past few years.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 146. 
    If companies plan their projects well, they can avoid the need for overtime, or they can make it clear that overtime is optional.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 147. 
    Team-building skills are often not a challenge for many project managers.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 148. 
    Extrinsic motivation causes people to participate in an activity for their own enjoyment.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 149. 
    Maslow’s hierarchy of needs states that people’s behaviors are guided or motivated by a sequence of needs.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 150. 
    Maslow suggests that each level of the hierarchy of needs is not necessarily a prerequisite for the levels above.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 151. 
    According to Herzberg, hygiene factors such as larger salaries, more supervision, or a more attractive work environment would motivate workers to do more if present.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 152. 
    People who need institutional power or social power want to organize others to further the goals of the organization.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 153. 
    People who believe in Theory Y assume that workers dislike and avoid work if possible, so managers must use coercion, threats, and various control schemes to get workers to make adequate efforts to meet objectives.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 154. 
    Project managers often do not have control over project staff who report to them.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 155. 
    Assignment, budget, promotion, money, and penalty influence bases are automatically available to project managers as part of their position.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 156. 
    Thamhain and Wilemon found that when project managers used work challenge and expertise to influence people, projects were more likely to succeed.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 157. 
    Legitimate power involves using personal knowledge and expertise to get people to change their behavior.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 158. 
    Smaller information technology projects usually have deputy project managers or subproject managers.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 159. 
    A responsibility assignment matrix (RAM) is a matrix that maps the work of the project as described in the OBS to the people responsible for performing the work as described in the WBS.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 160. 
    A RAM should only be used to assign detailed work activities.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 161. 
    A staffing management plan describes when and how people will be added to and taken off the project team.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 162. 
    One innovative approach to hiring and retaining information technology staff is to offer existing employees incentives for helping recruit and retain personnel.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 163. 
    Schedules tend to focus primarily on time rather than on both time and resources.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 164. 
    If a certain resource is overallocated, the project manager can change the schedule to remove resource overallocation.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 165. 
    When resources are used on a more constant basis, they require more management.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 166. 
    Resource leveling results in fewer problems for project personnel and accounting departments.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 167. 
    Project managers often recommend that people take specific training courses to improve individual and team development.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 168. 
    The first dimension of psychological type in the MBTI signifies whether people draw their energy from other people (extroverts) or from inside themselves (introverts).
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 169. 
    Project managers do not need to continually assess their team’s performance.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 170. 
    Project managers should limit the size of work teams to eight to ten members.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 171. 
    Human resource management includes ____ processes.
    • A. 

      A. three

    • B. 

      B. four

    • C. 

      C. five

    • D. 

      D. six

  • 172. 
    ____ involves getting the needed personnel assigned to and working on the project.
    • A. 

      A. Developing the human resource plan

    • B. 

      B. Developing the project team

    • C. 

      C. Acquiring the project team

    • D. 

      D. Managing the project team

  • 173. 
    Key outputs of ____ process are project staff assignments, resource calendars, and project management plan updates.
    • A. 

      A. managing the project team

    • B. 

      B. acquiring the project team

    • C. 

      C. developing the project team

    • D. 

      D. developing the human resource plan

  • 174. 
    ____ involves building individual and group skills to enhance project performance.
    • A. 

      A. Developing the human resource plan

    • B. 

      B. Developing the project team

    • C. 

      C. Acquiring the project team

    • D. 

      D. Managing the project team

  • 175. 
    The main outputs of ____ process are team performance assessments and enterprise environmental factors updates.
    • A. 

      A. managing the project team

    • B. 

      B. acquiring the project team

    • C. 

      C. developing the project team

    • D. 

      D. human resource planning

  • 176. 
    ____ involves tracking team member performance, motivating team members, providing timely feedback, resolving issues and conflicts, and coordinating changes to help enhance project performance.
    • A. 

      A. Developing the human resource plan

    • B. 

      B. Developing the project team

    • C. 

      C. Acquiring the project team

    • D. 

      D. Managing the project team

  • 177. 
    ____ involves identifying and documenting project roles, responsibilities, and reporting relationships.
    • A. 

      A. Developing the human resource plan

    • B. 

      B. Developing the project team

    • C. 

      C. Acquiring the project team

    • D. 

      D. Managing the project team

  • 178. 
    Abraham Maslow, a highly respected psychologist, rejected the dehumanizing negativism of psychology in the ____.
    • A. 

      A. 1940s

    • B. 

      B. 1950s

    • C. 

      C. 1960s

    • D. 

      D. 1970s

  • 179. 
    ____ is best known for developing a hierarchy of needs.
    • A. 

      A. Frederick Herzberg

    • B. 

      B. David McClelland

    • C. 

      C. Abraham Maslow

    • D. 

      D. Douglas McGregor

  • 180. 
    At the bottom of Maslow’s structure are ____ needs.
    • A. 

      A. esteem

    • B. 

      B. self-actualization

    • C. 

      C. physiological

    • D. 

      D. social

  • 181. 
    ____ is at the top of Maslow’s structure.
    • A. 

      A. Esteem

    • B. 

      B. Self-actualization

    • C. 

      C. Physiological

    • D. 

      D. Social

  • 182. 
    The bottom four needs in Maslow’s structure are referred to as ____ needs.
    • A. 

      A. self-actualization

    • B. 

      B. deficiency

    • C. 

      C. safety

    • D. 

      D. growth

  • 183. 
    The highest level of needs in Maslow’s structure is referred to as a ____ need.
    • A. 

      A. deficiency

    • B. 

      B. growth

    • C. 

      C. safety

    • D. 

      D. physiological

  • 184. 
    ____ is best known for distinguishing between motivational factors and hygiene factors when considering motivation in work settings.
    • A. 

      A. Frederick Herzberg

    • B. 

      B. David McClelland

    • C. 

      C. Abraham Maslow

    • D. 

      D. Douglas McGregor

  • 185. 
    ____ found that people were motivated to work mostly by feelings of personal achievement and recognition.
    • A. 

      A. Maslow

    • B. 

      B. McGregor

    • C. 

      C. McClelland

    • D. 

      D. Herzberg

  • 186. 
    ____ proposed that an individual’s specific needs are acquired or learned over time and shaped by life experiences.
    • A. 

      A. Frederick Herzberg

    • B. 

      B. David McClelland

    • C. 

      C. Abraham Maslow

    • D. 

      D. Douglas McGregor

  • 187. 
    People with a high need for ____ seek to excel and tend to avoid both low-risk and high-risk situations to improve their chances for achieving something worthwhile.
    • A. 

      A. affiliation

    • B. 

      B. money

    • C. 

      C. power

    • D. 

      D. achievement

  • 188. 
    People with a high need for ____ desire harmonious relationships with other people and need to feel accepted by others.
    • A. 

      A. affiliation

    • B. 

      B. money

    • C. 

      C. power

    • D. 

      D. achievement

  • 189. 
    People who need personal ____ want to direct others and can be seen as bossy.
    • A. 

      A. affiliation

    • B. 

      B. advancement

    • C. 

      C. power

    • D. 

      D. achievement

  • 190. 
    The ____ presents subjects with a series of ambiguous pictures and asks them to develop a spontaneous story for each picture, assuming they will project their own needs into the story.
    • A. 

      A. RAM

    • B. 

      B. MBTI

    • C. 

      C. TAT

    • D. 

      D. RACI

  • 191. 
    ____ is best known for developing Theory X and Theory Y.
    • A. 

      A. Frederick Herzberg

    • B. 

      B. David McClelland

    • C. 

      C. Abraham Maslow

    • D. 

      D. Douglas McGregor

  • 192. 
    People who believe in ____ assume that the average worker wants to be directed and prefers to avoid responsibility.
    • A. 

      A. Theory W

    • B. 

      B. Theory X

    • C. 

      C. Theory Y

    • D. 

      D. Theory Z

  • 193. 
    ____ emphasizes things such as job rotation, broadening of skills, generalization versus specialization, and the need for continuous training of workers.
    • A. 

      A. Theory W

    • B. 

      B. Theory X

    • C. 

      C. Theory Y

    • D. 

      D. Theory Z

  • 194. 
    According to Thamhain and Wilemon, ____ is the legitimate hierarchical right to issue orders.
    • A. 

      A. authority

    • B. 

      B. assignment

    • C. 

      C. expertise

    • D. 

      D. promotion

  • 195. 
    According to Thamhain and Wilemon, ____ is the ability to improve a worker’s position.
    • A. 

      A. authority

    • B. 

      B. assignment

    • C. 

      C. expertise

    • D. 

      D. promotion

  • 196. 
    ____ involves using punishment, threats, or other negative approaches to get people to do things they do not want to do.
    • A. 

      A. Legitimate power

    • B. 

      B. Coercive power

    • C. 

      C. Reward power

    • D. 

      D. Referent power

  • 197. 
    ____ involves using incentives to induce people to do things.
    • A. 

      A. Legitimate power

    • B. 

      B. Coercive power

    • C. 

      C. Reward power

    • D. 

      D. Referent power

  • 198. 
    ____ is based on an individual’s personal charisma.
    • A. 

      A. Legitimate power

    • B. 

      B. Coercive power

    • C. 

      C. Reward power

    • D. 

      D. Referent power

  • 199. 
    Which of Covey’s habits does Douglas Ross suggest differentiates good project managers from average or poor project managers? ____
    • A. 

      A. Think win/win

    • B. 

      B. Seek first to understand, then to be understood

    • C. 

      C. Begin with the end in mind

    • D. 

      D. Synergize

  • 200. 
    ____ is matching certain behaviors of the other person.
    • A. 

      A. Empathic listening

    • B. 

      B. Rapport

    • C. 

      C. Synergy

    • D. 

      D. Mirroring

  • 201. 
    ____ fill in for project managers in their absence and assist them as needed.
    • A. 

      A. Deputy project managers

    • B. 

      B. Subproject managers

    • C. 

      C. Assistant project managers

    • D. 

      D. Second-tier project managers

  • 202. 
    The first step in the framework for defining and assigning work is ____.
    • A. 

      A. defining how the work will be accomplished

    • B. 

      B. breaking down the work into manageable elements

    • C. 

      C. finalizing the project requirements

    • D. 

      D. assigning work responsibilities

  • 203. 
    A(n) ____ is a column chart that shows the number of resources assigned to a project over time.
    • A. 

      A. responsibility assignment matrix

    • B. 

      B. resource histogram

    • C. 

      C. RACI charts

    • D. 

      D. organizational breakdown structure

  • 204. 
    ____ refers to the amount of individual resources an existing schedule requires during specific time periods.
    • A. 

      A. Resource loading

    • B. 

      B. Resource leveling

    • C. 

      C. Resource allocation

    • D. 

      D. Resource requesting

  • 205. 
    ____ is a technique for resolving resource conflicts by delaying tasks.
    • A. 

      A. Resource loading

    • B. 

      B. Resource leveling

    • C. 

      C. Resource allocation

    • D. 

      D. Resource requesting

  • 206. 
    In the Tuckman model, ____ occurs as team members have different opinions as to how the team should operate.
    • A. 

      A. performing

    • B. 

      B. norming

    • C. 

      C. forming

    • D. 

      D. storming

  • 207. 
    In the Tuckman model, ____ occurs when the emphasis is on reaching the team goals, rather than working on team process.
    • A. 

      A. performing

    • B. 

      B. norming

    • C. 

      C. forming

    • D. 

      D. storming

  • 208. 
    In the MBTI, the ____ dimension relates to the manner in which you gather information.
    • A. 

      A. Extrovert/Introvert

    • B. 

      B. Thinking/Feeling

    • C. 

      C. Judgment/Perception

    • D. 

      D. Sensation/Intuition

  • 209. 
    Psychologist David Merril describes ____ as reactive and task-oriented.
    • A. 

      A. “Expressives”

    • B. 

      B. “Drivers”

    • C. 

      C. “Analyticals”

    • D. 

      D. “Amiables”

  • 210. 
    Psychologist David Merril describes ____ as reactive and people-oriented.
    • A. 

      A. “Expressives”

    • B. 

      B. “Drivers”

    • C. 

      C. “Analyticals”

    • D. 

      D. “Amiables”

  • 211. 
    The information technology field is relatively stable and unchanging.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 212. 
    The gap between users and developers decreases as technology advances.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 213. 
    Most educational systems for information technology graduates promote strong technical skills over strong communication and social skills.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 214. 
    You can separate technical skills and soft skills when working on information technology projects.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 215. 
    The communications management plan will vary with the needs of the project.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 216. 
    The communications management plan should not address frequency of communication.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 217. 
    By analyzing stakeholder communications needs, you can avoid wasting time or money on creating or disseminating unnecessary information.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 218. 
    Consistent communication helps organizations improve project communications, especially for programs composed of multiple projects.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 219. 
    Many WBSs include a section for project communications to ensure that reporting key information is a project deliverable.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 220. 
    Getting project information to the right people at the right time and in a useful format is not as important as developing the information in the first place.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 221. 
    Instead of knowing the people working on their projects and developing a trusting relationship with them, many colleagues and managers should want to focus on getting information by reading technical documents.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 222. 
    It is not important to document any changes in technical specifications that might affect product performance.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 223. 
    People have a tendency to want to report bad information.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 224. 
    Adding more people to a project that is falling behind schedule often causes more setbacks because of the increased complexity of communications.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 225. 
    You can assume that a task originally scheduled to take two months of one person’s time can be done in one month by two people.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 226. 
    Rarely does the receiver interpret a message exactly as the sender intended.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 227. 
    Communicating badly exponentially increases the possibility of making fatal mistakes.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 228. 
    Status reports can take various formats depending on the stakeholders’ needs.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 229. 
    Many projects have each team member prepare a monthly or sometimes weekly progress report.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 230. 
    Team members often create consolidated progress reports based on the information received from team leaders.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 231. 
    Project managers should lead their teams in developing norms for dealing with various types of conflicts that might arise on their projects.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 232. 
    When using the confrontation mode, project managers directly face a conflict using a problem-solving approach that allows affected parties to work through their disagreements.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 233. 
    Project managers must realize that all conflict is bad.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 234. 
    Emotional conflict, which stems from personality clashes and misunderstandings, often depresses team performance.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 235. 
    It is common to find someone with a natural ability for both communication and technical skills.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 236. 
    Not understanding how to communicate effectively with other cultures and people of diverse backgrounds hurts projects and businesses.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 237. 
    It is not good practice to include time for informal meetings with customers to help develop relationships and provide staff to assist in relationship management.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 238. 
    Do not have a meeting if there is a better way of achieving the objective at hand.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 239. 
    E-mail is always an appropriate medium for all types of communications.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 240. 
    Project team members rarely need to see all project documentation.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 241. 
    There are ____ main processes in project communications management.
    • A. 

      A. two

    • B. 

      B. three

    • C. 

      C. four

    • D. 

      D. five

  • 242. 
    ____ involves determining the information and communications needs of the stakeholders.
    • A. 

      A. Reporting performance

    • B. 

      B. Distributing information

    • C. 

      C. Managing stakeholder expectations

    • D. 

      D. Planning communications

  • 243. 
    The output of the ____ process is a communications management plan.
    • A. 

      A. reporting performance

    • B. 

      B. distributing information

    • C. 

      C. managing stakeholder expectations

    • D. 

      D. planning communications

  • 244. 
    ____ involves making needed information available to project stakeholders in a timely manner.
    • A. 

      A. Reporting performance

    • B. 

      B. Distributing information

    • C. 

      C. Managing stakeholder expectations

    • D. 

      D. Planning communications

  • 245. 
    ____ involves collecting and disseminating performance information, including status reports, progress measurement, and forecasting.
    • A. 

      A. Reporting performance

    • B. 

      B. Distributing information

    • C. 

      C. Managing stakeholder expectations

    • D. 

      D. Planning communications

  • 246. 
    The communications management plan can be part of the team ____.
    • A. 

      A. WBS

    • B. 

      B. contract

    • C. 

      C. plan

    • D. 

      D. guidelines

  • 247. 
    Having ____ review and approve all stakeholder communications analysis will ensure that the information is correct and useful.
    • A. 

      A. stakeholders

    • B. 

      B. project team members

    • C. 

      C. top management

    • D. 

      D. customers

  • 248. 
    Information regarding the content of essential project communications comes from the ____.
    • A. 

      A. organizational chart

    • B. 

      B. communications management plan

    • C. 

      C. work breakdown structure (WBS)

    • D. 

      D. expectations management matrix

  • 249. 
    The ____ serves as a good starting point for information distribution.
    • A. 

      A. stakeholder communications analysis

    • B. 

      B. WBS

    • C. 

      C. communications management plan

    • D. 

      D. status report

  • 250. 
    Often, many non-technical professionals—from colleagues to managers—prefer to ____ about project information to try to find pertinent information.
    • A. 

      A. read detailed reports

    • B. 

      B. read e-mails

    • C. 

      C. read Web pages

    • D. 

      D. have a two-way conversation

  • 251. 
    ____ are often more effective, particularly for sensitive information.
    • A. 

      A. Electronic communications

    • B. 

      B. Short face-to-face meetings

    • C. 

      C. Telephone conversations

    • D. 

      D. Long face-to-face meetings

  • 252. 
    Many people cite research that says in a face-to-face interaction, ____ percent of communication is through body language.
    • A. 

      A. 10

    • B. 

      B. 25

    • C. 

      C. 58

    • D. 

      D. 85

  • 253. 
    Since information technology projects often require a lot of coordination, it is a good idea to have ____ meetings.
    • A. 

      A. long, frequent

    • B. 

      B. short, infrequent

    • C. 

      C. short, frequent

    • D. 

      D. long, infrequent

  • 254. 
    According to the guidelines provided by Practical Communications, Inc., a(n) ____ is the only inappropriate method for expressing support/appreciation.
    • A. 

      A. phone call

    • B. 

      B. e-mail

    • C. 

      C. meeting

    • D. 

      D. Web site

  • 255. 
    According to the guidelines provided by Practical Communications, Inc., a(n) ____ is the only method that is “excellent” for encouraging creative thinking.
    • A. 

      A. phone call

    • B. 

      B. e-mail

    • C. 

      C. meeting

    • D. 

      D. Web Site

  • 256. 
    According to the guidelines provided by Practical Communications, Inc., a(n) ____ is the most appropriate method for giving complex instructions.
    • A. 

      A. phone call

    • B. 

      B. e-mail

    • C. 

      C. meeting

    • D. 

      D. Web Site

  • 257. 
    Many users prefer ____ to learn how to use a new system.
    • A. 

      A. phone conversations

    • B. 

      B. face-to-face meetings

    • C. 

      C. e-mail conversations

    • D. 

      D. reading user guides

  • 258. 
    As the number of people involved in a project ____, the complexity of communications ____.
    • A. 

      A. increases, decreases

    • B. 

      B. decreases, increases

    • C. 

      C. increases, stays constant

    • D. 

      D. increases, increases

  • 259. 
    Two people have ____ communications channel(s).
    • A. 

      A. zero

    • B. 

      B. one

    • C. 

      C. two

    • D. 

      D. three

  • 260. 
    Four people have ____ communications channel(s).
    • A. 

      A. one

    • B. 

      B. four

    • C. 

      C. six

    • D. 

      D. eight

  • 261. 
    Many practitioners define project success as ____.
    • A. 

      A. meeting project scope goals

    • B. 

      B. meeting time goals

    • C. 

      C. satisfying the customer/sponsor

    • D. 

      D. meeting cost goals

  • 262. 
    Project sponsors can usually rank scope, time, and cost goals in order of importance in a(n) ____.
    • A. 

      A. expectations management matrix

    • B. 

      B. responsibility assignment matrix

    • C. 

      C. issue log

    • D. 

      D. priority matrix

  • 263. 
    ____ describe where the project stands at a specific point in time.
    • A. 

      A. Progress reports

    • B. 

      B. Status reports

    • C. 

      C. Forecasts

    • D. 

      D. Updates

  • 264. 
    ____ describe what the project team has accomplished during a certain period.
    • A. 

      A. Progress reports

    • B. 

      B. Status reports

    • C. 

      C. Forecasts

    • D. 

      D. Updates

  • 265. 
    ____ predict future project status and progress based on past information and trends.
    • A. 

      A. Progress reports

    • B. 

      B. Status reports

    • C. 

      C. Forecasts

    • D. 

      D. Updates

  • 266. 
    ____ are a good way to highlight information provided in important project documents, empower people to be accountable for their work, and have face-to-face discussions about important project issues.
    • A. 

      A. Information retreats

    • B. 

      B. Status planning meetings

    • C. 

      C. Information review meetings

    • D. 

      D. Status review meetings

  • 267. 
    ____ issues cause the most conflicts over the project life cycle.
    • A. 

      A. Project priority

    • B. 

      B. Staffing

    • C. 

      C. Cost

    • D. 

      D. Schedule

  • 268. 
    The ____ mode is also called the problem-solving mode.
    • A. 

      A. confrontation

    • B. 

      B. compromise

    • C. 

      C. smoothing

    • D. 

      D. forcing

  • 269. 
    With the ____, project managers use a give-and-take approach to resolving conflicts.
    • A. 

      A. confrontation mode

    • B. 

      B. compromise mode

    • C. 

      C. smoothing mode

    • D. 

      D. forcing mode

  • 270. 
    When using the ____, the project manager deemphasizes or avoids areas of differences and emphasizes areas of agreement.
    • A. 

      A. confrontation mode

    • B. 

      B. withdrawal mode

    • C. 

      C. smoothing mode

    • D. 

      D. forcing mode

  • 271. 
    When using the ____, project managers exert their viewpoint at the potential expense of another viewpoint.
    • A. 

      A. confrontation mode

    • B. 

      B. compromise mode

    • C. 

      C. smoothing mode

    • D. 

      D. forcing mode

  • 272. 
    When using the ____, project managers retreat or withdraw from an actual or potential disagreement.
    • A. 

      A. confrontation mode

    • B. 

      B. withdrawal mode

    • C. 

      C. smoothing mode

    • D. 

      D. forcing mode

  • 273. 
    Research indicates that project managers favor using ____ for conflict resolution over the other four modes.
    • A. 

      A. compromise

    • B. 

      B. smoothing

    • C. 

      C. confrontation

    • D. 

      D. forcing

  • 274. 
    ____ employees are also more likely to enroll voluntarily in classes on the latest technology than those on developing their soft skills.
    • A. 

      A. Individual

    • B. 

      B. Service

    • C. 

      C. Groups of

    • D. 

      D. Team

  • 275. 
    It takes ____ to help improve communication.
    • A. 

      A. timing

    • B. 

      B. highly skilled employees

    • C. 

      C. leadership

    • D. 

      D. outside consultants

  • 276. 
    According to the guideline governing ____, many meetings are most effective with the minimum number of participants possible.
    • A. 

      A. determining if a meeting can be avoided

    • B. 

      B. determining who should attend the meeting

    • C. 

      C. defining the purpose and intended outcome of the meeting

    • D. 

      D. running the meeting professionally

  • 277. 
    According to the guideline governing ____, designate someone to take minutes and send the minutes out soon after the meeting.
    • A. 

      A. running the meeting professionally

    • B. 

      B. providing an agenda to participants before the meeting

    • C. 

      C. determining who should attend the meeting

    • D. 

      D. building relationships

  • 278. 
    The ____ line for any e-mail messages you write should clearly state the intention of the e-mail.
    • A. 

      A. to

    • B. 

      B. from

    • C. 

      C. subject

    • D. 

      D. cc

  • 279. 
    Some items discussed in a(n) ____ include reflections on whether project goals were met, whether the project was successful or not, the causes of variances on the project, the reasoning behind corrective actions chosen, the use of different project management tools and techniques, and personal words of wisdom based on team members’ experiences.
    • A. 

      A. final project report

    • B. 

      B. design document

    • C. 

      C. audit report

    • D. 

      D. lessons-learned report

  • 280. 
    ____ are a complete set of organized project records that provide an accurate history of the project.
    • A. 

      A. Project archives

    • B. 

      B. Project backups

    • C. 

      C. Project databases

    • D. 

      D. Project notes

  • 281. 
    Risk management is a frequently overlooked aspect of project management.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 282. 
    Good project risk management never goes unnoticed.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 283. 
    Before you can improve project risk management, you must understand what risk is.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 284. 
    Negative risk management is like investing in opportunities.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 285. 
    The cost for risk management should not exceed the potential benefits.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 286. 
    By reviewing the project scope statement, cost, schedule, and communications management plans, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets, project teams can discuss and analyze risk management activities for their particular projects.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 287. 
    The last step in project risk management is deciding how to address this knowledge area for a particular project by performing risk management planning.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 288. 
    The level of detail included in the risk management plan rarely varies across projects.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 289. 
    Few organizations develop their own risk questionnaires.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 290. 
    You can break down the technology risk category into hardware, software, and network technology.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 291. 
    Potential risks can only be identified early in a project.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 292. 
    The psychology literature shows that individuals, working alone, produce fewer ideas than the same individuals produce through brainstorming in small, face-to-face groups.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 293. 
    The Delphi technique is a systematic, interactive forecasting procedure based on independent and anonymous input regarding future events.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 294. 
    It is uncommon for people to identify problems or opportunities without really understanding them.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 295. 
    SWOT analysis can be used during risk identification by having project teams focus on the broad perspectives of potential risks for particular projects.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 296. 
    Risk events refer to specific, certain events that may occur to the detriment or enhancement of the project.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 297. 
    A potential response to the risk event of a defective server might be the inclusion of a clause in a contract with the supplier to replace a defective server within a certain time period at a negotiated cost.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 298. 
    A probability/impact matrix or chart lists the relative probability of a risk occurring on one side of a matrix or axis on a chart and the relative impact of the risk occurring on the other.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 299. 
    Negative and positive risks should always be included in the same probability/impact matrix or chart.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 300. 
    A simple approach to using probability/impact information is to calculate risk factors.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 301. 
    The Microsoft Solution Framework (MSF) includes a risk management model that includes developing and monitoring a top-ten master list of risks.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 302. 
    A risk management review accomplishes one objective: it keeps management and the customer aware of the major influences that could prevent or enhance the project’s success.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 303. 
    The main output of qualitative risk analysis is a decision tree.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 304. 
    Quantitative risk analysis and qualitative risk analysis must be done together.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 305. 
    The lower the EMV, the better.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 306. 
    The Monte Carlo analysis can predict the probability of finishing by a certain date or the probability that the cost will be equal to or less than a certain value.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 307. 
    Several PC-based software packages are available that perform Monte Carlo simulations.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 308. 
    Increasing the project manager’s authority is a strategy for mitigating technical and cost risks.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 309. 
    Selecting the most experienced project manager is recommended for reducing schedule risks.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 310. 
    Project risk management does not stop with the initial risk analysis.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 311. 
    William Ibbs and Young H. Kwak’s study revealed that the ____ industry had the lowest level of project management maturity in the area of risk management.
    • A. 

      A. engineering/construction

    • B. 

      B. telecommunications

    • C. 

      C. information systems

    • D. 

      D. high-tech manufacturing

  • 312. 
    William Ibbs and Young H. Kwak’s study revealed that the ____ industry had the lowest level of project management maturity in the area of quality management.
    • A. 

      A. engineering/construction

    • B. 

      B. telecommunications

    • C. 

      C. information systems

    • D. 

      D. high-tech manufacturing

  • 313. 
    KLCI Research Group’s 2001 survey revealed that ____ percent of the participants said they had procedures in place to identify and assess risk.
    • A. 

      A. 75

    • B. 

      B. 87

    • C. 

      C. 97

    • D. 

      D. 99

  • 314. 
    KLCI Research Group’s 2001 survey revealed that ____ percent identified anticipating and avoiding problems as the primary benefit of risk management.
    • A. 

      A. 60

    • B. 

      B. 80

    • C. 

      C. 89

    • D. 

      D. 99

  • 315. 
    KLCI Research Group’s 2001 survey revealed that ____ percent of the organizations surveyed had a Project Management Office.
    • A. 

      A. 64

    • B. 

      B. 75

    • C. 

      C. 85

    • D. 

      D. 94

  • 316. 
    KLCI Research Group’s 2001 survey revealed that the most frequently cited benefit from software risk management practices is to ____.
    • A. 

      A. prevent surprises

    • B. 

      B. improve ability to negotiate

    • C. 

      C. meet customer commitments

    • D. 

      D. anticipate/avoid problems

  • 317. 
    Utility rises at a decreasing rate for a ____ person.
    • A. 

      A. risk-seeking

    • B. 

      B. risk-averse

    • C. 

      C. risk-neutral

    • D. 

      D. risk-indifferent

  • 318. 
    Those who are ____ have a higher tolerance for risk, and their satisfaction increases when more payoff is at stake.
    • A. 

      A. risk-seeking

    • B. 

      B. risk-averse

    • C. 

      C. risk-neutral

    • D. 

      D. risk-indifferent

  • 319. 
    A ____ person achieves a balance between risk and payoff.
    • A. 

      A. risk-seeking

    • B. 

      B. risk-averse

    • C. 

      C. risk-fearing

    • D. 

      D. risk-neutral

  • 320. 
    There are ____ major processes involved in risk management.
    • A. 

      A. three

    • B. 

      B. four

    • C. 

      C. five

    • D. 

      D. six

  • 321. 
    ____ involves deciding how to approach and plan the risk management activities for the project.
    • A. 

      A. Identifying risks

    • B. 

      B. Planning risk management

    • C. 

      C. Performing qualitative risk analysis

    • D. 

      D. Performing quantitative risk analysis

  • 322. 
    ____ involves determining which risks are likely to affect a project and documenting the characteristics of each.
    • A. 

      A. Identifying risks

    • B. 

      B. Planning risk management

    • C. 

      C. Performing qualitative risk analysis

    • D. 

      D. Performing quantitative risk analysis

  • 323. 
    ____ involves prioritizing risks based on their probability and impact of occurrence.
    • A. 

      A. Performing qualitative risk analysis

    • B. 

      B. Planning risk management

    • C. 

      C. Planning risk responses

    • D. 

      D. Performing quantitative risk analysis

  • 324. 
    ____ involves numerically estimating the effects of risks on project objectives.
    • A. 

      A. Performing qualitative risk analysis

    • B. 

      B. Planning risk responses

    • C. 

      C. Planning risk management

    • D. 

      D. Performing quantitative risk analysis

  • 325. 
    ____ involves taking steps to enhance opportunities and reduce threats to meeting project objectives.
    • A. 

      A. Performing quantitative risk analysis

    • B. 

      B. Planning risk responses

    • C. 

      C. Monitoring and controlling risk

    • D. 

      D. Performing qualitative risk analysis

  • 326. 
    ____ involves monitoring identified and residual risks, identifying new risks, carrying out risk response plans, and evaluating the effectiveness of risk strategies throughout the life of the project.
    • A. 

      A. Performing quantitative risk analysis

    • B. 

      B. Planning risk responses

    • C. 

      C. Monitoring and controlling risk

    • D. 

      D. Performing qualitative risk analysis

  • 327. 
    ____ are predefined actions that the project team will take if an identified risk event occurs.
    • A. 

      A. Fallback plans

    • B. 

      B. Contingency reserves

    • C. 

      C. Contingency plans

    • D. 

      D. Contingency allowances

  • 328. 
    ____ are developed for risks that have a high impact on meeting project objectives, and are put into effect if attempts to reduce the risk are not effective.
    • A. 

      A. Fallback plans

    • B. 

      B. Contingency reserves

    • C. 

      C. Contingency plans

    • D. 

      D. Contingency allowances

  • 329. 
    According to the Standish Group’s success potential scoring sheet, ____ has the highest relative importance.
    • A. 

      A. executive management support

    • B. 

      B. clear statement of requirements

    • C. 

      C. proper planning

    • D. 

      D. user involvement

  • 330. 
    “If the information technology project is to produce a new product or service, will it be useful to the organization or marketable to others?” applies to which risk category? ____
    • A. 

      A. Financial risk

    • B. 

      B. Technology risk

    • C. 

      C. Structure/process risk

    • D. 

      D. Market risk

  • 331. 
    “Will the project meet NPV, ROI, and payback estimates?” applies to which risk category? ____
    • A. 

      A. Financial risk

    • B. 

      B. Technology risk

    • C. 

      C. Structure/process risk

    • D. 

      D. Market risk

  • 332. 
    “Is there a project champion?” applies to which risk category? ____
    • A. 

      A. Financial risk

    • B. 

      B. Technology risk

    • C. 

      C. Structure/process risk

    • D. 

      D. People risk

  • 333. 
    In a risk breakdown structure, competitors, suppliers, and cash flow are categories that fall under ____ risk.
    • A. 

      A. business

    • B. 

      B. technical

    • C. 

      C. organizational

    • D. 

      D. project management

  • 334. 
    Poor conflict management, poor project organization and definition of responsibilities, and absence of leadership are risk conditions associated with the ____ project management knowledge area.
    • A. 

      A. Integration

    • B. 

      B. Quality

    • C. 

      C. Time

    • D. 

      D. Human Resources

  • 335. 
    Unenforceable conditions or contract clauses, and adversarial relations are risk conditions associated with the ____ project management knowledge area.
    • A. 

      A. Integration

    • B. 

      B. Quality

    • C. 

      C. Procurement

    • D. 

      D. Human Resources

  • 336. 
    ____ is a fact-finding technique for collecting information in face-to-face, phone, e-mail, or instant-messaging discussions.
    • A. 

      A. Brainstorming

    • B. 

      B. SWOT analysis

    • C. 

      C. The Delphi technique

    • D. 

      D. Interviewing

  • 337. 
    A(n) ____ represents decision problems by displaying essential elements, including decisions, uncertainties, causality, and objectives, and how they influence each other.
    • A. 

      A. risk breakdown structure

    • B. 

      B. influence diagram

    • C. 

      C. process flow chart

    • D. 

      D. system flow chart

  • 338. 
    A project manager can chart the probability and impact of risks on a ____.
    • A. 

      A. risk ranking chart

    • B. 

      B. risk probability table

    • C. 

      C. probability/impact matrix

    • D. 

      D. risk assessment matrix

  • 339. 
    ____ are/is a qualitative risk analysis tool, and in addition to identifying risks, it maintains an awareness of risks throughout the life of a project.
    • A. 

      A. Risk factor analysis

    • B. 

      B. Probability/impact matrices or charts

    • C. 

      C. Risk registering

    • D. 

      D. Top Ten Risk Item Tracking

  • 340. 
    A(n) ____ is a diagramming analysis technique used to help select the best course of action in situations in which future outcomes are uncertain.
    • A. 

      A. decision tree

    • B. 

      B. EMV

    • C. 

      C. Monte Carlo analysis

    • D. 

      D. watch list

  • 341. 
    ____ analysis simulates a model’s outcome many times to provide a statistical distribution of the calculated results.
    • A. 

      A. Decision tree

    • B. 

      B. EMV

    • C. 

      C. Monte Carlo

    • D. 

      D. Watch list

  • 342. 
    What is the first step in a Monte Carlo analysis?
    • A. 

      A. Determine the probability distribution of each variable.

    • B. 

      B. For each variable, such as the time estimate for a task, select a random value based on the probability distribution for the occurrence of the variable.

    • C. 

      C. Assess the range for the variables being considered.

    • D. 

      D. Run a deterministic analysis or one pass through the model using the combination of values selected for each one of the variables.

  • 343. 
    ____ involves eliminating a specific threat, usually by eliminating its causes.
    • A. 

      A. Risk avoidance

    • B. 

      B. Risk acceptance

    • C. 

      C. Risk transference

    • D. 

      D. Risk mitigation

  • 344. 
    ____ involves shifting the consequence of a risk and responsibility for its management to a third party.
    • A. 

      A. Risk avoidance

    • B. 

      B. Risk acceptance

    • C. 

      C. Risk transference

    • D. 

      D. Risk mitigation

  • 345. 
    ____ involves reducing the impact of a risk event by reducing the probability of its occurrence.
    • A. 

      A. Risk avoidance

    • B. 

      B. Risk acceptance

    • C. 

      C. Risk transference

    • D. 

      D. Risk mitigation

  • 346. 
    ____ involves doing whatever you can to make sure the positive risk happens.
    • A. 

      A. Risk exploitation

    • B. 

      B. Risk sharing

    • C. 

      C. Risk enhancement

    • D. 

      D. Risk acceptance

  • 347. 
    ____ involves allocating ownership of the risk to another party.
    • A. 

      A. Risk exploitation

    • B. 

      B. Risk sharing

    • C. 

      C. Risk enhancement

    • D. 

      D. Risk acceptance

  • 348. 
    ____ involves changing the size of the opportunity by identifying and maximizing key drivers of the positive risk.
    • A. 

      A. Risk exploitation

    • B. 

      B. Risk sharing

    • C. 

      C. Risk enhancement

    • D. 

      D. Risk acceptance

  • 349. 
    ____ applies to positive risks when the project team cannot or chooses not to take any actions toward a risk.
    • A. 

      A. Risk enhancement

    • B. 

      B. Risk acceptance

    • C. 

      C. Risk sharing

    • D. 

      D. Risk exploitation

  • 350. 
    ____ risks are a direct result of implementing a risk response.
    • A. 

      A. Tertiary

    • B. 

      B. Primary

    • C. 

      C. Residual

    • D. 

      D. Secondary

  • 351. 
    Many private companies use the term procurement instead of purchasing.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 352. 
    The cost savings and use of offshore resources lower inflation, increase productivity, and lower interest rates.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 353. 
    Most people view offshore outsourcing as being good.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 354. 
    Many companies are realizing that they can use offshore outsourcing and create more jobs at home.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 355. 
    Few organizations use some form of outsourcing to meet their information technology needs.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 356. 
    According to a 2008 report on IT outsourceing trends in the U.S. and Canada, application development is the least popular form of IT outsourcing and was used by only 25 percent of organizations surveyed.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 357. 
    When an organization outsources work, it often does not have as much control over those aspects of projects that suppliers carry out.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 358. 
    The success of many information technology projects that use outside resources is often due to good project cost management.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 359. 
    If there is no need to buy any products or services from outside the organization, then there is no need to perform any of the other procurement management processes.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 360. 
    It is always less effective to hire skilled consultants to perform specific tasks for a short period of time than to hire or keep employees on staff full time.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 361. 
    Make-or-buy analysis involves estimating the internal costs of providing a product or service and comparing that estimate to the cost of outsourcing.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 362. 
    Experts outside the company, including potential suppliers themselves, cannot provide expert judgment.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 363. 
    The buyer absorbs less of the risk with cost-reimbursable contracts than they do with fixed-price contracts.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 364. 
    The total value of the contract is a function of the quantities needed to complete the work.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 365. 
    Any type of contract should include specific clauses that take into account issues unique to the project.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 366. 
    Some termination clauses state that the buyer can terminate a contract for any reason and give the supplier only 24 hours’ notice.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 367. 
    Contents of the procurement management plan will vary with project needs.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 368. 
    Lead times for purchases and acquisitions should not be included in a procurement management plan.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 369. 
    It is important to use appropriate words in a contract SOW such as may instead of must.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 370. 
    A contract SOW should not specify the location of the work.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 371. 
    The main sections of an RFP never include the statement of work and schedule information.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 372. 
    A key factor in evaluating bids, particularly for projects involving information technology, is the past performance record of the bidder.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 373. 
    Experts in source selection recommend that technical criteria should be given more weight than management or cost criteria.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 374. 
    It is customary to have contract negotiations during the source selection process.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 375. 
    The term “e-procurement” often describes various procurement functions that are now done electronically.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 376. 
    An October 2005 Information Technology Association of America (ITAA)–sponsored report stated that spending for global sources of computer software and services is expected to grow at a compound annual rate of about ____ percent.
    • A. 

      A. 10

    • B. 

      B. 20

    • C. 

      C. 30

    • D. 

      D. 40

  • 377. 
    An October 2005 Information Technology Association of America (ITAA)–sponsored report stated that total savings from offshore resources during the 2005-2010 period are estimated to grow from $8.7 billion to ____.
    • A. 

      A. $10.2 billion

    • B. 

      B. $20.4 billion

    • C. 

      C. $50.4 billion

    • D. 

      D. $107.9 billion

  • 378. 
    “Outsourcing suppliers are often able to use economies of scale that may not be available to the client alone, especially for hardware and software.” refers to the ____ benefit of outsourcing.
    • A. 

      A. Reduce both fixed and recurrent costs

    • B. 

      B. Allow the client organization to focus on its core business

    • C. 

      C. Access skills and technologies

    • D. 

      D. Provide flexibility

  • 379. 
    “Most organizations are not in business to provide information technology services, yet many have spent valuable time and resources on information technology functions when they should have focused on core competencies such as marketing, customer service, and new product design.” refers to the ____ benefit of outsourcing.
    • A. 

      A. Reduce both fixed and recurrent costs

    • B. 

      B. Provide flexibility

    • C. 

      C. Access skills and technologies

    • D. 

      D. Allow the client organization to focus on its core business

  • 380. 
    “Organizations can gain access to specific skills and technologies when they are required by using outside resources.” refers to the ____ benefit of outsourcing.
    • A. 

      A. Reduce both fixed and recurrent costs

    • B. 

      B. Provide flexibility

    • C. 

      C. Access skills and technologies

    • D. 

      D. Allow the client organization to focus on its core business

  • 381. 
    “Outsourcing to provide extra staff during periods of peak workloads can be much more economical than trying to staff entire projects with internal resources.” refers to the ____ benefit.
    • A. 

      A. Reduce both fixed and recurrent costs

    • B. 

      B. Provide flexibility

    • C. 

      C. Access skills and technologies

    • D. 

      D. Allow the client organization to focus on its core business

  • 382. 
    There are ____ main processes of project procurement management.
    • A. 

      A. three

    • B. 

      B. four

    • C. 

      C. five

    • D. 

      D. six

  • 383. 
    ____ involves determining what to procure, when, and how.
    • A. 

      A. Planning contracting

    • B. 

      B. Administrating procurements

    • C. 

      C. Conducting procurements

    • D. 

      D. Planning procurements

  • 384. 
    ____ involves obtaining seller responses, selecting sellers, and awarding contracts.
    • A. 

      A. Conducting procurements

    • B. 

      B. Selecting sellers

    • C. 

      C. Requesting seller responses

    • D. 

      D. Planning purchases and acquisitions

  • 385. 
    Outputs of the ____ process include selected sellers, procurement contract awards, resource calendars, change requests, and updates to the project management plan and other project documents.
    • A. 

      A. Closing the contract

    • B. 

      B. Conducting procurements

    • C. 

      C. Requesting seller responses

    • D. 

      D. Administering the contract

  • 386. 
    ____ involves managing relationships with sellers, monitoring contract performance, and making changes as needed.
    • A. 

      A. Closing procurements

    • B. 

      B. Selecting sellers

    • C. 

      C. Requesting seller responses

    • D. 

      D. Administering procurements

  • 387. 
    ____ involves completion and settlement of each contract, including resolution of any open items.
    • A. 

      A. Exiting procurements

    • B. 

      B. Closing out accounts

    • C. 

      C. Closing procurements

    • D. 

      D. Ending procurements

  • 388. 
    For many projects, properly ____ some information technology functions can be a great investment.
    • A. 

      A. outsourcing

    • B. 

      B. scaling

    • C. 

      C. increasing

    • D. 

      D. planning

  • 389. 
    ____ contracts involve a fixed total price for a well-defined product or service.
    • A. 

      A. CPFF

    • B. 

      B. Lump sum

    • C. 

      C. Cost-reimbursable

    • D. 

      D. Time and material

  • 390. 
    ____ involve payment to the supplier for direct and indirect actual costs.
    • A. 

      A. CPFF contracts

    • B. 

      B. Lump sum contracts

    • C. 

      C. Cost-reimbursable contracts

    • D. 

      D. Time and material contracts

  • 391. 
    With a(n) ____ contract, the buyer pays the supplier for allowable performance costs along with a predetermined fee and an incentive bonus.
    • A. 

      A. CPFF

    • B. 

      B. CPIF

    • C. 

      C. CPPC

    • D. 

      D. CPPF

  • 392. 
    With a(n) ____ contract, the buyer pays the supplier for allowable performance costs plus a fixed fee payment usually based on a percentage of estimated costs.
    • A. 

      A. CPFF

    • B. 

      B. CPIF

    • C. 

      C. CPPC

    • D. 

      D. CPPF

  • 393. 
    With a(n) ____ contract, the buyer pays the supplier for allowable performance costs along with a predetermined percentage based on total costs.
    • A. 

      A. CPFF

    • B. 

      B. CPIF

    • C. 

      C. CPPC

    • D. 

      D. CPPF

  • 394. 
    From the supplier’s perspective, there is the least risk with a(n) ____ contract.
    • A. 

      A. CPFF

    • B. 

      B. FFP

    • C. 

      C. CPPC

    • D. 

      D. CPFF

  • 395. 
    The ____ is a description of the work required for the procurement.
    • A. 

      A. RFQ

    • B. 

      B. RFP

    • C. 

      C. COW

    • D. 

      D. SOW

  • 396. 
    Many organizations use ____ and templates to generate SOWs.
    • A. 

      A. details

    • B. 

      B. outlines

    • C. 

      C. plans

    • D. 

      D. samples

  • 397. 
    A(n) ____ is a document used to solicit proposals from prospective suppliers.
    • A. 

      A. RFQ

    • B. 

      B. RFP

    • C. 

      C. COW

    • D. 

      D. SOW

  • 398. 
    A(n) ____ is a document used to solicit quotes or bids from prospective suppliers.
    • A. 

      A. RFQ

    • B. 

      B. RFP

    • C. 

      C. COW

    • D. 

      D. SOW

  • 399. 
    Buyers typically develop a short list of the top ____ suppliers to reduce the work involved in selecting a source.
    • A. 

      A. one to two

    • B. 

      B. three to five

    • C. 

      C. eight to ten

    • D. 

      D. twelve to fifteen

  • 400. 
    ____ change orders are oral or written acts or omissions by someone with actual or apparent authority that can be construed to have the same effect as a written change order.
    • A. 

      A. Direct

    • B. 

      B. Constructive

    • C. 

      C. Destructive

    • D. 

      D. Instructive