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Chapter 4

55 Questions
Chapter 4

Introduction

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    2.1-68. Which of the following is true of the action potential?  
    • A. 

      A. More sodium channels are opened at a lower voltage level than are the potassium channels.

    • B. 

      B. The action potential requires 10 msec for completion.

    • C. 

      C. The action potential requires the activity of the sodium-potassium transporters during the rising phase.

    • D. 

      D. More potassium channels are opened at a lower voltage than are sodium channels.

    • E. 

      E. The overshoot is due to a prolonged change in sodium conductance.

  • 2. 
    2.1-69. Sodium ions will be pushed into a resting neuron by the forces of  
    • A. 

      A. inactivation of potassium channels; diffusion.

    • B. 

      B. electrostatic pressure; sodium-potassium pump activation.

    • C. 

      C. sodium-potassium pump activation; diffusion.

    • D. 

      D. ion channel inactivation; diffusion.

    • E. 

      E. diffusion; electrostatic pressure.

  • 3. 
    2.1-70. Match the ion channel action with its resulting change in membrane potential:  
    • A. 

      A. entry of a negative ion; hyperpolarization

    • B. 

      B. entry of a positive ion; hyperpolarization

    • C. 

      C. exit of a positive ion; depolarization

    • D. 

      D. exit of a negative ion; hyperpolarization

    • E. 

      E. inactivation of sodium-potassium transporters; depolarization

  • 4. 
    2.1-104. Autoreceptors  
    • A. 

      A. are sensitive to neuropeptides.

    • B. 

      B. control the release of calcium ions from the axon terminal.

    • C. 

      C. mostly facilitate neuron function.

    • D. 

      D. are metabotropic.

    • E. 

      E. control the formation of new dendritic spines.

  • 5. 
    3.1-39. The _______ extend from the ventricular zone to the pia mater.  
    • A. 

      A. dura mater cells

    • B. 

      B. progenitor cells

    • C. 

      C. radial glia

    • D. 

      D. astrocytes

    • E. 

      E. stem cells

  • 6. 
    3.1-67. “Autotopagnosia” involves _______ and is produced by damage to the _______.  
    • A. 

      A. problems in naming one’s own body parts; left parietal lobe

    • B. 

      B. a problem in remembering the names of body parts; right frontal lobe

    • C. 

      C. an inability to pronounce the names of major body parts; right occipital lobe

    • D. 

      D. a problem in speech perception; right parietal lobe

    • E. 

      E. problems in naming one’s own body parts; right parietal lobe

  • 7. 
    3.1-71. Which of the following is true regarding the functions performed by the left and right hemispheres?    
    • A. 

      A. The left hemisphere is adept at the analysis of information.

    • B. 

      B. The right hemisphere is adept at the serial analysis of information.

    • C. 

      C. The right hemisphere is adept at the analysis of information.

    • D. 

      D. The left hemisphere is adept in the synthesis of information.

    • E. 

      E. The two hemispheres perform identical functions

  • 8. 
    3.1-73. Which of the following most accurately describes the general functions performed by the left and right hemispheres?
    • A. 

      A. The left hemisphere is adept at the synthesis of information.

    • B. 

      B. The right hemisphere is adept at the serial analysis of information.

    • C. 

      C. The right hemisphere is adept at the analysis of information.

    • D. 

      D. The right hemisphere is adept in the synthesis of information.

    • E. 

      E. The two hemispheres perform identical functions.

  • 9. 
    3.1-78. Damage to the basal ganglia would be expected to produce difficulties in  
    • A. 

      A. recognizing emotion in the facial expressions of other people.

    • B. 

      B. naming the parts of one’s own body.

    • C. 

      C. understanding social rules.

    • D. 

      D. motor movements.

    • E. 

      E. forming emotional memories.

  • 10. 
    4.1-39. A drug that blocks a presynaptic autoreceptor most likely  
    • A. 

      A. will induce the presynaptic cell to refire.

    • B. 

      B. alters the uptake of the neurotransmitter into the axon terminal.

    • C. 

      C. blocks the opening of ion channels in the postsynaptic membrane.

    • D. 

      D. increases the release of the neurotransmitter from the axon terminal.

    • E. 

      E. would be expected to act as an antagonist for this synapse.

  • 11. 
    4.1-41. Activation of a presynaptic autoreceptor on dendrites can produce a hyperpolarization that
    • A. 

      A. releases more transmitter.

    • B. 

      B. increases synthesis of transmitter.

    • C. 

      C. increases reuptake of the transmitter.

    • D. 

      D. reduces transmitter release by reducing the axon firing rate.

    • E. 

      E. increases the number of receptors at the synapse.

  • 12. 
    4.1-42. Inactivation of a transporter in the presynaptic membrane would be expected to  
    • A. 

      A. increase the levels of the transmitter in the synapse.

    • B. 

      B. increase synthesis of the transmitter.

    • C. 

      C. increase reuptake of the transmitter.

    • D. 

      D. provide negative feedback on synthesis or release of transmitter.

    • E. 

      E. increase the transmitter synthesis.

  • 13. 
    4.1-49. Match up the transmitter substance below with the appropriate behavioral role or action of that transmitter:      
    • A. 

      A. acetylcholine; facilitation of perceptual learning

    • B. 

      B. dopamine; suppresses certain species-typical behaviors

    • C. 

      C. norepinephrine; facilitation of learning

    • D. 

      D. serotonin; increases vigilance

    • E. 

      E. GABA; generally activates voluntary movements

  • 14. 
    4.1-51. Match up the cholinergic fiber system with the correct role of that system in the control of behavior:    
    • A. 

      A. Most CNS circuits that use ACh are inhibitory for learning.

    • B. 

      B. Cholinergic neurons in the dorsolateral pons are involved in the control of the electrical rhythms of the hippocampus.

    • C. 

      C. Cholinergic neurons in the medial septum are involved in the control of the electrical rhythms of the hippocampus.

    • D. 

      D. Cholinergic neurons in the basal forebrain are involved in the control of REM sleep.

    • E. 

      E. Cholinergic neurons in the medial septum facilitate learning.

  • 15. 
    4.1-57. An ionotropic cholinergic receptor produces a postsynaptic potential that is
    • A. 

      A. slow to develop but short in duration.

    • B. 

      B. rapid but of long duration.

    • C. 

      C. not related to the opening of an ion channel.

    • D. 

      D. rapid and short in duration.

    • E. 

      E. slow to develop and long in duration.

  • 16. 
    4.1-61. Which of the following is true of the cholinergic systems?  
    • A. 

      A. Hemicholium blocks the release of acetylcholine from peripheral neurons.

    • B. 

      B. Acetylcholinesterase blocks the reuptake of choline into the presynaptic terminal.

    • C. 

      C. The drug atropine is used to treat myasthenia gravis.

    • D. 

      D. Muscarinic receptors are more numerous than nicotinic receptors in the brain.

    • E. 

      E. Black widow spider venom prevents the release of acetylcholine.

  • 17. 
    4.1-68. Which of the following is classified as an indolamine?  
    • A. 

      A. glycine

    • B. 

      B. serotonin

    • C. 

      C. dopamine

    • D. 

      D. acetylcholine

    • E. 

      E. norepinephrine

  • 18. 
    4.1-74. Low doses of the drug apomorphine  
    • A. 

      A. are toxic in the same way as is curare.

    • B. 

      B. increase synthesis of epinephrine.

    • C. 

      C. reduce sensitivity to pain.

    • D. 

      D. stimulate nicotinic receptors as well as D1 receptors.

    • E. 

      E. inhibit the synthesis and release of dopamine.

  • 19. 
    4.1-75. The drug reserpine  
    • A. 

      A. was used medically to treat high blood pressure.

    • B. 

      B. is used to treat myasthenia gravis.

    • C. 

      C. blocks the storage of monoamines in vesicles.

    • D. 

      D. can produce Parkinson’s disease in some persons.

    • E. 

      E. interferes with the synthesis of dopamine.

  • 20. 
    4.1-76. Which of the following is true of dopamine receptors?  
    • A. 

      A. Dopamine receptors are metabotropic.

    • B. 

      B. All dopamine receptors are ionotropic.

    • C. 

      C. D1 receptors are located on the presynaptic membrane.

    • D. 

      D. D2 receptors are only found on postsynaptic membranes.

    • E. 

      E. Cyclic AMP is increased by activation of D1 as well as D2 receptors.

  • 21. 
    4.1-78. Drugs that inactivate monoamine oxidase B would be expected to  
    • A. 

      A. also block D2 receptors.

    • B. 

      B. increase the release of dopamine in response to the arrival of an action potential at the terminal buttons.

    • C. 

      C. make the dopamine transporter run in reverse.

    • D. 

      D. cause the release of serotonin into the synaptic cleft.

    • E. 

      B. increase the release of acetylcholine in response to the arrival of an action potential at the terminal buttons.

  • 22. 
    4.1-83. The unique aspect of norepinephrine (NE) release is that  
    • A. 

      A. axonal varicosities release NE.

    • B. 

      B. NE release does not require the entry of calcium ions.

    • C. 

      C. black widow spider venom can block NE release.

    • D. 

      D. amphetamine does not modify NE release.

    • E. 

      E. NE can be released from glial cells.

  • 23. 
    4.1-93. Which of the following is a true of NMDA receptors?  
    • A. 

      A. Activation of the NMDA receptor allows sodium and calcium ions to flow into the nerve cell.

    • B. 

      B. NMDA receptors are metabotropic.

    • C. 

      C. NMDA receptors are the most common glutamate receptor.

    • D. 

      D. The activity of the NMDA receptor is not dependent on magnesium ions.

    • E. 

      E. The NMDA receptor produces IPSPs.

  • 24. 
    4.1-98. The GABAA receptor is ________ and controls a ________ channel.
    • A. 

      A. ionotropic; chloride

    • B. 

      B. ionotropic; potassium

    • C. 

      C. metabotropic; chloride

    • D. 

      D. metabotropic; potassium

    • E. 

      E. ionotropic; sodium

  • 25. 
    4.1- 102. Inactivation of glycine receptors would be expected to result in   
    • A. 

      A. rapid entry into REM sleep.

    • B. 

      B. muscle relaxation.

    • C. 

      C. increased GABA release.

    • D. 

      D. psychotic hallucinations.

    • E. 

      E. convulsions.

  • 26. 
    5.1-37. Which of the following is true of the anterograde labeling procedure?  
    • A. 

      A. A target molecule is injected into the gut.

    • B. 

      B. The target molecule is transported from the axon terminals back to the soma and dendrites.

    • C. 

      C. The target molecule is taken up by the dendrites of cells in the injection zone and transported through axons.

    • D. 

      D. Eventually most the target molecule fills cell bodies.

    • E. 

      E. A light microscopy method is used to visualize the cells in a section that contain the target molecules.

  • 27. 
    5.1-38. The ________ technique would be used to trace efferent axons from a brain region.    
    • A. 

      A. retrograde labeling method

    • B. 

      B. staining produced by methylene blue

    • C. 

      C. scanning electron microscopy

    • D. 

      D. anterograde labeling method

    • E. 

      E. computerized tomography

  • 28. 
    5.1-45. The ________ labeling method uses chemicals that are taken up by dendrites and then transported through axons toward terminal buttons.    
    • A. 

      A. retrograde

    • B. 

      B. axoplasmic

    • C. 

      C. anterograde

    • D. 

      D. heterosynaptic

    • E. 

      E. homosynaptic

  • 29. 
    5.1-47. The ________ method can be used to identify the neural inputs to a brain region.  
    • A. 

      A. retrograde labeling

    • B. 

      B. electrolytic lesion

    • C. 

      C. anterograde labeling

    • D. 

      D. microdialysis

    • E. 

      E. transdialysis

  • 30. 
    5.1-85. A key advantage of the microdialysis technique is  
    • A. 

      A. it can assess brain function on a moment-by-moment basis.

    • B. 

      B. the ability to sample transmitter substances in an awake living organism.

    • C. 

      C. that it uses radioactive molecules that break down quickly.

    • D. 

      D. that it can be easily used in humans.

    • E. 

      E. that only very small computers are needed for this technique to monitor brain function.

  • 31. 
    6.1-25. Axons that arise from the ________ cells form the optic nerve.  
    • A. 

      A. horizontal

    • B. 

      B. bipolar

    • C. 

      C. ganglion

    • D. 

      D. amacrine

    • E. 

      E. photoreceptors

  • 32. 
    6.1-36. Which of the following is true of the visual transduction process?  
    • A. 

      A. In the dark, the photoreceptor releases a transmitter that inhibits the bipolar cell.

    • B. 

      B. Light depolarizes the photoreceptor.

    • C. 

      C. Action potentials are recorded from the bipolar cell after light exposure.

    • D. 

      D. Action potentials are recorded from the photoreceptors after light exposure.

    • E. 

      E. In the dark, the photoreceptor releases a transmitter that excites the bipolar cell.

  • 33. 
    6.1-39. Visual information from the retina is carried by ________ to the ________.  
    • A. 

      A. bipolar cell axons; thalamic medial geniculate nucleus

    • B. 

      B. ganglion cell axons; thalamic medial geniculate nucleus

    • C. 

      C. short axon fibers; optic chiasma

    • D. 

      D. ganglion cell axons; thalamic dorsal lateral geniculate nucleus

    • E. 

      E. ganglion cell axons; striate cortex

  • 34. 
    6.1-81. Area ________ of the primate extrastriate cortex is critical for the analysis of ________.  
    • A. 

      A. V5; form

    • B. 

      B. V4; color constancy

    • C. 

      C. V8; movement

    • D. 

      D. V3; form

    • E. 

      E. V8; form

  • 35. 
    6.1-83. Which of the following is true of cerebral achromatopsia?  
    • A. 

      A. It is produced by unilateral damage to the medial frontal lobe.

    • B. 

      B. The blindness is complete for object form as well as object color.

    • C. 

      C. The condition impairs current color perception, but not color recall.

    • D. 

      D. It is produced by bilateral damage to the medial occipital lobe.

    • E. 

      E. It is caused by damage to the ganglion cells connected to rods.

  • 36. 
    6.1-86. The lateral occipital complex is a portion of the ________ that responds to ________.  
    • A. 

      A. ventral stream; scenes and backgrounds

    • B. 

      B. dorsal stream; objects and shapes

    • C. 

      C. ventral stream; object movement

    • D. 

      D. dorsal stream; scenes and backgrounds

    • E. 

      E. ventral stream; objects and shapes

  • 37. 
    7.1-8. Which of the following is a physical dimension of sound perception?  
    • A. 

      A. timbre

    • B. 

      B. the distance between the successive air vibrations. b. pitch

    • C. 

      C. amplitude

    • D. 

      D. saturation

    • E. 

      E. loudness

  • 38. 
    7.1-17. The mechanical stimulus that induces movements of the hair cells is the    
    • A. 

      A. movement of the stapes against the oval window.

    • B. 

      B. contraction of the muscle fibers within the middle ear.

    • C. 

      C. movement of the malleus against the round window.

    • D. 

      D. movement of the stapes against the round window.

    • E. 

      E. movement of the scala tympani.

  • 39. 
    7.1-25. The receptor potential of a hair cell is triggered by cilia movements that    
    • A. 

      A. allow the entry of sodium ions into the hair cell.

    • B. 

      B. open a channel to potassium in the insertional plaque.

    • C. 

      C. allow the efflux of potassium ions out of the hair cell.

    • D. 

      D. close a channel to potassium in the insertional plaque.

    • E. 

      E. allow chloride ions to flow into the cilia.

  • 40. 
    7.1-34. The posterior auditory stream starts in the ________ and is involved in ________.  
    • A. 

      A. posterior parabelt region of the anterior temporal region; sound localization

    • B. 

      B. posterior occipital cortex; sound localization

    • C. 

      C. parabelt region of the anterior temporal region; complex sound analysis

    • D. 

      D. posterior parietal cortex; complex sound analysis

    • E. 

      E. posterior parietal cortex; sound localization

  • 41. 
    7.1-49. The anterior stream of the human auditory system performs analyses of ________, while the posterior stream provides analyses of ________.    
    • A. 

      A. sound location; sound loudness

    • B. 

      B. object form; object location

    • C. 

      C. complex sounds; perception of form

    • D. 

      D. loudness; pitch

    • E. 

      E. tone loudness; timbre

  • 42. 
    7.1-71. ________ are the largest sensory organs of the skin.  
    • A. 

      A. Ruffini corpuscles

    • B. 

      B. Free nerve endings

    • C. 

      C. Meissner’s corpuscles

    • D. 

      D. Pacinian corpuscles

    • E. 

      E. Dieter’s cells

  • 43. 
    7.1-82. The ________ nuclei are the relay nuclei for somatosensation.  
    • A. 

      A. medial lateral thalamic

    • B. 

      B. medial geniculate

    • C. 

      C. spinothalamic

    • D. 

      D. ventral posterior thalamic

    • E. 

      E. thalamocortical

  • 44. 
    7.1-86. Imaging studies suggest that the unpleasant aspect of pain involves the    
    • A. 

      A. temporal cortex.

    • B. 

      B. primary somatosensory cortex.

    • C. 

      C. anterior cingulate cortex.

    • D. 

      D. prefrontal cortex.

    • E. 

      E. amygdala.

  • 45. 
    7.1-87. The long-term emotional component of chronic pain is mediated by pathways that    
    • A. 

      A. reach the temporal cortex.

    • B. 

      B. project from the spinal cord to the primary somatosensory cortex.

    • C. 

      C. reach the anterior cingulate cortex and the insular cortex.

    • D. 

      D. project to the prefrontal cortex.

    • E. 

      E. involve the amygdala.

  • 46. 
    7.1-88. Electrical stimulation of the ________ in humans produces painful burning and tingling sensations.    
    • A. 

      A. prefrontal cortex

    • B. 

      B. anterior cingulate cortex

    • C. 

      C. dorsal hippocampus

    • D. 

      D. ventromedial hypothalamus

    • E. 

      E. insular cortex

  • 47. 
    7.1-95. A person is administered a placebo “pain-relieving” skin cream just before receiving a painful electric shock. Imaging studies suggest that the placebo analgesic effect is due to      
    • A. 

      A. decreased activity within the prefrontal cortex and PAG.

    • B. 

      B. decreased activity within the somatosensory cortex.

    • C. 

      C. increased activity within the prefrontal cortex and PAG.

    • D. 

      D. blockade of opiate receptors within the spinal cord.

    • E. 

      E. the release of serotonin within the brain stem.

  • 48. 
    15.1-25. A person who has a series of seizures without regaining consciousness would be classified as having    
    • A. 

      A. psychic seizure disorder.

    • B. 

      B. simple partial seizure disorder.

    • C. 

      C. status epilepticus.

    • D. 

      D. petit mal disorder.

    • E. 

      E. generalized seizure disorder.

  • 49. 
    15.1-81. The specific cause for Huntington’s disease may involve _______ that kills neurons.  
    • A. 

      A. inclusion bodies

    • B. 

      B. elongated stretches of glutamine

    • C. 

      C. suppression of apoptosis

    • D. 

      D. excessive release of glutamate.

    • E. 

      E. loss of L-DOPA function

  • 50. 
    15.1-85. The death of a nerve cell generates an accumulation of ß-amyloid and twisted protein filaments that are termed    
    • A. 

      A. free radicals.

    • B. 

      B. neuritic plaques.

    • C. 

      C. neurofibrillary tangles.

    • D. 

      D. prions.

    • E. 

      E. ß-amyloid precursor proteins.

  • 51. 
    16.1-27. The mesolimbic pathway projects from the ________ to the ________.  
    • A. 

      A. substantia nigra; caudate

    • B. 

      B. globus pallidus; ventral tegmental area

    • C. 

      C. midbrain; cingulate cortex

    • D. 

      D. ventral tegmental area; nucleus accumbens and amygdala

    • E. 

      E. ventral tegmental area; frontal cortex

  • 52. 
    16.1-49. Analysis of the childhood behavior of schizophrenics have found that these children show ________ than do their normal siblings or normal peers.    
    • A. 

      A. more overall activity

    • B. 

      B. fewer abnormal movements

    • C. 

      C. more negative affect in their facial expressions

    • D. 

      D. less overall activity

    • E. 

      E. more symmetrical facial features

  • 53. 
    16.1-88. An alternative to lithium for the treatment of bipolar disorder is the use of  
    • A. 

      A. anticonvulsant drugs.

    • B. 

      B. MAO inhibitors.

    • C. 

      C. cocaine or amphetamine.

    • D. 

      D. chlordiazepoxide.

    • E. 

      E. ketamine

  • 54. 
    • A. 

      A. activation of the orbitofrontal cortex.

    • B. 

      B. activation of the amygdala.

    • C. 

      C. reduced volume of the brain ventricles.

    • D. 

      D. enhanced activation of the subgenual prefrontal cortex.

    • E. 

      E. greater activity of the medial forebrain bundle system.

  • 55. 
    16.1-95. Which of the following best describes the changes in sleep that occur during depression?    
    • A. 

      A. Slow-wave sleep stages 3 and 4 are reduced and stage 1 sleep is increased.

    • B. 

      B. Rapid eye movement (REM) sleep is abolished.

    • C. 

      C. All phases of slow-phase sleep are increased, while REM sleep is reduced.

    • D. 

      D. REM occurs in higher proportion later in the night.

    • E. 

      E. Depressed people are more likely to awaken in the first half of the night.

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