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Chapter 7-12

400 Questions  I  By Quizcreationhelp
Technology Quizzes & Trivia

  
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1.  Although information technology projects have a poor track record in meeting project goals, they have a good track record in meeting budget goals.
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B.
2.  Preparing cost estimates is a job for accountants.
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B.
3.  Any new technology or business process is untested and has inherent risks.
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B.
4.  Many projects that are started never finish because of cost management problems.
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B.
5.  When justifying investments in new information systems and technology, the focus should only be on revenues or expenses.
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B.
6.  Organizations have a history of spending too much money in the early phases of information technology projects.
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B.
7.  Project managers must conduct cash flow analysis to determine net present value.
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B.
8.  Direct costs cannot be directly attributed to a certain project.
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B.
9.  When deciding what projects to invest in or continue, you should include sunk costs.
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B.
10.  Learning curve theory does not apply to the amount of time it takes to complete some tasks.
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B.
11.  If a project manager gets sick for two weeks or an important supplier goes out of business, management reserve could be set aside to cover the resulting costs.
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B.
12.  ROM estimates can be referred to as a ballpark estimate, a guesstimate, a swag, or a broad gauge.
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B.
13.  A definitive estimate should be the least accurate of the three types of estimates.
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B.
14.  Estimates are usually done at various stages of a project and should become more accurate as time progresses.
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B.
15.  The cost management plan is part of the overall project management plan.
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B.
16.  A large percentage of total project costs are often labor costs.
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B.
17.  Parametric models are least reliable when historical information was used to create the model.
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B.
18.  When developing an estimate for a large software project, estimates cannot be made before clear system requirements have been produced.
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B.
19.  The people who develop software cost estimates often have a great deal of experience with cost estimation.
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B.
20.  Every cost estimate is unique.
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B.
21.  The WBS is not a required input when developing a cost estimate.
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B.
22.  Most organizations have a well-established process for preparing budgets.
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B.
23.  Cost budgeting provides information for project funding requirements.
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B.
24.  There does not need to be a change control system to define procedures for changing the cost baseline.
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B.
25.  The formulas for variances and indexes start with EV, the earned value.
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B.
26.  If cost variance is a positive number, it means that performing the work cost more than planned.
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B.
27.  If the cost performance index is less than one or less than 100 percent, the project is under budget.
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B.
28.  In an earned value chart, when the actual cost line is right on or above the earned value line, costs are less than or equal to planned.
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B.
29.  Many projects, particularly information technology projects, do not have good planning information, so tracking performance against a plan might produce misleading information.
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B.
30.  Databases are a common tool for cost estimating, cost budgeting, and cost control.
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B.
31.  The Standish Group’s CHAOS studies reported an average cost overrun for unsuccessful IT projects ranged from 180 percent in 1994 to ____ percent in 2004.
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32.  Three separate surveys of software project cost overruns found that the average cost overrun for all of the projects in their survey samples (not just unsuccessful projects) were ____ percent.
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33.  ____ includes the processes required to ensure that a project team completes a project within an approved budget.
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34.  ____ involves developing an approximation or estimate of the costs of the resources needed to complete a project.
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35.  ____ involves allocating the overall cost estimate to individual work items to establish a baseline for measuring performance.
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36.  ____ is the ratio of revenues to profits.
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37.  ____ helps you develop an accurate projection of a project’s financial costs and benefits.
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38.  ____, with assistance from financial experts in their organizations, should create estimates of the costs and benefits of the project for its entire life cycle.
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39.  Since organizations depend on reliable information technology, there are also huge costs associated with ____.
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40.  ____ is a method for determining the estimated annual costs and benefits for a project and the resulting annual cash flow.
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41.  ____ are those costs that an organization can easily measure in dollars.
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42.  Project managers should focus on ____, since they can control them.
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43.  ____ are costs that are not directly related to the products or services of the project, but are indirectly related to performing the project.
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44.  ____ should be forgotten.
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45.  ____ allow for future situations that may be partially planned for.
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46.  ____ allow for future situations that are unpredictable.
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47.  A ____ provides an estimate of what a project will cost.
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48.  A ____ is done very early in a project or even before a project is officially started.
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49.  A ____ is used to allocate money into an organization’s budget.
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50.  A ____ is used for making many purchasing decisions for which accurate estimates are required and for estimating final project costs.
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51.  ____ use the actual cost of a previous, similar project as the basis for estimating the cost of the current project.
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52.  ____ involve estimating individual work items or activities and summing them to get a project total.
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53.  A(n) ____ might provide an estimate of $50 per line of code for a software development project based on the programming language the project is using, the level of expertise of the programmers, the size and complexity of the data involved, and so on.
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54.  Tom DeMarco, a well-known author on software development, suggests ____ reasons for the inaccuracies of many information technology project cost estimates and some ways to overcome them.
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55.  If the cost estimate will be the basis for contract awards and performance reporting, it should be a ____ and as accurate as possible.
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56.  The main goal of the ____ process is to produce a cost baseline for measuring project performance and project funding requirements.
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57.  A ____ is a time-phased budget that project managers use to measure and monitor cost performance.
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58.  The project management plan, project funding requirements, work performance data, and organizational process assets are inputs for the process of ____.
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D.
59.  ____ is a project performance measurement technique that integrates scope, time, and cost data.
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D.
60.  The ____ is that portion of the approved total cost estimate planned to be spent on an activity during a given period.
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61.  The ____ is the ratio of actual work completed to the percentage of work planned to have been completed at any given time during the life of the project or activity.
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D.
62.  The ____ is an estimate of the value of the physical work actually completed.
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63.  The ____ is the total direct and indirect costs incurred in accomplishing work on an activity during a given period.
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D.
64.  Variances are calculated by subtracting the actual cost or planned value from ____.
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65.  ____ is the earned value minus the actual cost.
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66.  ____ is the earned value minus the planned value.
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67.  The ____ is the ratio of earned value to actual cost and can be used to estimate the projected cost of completing the project.
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68.  The ____ is the ratio of earned value to planned value and can be used to estimate the projected time to complete the project.
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D.
69.  The ____ is an estimate of what it will cost to complete the project based on performance to date.
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70.  Using simplified percentage complete amounts for a one-year project with weekly reporting and an average task or work packet size of one week, you can expect about a(n) ____ percent error rate.
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D.
71.  Most people simply accept poor quality from many information technology products.
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B.
72.  The majority of people in the United States use the Internet.
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B.
73.  When an information system does not function correctly, it is generally a slight inconvenience.
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B.
74.  Quality is a lower priority than project scope, time, and cost.
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B.
75.  The quality planning process involves taking responsibility for quality throughout the project’s life cycle.
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B.
76.  Quality planning implies the ability to anticipate situations and prepare actions that bring about the desired outcome.
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B.
77.  Understanding which variables affect outcome is a very important part of quality planning.
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B.
78.  Design of experiments cannot be applied to project management issues such as cost and schedule trade-offs.
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B.
79.  Organizational policies related to quality, the particular project’s scope statement and product descriptions, and related standards and regulations are all important input to the quality assurance process.
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B.
80.  It is important to clarify what functions and features the system must perform, and what functions and features are optional.
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B.
81.  Most information technology products can reach 100 percent reliability.
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B.
82.  Project managers are ultimately responsible for quality management on their projects.
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B.
83.  Continuous quality improvement is not a goal of quality assurance.
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B.
84.  Only in-house auditors can perform quality audits.
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B.
85.  If products are accepted, they are considered to be validated deliverables.
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B.
86.  In a Pareto chart, the variables described by the histogram are ordered chronologically.
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B.
87.  To obtain valid statistics, it is important to study every member of a population.
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B.
88.  Control charts are one tool used in the analyze phase of the DMAIC process.
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B.
89.  All of the Six Sigma principles are brand new.
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B.
90.  Using Six Sigma principles is an organization-wide commitment.
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B.
91.  Minimizing defects does not matter if an organization is making a product that no one wants to buy.
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B.
92.  The term sigma means median.
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B.
93.  Testing needs to be done during almost every phase of the systems development life cycle.
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B.
94.  Integration testing replaces the other forms of testing with a single comprehensive test.
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B.
95.  Modern quality management requires customer satisfaction, prefers prevention to inspection, and recognizes management responsibility for quality.
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B.
96.  In TQC, product quality is less important than production rates, and workers are not allowed to stop production whenever a quality problem occurs.
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B.
97.  ISO 9000 provides minimum requirements needed for an organization to meet its quality certification standards.
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B.
98.  Many quality experts believe the main cause of quality problems is the lack of leadership.
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B.
99.  DeMarco and Lister found direct correlations between productivity and programming language, years of experience, and salary.
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B.
100.  Expectations can vary based on an organization’s culture or geographic region.
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B.
101.  It took only ____ years for 50 million people to use the Internet compared to 25 years for 50 million people to use telephones.
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102.  ____ means the project’s processes and products meet written specifications.
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103.  The ____ ultimately decides if quality is acceptable.
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104.  Project quality management involves ____ main processes.
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105.  ____ includes identifying which quality standards are relevant to the project and how to satisfy those standards.
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106.  The main outputs of ____ are a quality management plan, quality metrics, quality checklists, a process improvement plan, and project document updates.
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D.
107.  ____ involves periodically evaluating overall project performance to ensure that the project will satisfy the relevant quality standards.
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D.
108.  ____ involves monitoring specific project results to ensure that they comply with the relevant quality standards while identifying ways to improve overall quality.
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D.
109.  The ____ process is often associated with the technical tools and techniques of quality management, such as Pareto charts, quality control charts, and statistical sampling.
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D.
110.  ____ is the degree to which a system performs its intended function.
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D.
111.  ____ are the system’s special characteristics that appeal to users.
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D.
112.  ____ addresses how well a product or service performs the customer’s intended use.
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D.
113.  ____ is the ability of a product or service to perform as expected under normal conditions.
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D.
114.  ____ addresses the ease of performing maintenance on a product.
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D.
115.  ____ generates ideas for quality improvements by comparing specific project practices or product characteristics to those of other projects or products within or outside the performing organization.
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116.  ____determine(s) if the products or services produced as part of the project will be accepted or rejected.
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117.  ____ is action taken to bring rejected items into compliance with product requirements or specifications or other stakeholder expectations.
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D.
118.  ____ correct(s) or prevent(s) further quality problems based on quality control measurements.
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D.
119.  A ____ is a graphic display of data that illustrates the results of a process over time.
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D.
120.  The ____ states that if seven data points in a row are all below the mean, above the mean, or are all increasing or decreasing, then the process needs to be examined for non-random problems.
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D.
121.  ____ help(s) you identify the vital few contributors that account for most quality problems in a system.
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D.
122.  ____ involves choosing part of a population of interest for inspection.
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D.
123.  A certainty factor of 1.960 is used for ____ percent desired certainty.
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D.
124.  ____ is a comprehensive and flexible system for achieving, sustaining and maximizing business success.
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D.
125.  Six Sigma’s target for perfection is the achievement of no more than ____ defects, errors, or mistakes per million opportunities.
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D.
126.  Important tools used in the ____ phase of the DMAIC process include a project charter, a description of customer requirements, process maps, and Voice of the Customer (VOC) data.
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C.
D.
127.  An important tool used in the ____ phase of the DMAIC process is the fishbone or Ishikawa diagram.
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D.
128.  A ____ is a bell-shaped curve that is symmetrical regarding the average value of the population (the data being analyzed).
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D.
129.  In any normal distribution, ____ percent of the population is within three standard deviations of the mean.
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D.
130.  A(n) ____ is any instance where the product or service fails to meet customer requirements.
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D.
131.  A(n) ____ is done to test each individual component (often a program) to ensure that it is as defect-free as possible.
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D.
132.  ____ is an independent test performed by end users prior to accepting the delivered system.
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D.
133.  One of ____ 14 Points for Management states that an organization should cease dependence on inspection to achieve quality.
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D.
134.  One of ____ ten steps states that an organization should build awareness of the need and opportunity for improvement.
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D.
135.  Juran’s final step to quality improvement is ____.
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D.
136.  ____ wrote Quality Is Free in 1979 and is best known for suggesting that organizations strive for zero defects.
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D.
137.  ____, a quality system standard developed by the ISO, is a three-part, continuous cycle of planning, controlling, and documenting quality in an organization.
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D.
138.  ____ is the cost of evaluating processes and their outputs to ensure that a project is error-free or within an acceptable error range.
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D.
139.  ____ is a cost that relates to all errors not detected and not corrected before delivery to the customer.
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D.
140.  ____ helps integrate traditionally separate organizational functions, set process improvement goals and priorities, provide guidance for quality processes, and provide a point of reference for appraising current processes.
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D.
141.  Most project managers agree that managing human resources effectively is one of the toughest challenges they face.
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142.  The global job market for information technology workers is contracting.
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B.
143.  Hiring managers say interpersonal skills are the least important soft skill for information technology workers.
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B.
144.  As the job market changes, people should upgrade their skills to remain marketable and flexible.
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B.
145.  Many highly qualified information technology workers lost their jobs in the past few years.
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B.
146.  If companies plan their projects well, they can avoid the need for overtime, or they can make it clear that overtime is optional.
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B.
147.  Team-building skills are often not a challenge for many project managers.
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B.
148.  Extrinsic motivation causes people to participate in an activity for their own enjoyment.
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B.
149.  Maslow’s hierarchy of needs states that people’s behaviors are guided or motivated by a sequence of needs.
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B.
150.  Maslow suggests that each level of the hierarchy of needs is not necessarily a prerequisite for the levels above.
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B.
151.  According to Herzberg, hygiene factors such as larger salaries, more supervision, or a more attractive work environment would motivate workers to do more if present.
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B.
152.  People who need institutional power or social power want to organize others to further the goals of the organization.
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B.
153.  People who believe in Theory Y assume that workers dislike and avoid work if possible, so managers must use coercion, threats, and various control schemes to get workers to make adequate efforts to meet objectives.
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B.
154.  Project managers often do not have control over project staff who report to them.
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B.
155.  Assignment, budget, promotion, money, and penalty influence bases are automatically available to project managers as part of their position.
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B.
156.  Thamhain and Wilemon found that when project managers used work challenge and expertise to influence people, projects were more likely to succeed.
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B.
157.  Legitimate power involves using personal knowledge and expertise to get people to change their behavior.
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B.
158.  Smaller information technology projects usually have deputy project managers or subproject managers.
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B.
159.  A responsibility assignment matrix (RAM) is a matrix that maps the work of the project as described in the OBS to the people responsible for performing the work as described in the WBS.
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B.
160.  A RAM should only be used to assign detailed work activities.
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B.
161.  A staffing management plan describes when and how people will be added to and taken off the project team.
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B.
162.  One innovative approach to hiring and retaining information technology staff is to offer existing employees incentives for helping recruit and retain personnel.
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B.
163.  Schedules tend to focus primarily on time rather than on both time and resources.
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B.
164.  If a certain resource is overallocated, the project manager can change the schedule to remove resource overallocation.
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B.
165.  When resources are used on a more constant basis, they require more management.
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B.
166.  Resource leveling results in fewer problems for project personnel and accounting departments.
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B.
167.  Project managers often recommend that people take specific training courses to improve individual and team development.
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B.
168.  The first dimension of psychological type in the MBTI signifies whether people draw their energy from other people (extroverts) or from inside themselves (introverts).
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B.
169.  Project managers do not need to continually assess their team’s performance.
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B.
170.  Project managers should limit the size of work teams to eight to ten members.
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B.
171.  Human resource management includes ____ processes.
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B.
C.
D.
172.  ____ involves getting the needed personnel assigned to and working on the project.
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C.
D.
173.  Key outputs of ____ process are project staff assignments, resource calendars, and project management plan updates.
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B.
C.
D.
174.  ____ involves building individual and group skills to enhance project performance.
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B.
C.
D.
175.  The main outputs of ____ process are team performance assessments and enterprise environmental factors updates.
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B.
C.
D.
176.  ____ involves tracking team member performance, motivating team members, providing timely feedback, resolving issues and conflicts, and coordinating changes to help enhance project performance.
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B.
C.
D.
177.  ____ involves identifying and documenting project roles, responsibilities, and reporting relationships.
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C.
D.
178.  Abraham Maslow, a highly respected psychologist, rejected the dehumanizing negativism of psychology in the ____.
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D.
179.  ____ is best known for developing a hierarchy of needs.
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B.
C.
D.
180.  At the bottom of Maslow’s structure are ____ needs.
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B.
C.
D.
181.  ____ is at the top of Maslow’s structure.
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B.
C.
D.
182.  The bottom four needs in Maslow’s structure are referred to as ____ needs.
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B.
C.
D.
183.  The highest level of needs in Maslow’s structure is referred to as a ____ need.
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B.
C.
D.
184.  ____ is best known for distinguishing between motivational factors and hygiene factors when considering motivation in work settings.
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B.
C.
D.
185.  ____ found that people were motivated to work mostly by feelings of personal achievement and recognition.
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D.
186.  ____ proposed that an individual’s specific needs are acquired or learned over time and shaped by life experiences.
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D.
187.  People with a high need for ____ seek to excel and tend to avoid both low-risk and high-risk situations to improve their chances for achieving something worthwhile.
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B.
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D.
188.  People with a high need for ____ desire harmonious relationships with other people and need to feel accepted by others.
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B.
C.
D.
189.  People who need personal ____ want to direct others and can be seen as bossy.
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B.
C.
D.
190.  The ____ presents subjects with a series of ambiguous pictures and asks them to develop a spontaneous story for each picture, assuming they will project their own needs into the story.
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B.
C.
D.
191.  ____ is best known for developing Theory X and Theory Y.
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D.
192.  People who believe in ____ assume that the average worker wants to be directed and prefers to avoid responsibility.
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B.
C.
D.
193.  ____ emphasizes things such as job rotation, broadening of skills, generalization versus specialization, and the need for continuous training of workers.
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B.
C.
D.
194.  According to Thamhain and Wilemon, ____ is the legitimate hierarchical right to issue orders.
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B.
C.
D.
195.  According to Thamhain and Wilemon, ____ is the ability to improve a worker’s position.
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B.
C.
D.
196.  ____ involves using punishment, threats, or other negative approaches to get people to do things they do not want to do.
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B.
C.
D.
197.  ____ involves using incentives to induce people to do things.
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B.
C.
D.
198.  ____ is based on an individual’s personal charisma.
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C.
D.
199.  Which of Covey’s habits does Douglas Ross suggest differentiates good project managers from average or poor project managers? ____
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B.
C.
D.
200.  ____ is matching certain behaviors of the other person.
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C.
D.
201.  ____ fill in for project managers in their absence and assist them as needed.
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B.
C.
D.
202.  The first step in the framework for defining and assigning work is ____.
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B.
C.
D.
203.  A(n) ____ is a column chart that shows the number of resources assigned to a project over time.
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B.
C.
D.
204.  ____ refers to the amount of individual resources an existing schedule requires during specific time periods.
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B.
C.
D.
205.  ____ is a technique for resolving resource conflicts by delaying tasks.
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B.
C.
D.
206.  In the Tuckman model, ____ occurs as team members have different opinions as to how the team should operate.
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B.
C.
D.
207.  In the Tuckman model, ____ occurs when the emphasis is on reaching the team goals, rather than working on team process.
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B.
C.
D.
208.  In the MBTI, the ____ dimension relates to the manner in which you gather information.
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B.
C.
D.
209.  Psychologist David Merril describes ____ as reactive and task-oriented.
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B.
C.
D.
210.  Psychologist David Merril describes ____ as reactive and people-oriented.
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B.
C.
D.
211.  The information technology field is relatively stable and unchanging.
A.
B.
212.  The gap between users and developers decreases as technology advances.
A.
B.
213.  Most educational systems for information technology graduates promote strong technical skills over strong communication and social skills.
A.
B.
214.  You can separate technical skills and soft skills when working on information technology projects.
A.
B.
215.  The communications management plan will vary with the needs of the project.
A.
B.
216.  The communications management plan should not address frequency of communication.
A.
B.
217.  By analyzing stakeholder communications needs, you can avoid wasting time or money on creating or disseminating unnecessary information.
A.
B.
218.  Consistent communication helps organizations improve project communications, especially for programs composed of multiple projects.
A.
B.
219.  Many WBSs include a section for project communications to ensure that reporting key information is a project deliverable.
A.
B.
220.  Getting project information to the right people at the right time and in a useful format is not as important as developing the information in the first place.
A.
B.
221.  Instead of knowing the people working on their projects and developing a trusting relationship with them, many colleagues and managers should want to focus on getting information by reading technical documents.
A.
B.
222.  It is not important to document any changes in technical specifications that might affect product performance.
A.
B.
223.  People have a tendency to want to report bad information.
A.
B.
224.  Adding more people to a project that is falling behind schedule often causes more setbacks because of the increased complexity of communications.
A.
B.
225.  You can assume that a task originally scheduled to take two months of one person’s time can be done in one month by two people.
A.
B.
226.  Rarely does the receiver interpret a message exactly as the sender intended.
A.
B.
227.  Communicating badly exponentially increases the possibility of making fatal mistakes.
A.
B.
228.  Status reports can take various formats depending on the stakeholders’ needs.
A.
B.
229.  Many projects have each team member prepare a monthly or sometimes weekly progress report.
A.
B.
230.  Team members often create consolidated progress reports based on the information received from team leaders.
A.
B.
231.  Project managers should lead their teams in developing norms for dealing with various types of conflicts that might arise on their projects.
A.
B.
232.  When using the confrontation mode, project managers directly face a conflict using a problem-solving approach that allows affected parties to work through their disagreements.
A.
B.
233.  Project managers must realize that all conflict is bad.
A.
B.
234.  Emotional conflict, which stems from personality clashes and misunderstandings, often depresses team performance.
A.
B.
235.  It is common to find someone with a natural ability for both communication and technical skills.
A.
B.
236.  Not understanding how to communicate effectively with other cultures and people of diverse backgrounds hurts projects and businesses.
A.
B.
237.  It is not good practice to include time for informal meetings with customers to help develop relationships and provide staff to assist in relationship management.
A.
B.
238.  Do not have a meeting if there is a better way of achieving the objective at hand.
A.
B.
239.  E-mail is always an appropriate medium for all types of communications.
A.
B.
240.  Project team members rarely need to see all project documentation.
A.
B.
241.  There are ____ main processes in project communications management.
A.
B.
C.
D.
242.  ____ involves determining the information and communications needs of the stakeholders.
A.
B.
C.
D.
243.  The output of the ____ process is a communications management plan.
A.
B.
C.
D.
244.  ____ involves making needed information available to project stakeholders in a timely manner.
A.
B.
C.
D.
245.  ____ involves collecting and disseminating performance information, including status reports, progress measurement, and forecasting.
A.
B.
C.
D.
246.  The communications management plan can be part of the team ____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
247.  Having ____ review and approve all stakeholder communications analysis will ensure that the information is correct and useful.
A.
B.
C.
D.
248.  Information regarding the content of essential project communications comes from the ____.
A.
B.
C.