CDC 3D153 Volume 1 V1 (April 2013)

100 Questions  I  By Mmikhaylevskiy
CDC 3D153 01 1206, Edit Code 02 (April 2013) Volume 1 Units 1-5 Unit 1: Communication Principles Unit 2: Protecting Electronic Equipment Unit 3: General Purpose Instruments Unit 4: Radio Frequency Test Equipment Unit 5: Standard Practices

  
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1.  What type of uninterruptible power supply (UPS) has traditionally been referred to as “offline” by technicians?
A.
B.
C.
D.
2.  What type of sampling does a digital storage oscilloscope normally use on single-shot or seldom-occurring signals?
A.
B.
C.
D.
3.  What operational capability of the communication service monitor receives amplitude and frequency modulated signals?
A.
B.
C.
D.
4.  When you use the Fluke 8025A, which voltage range do you select to measure 50 volts DC?
A.
B.
C.
D.
5.  A short section of single fiber cable that has a connector at each end is called a
A.
B.
C.
D.
6.  What are the two basic functions of shielding?
A.
B.
C.
D.
7.  Which part of the Fluke 8025A’s display section indicates the absolute value of the input?
A.
B.
C.
D.
8.  In frequency modulation, a significant sideband contains at least what percentage of the total transmitted power?
A.
B.
C.
D.
9.  What pattern simulator section of the bit error rate test set accepts a 48-bit parallel word and generates a serial pattern?
A.
B.
C.
D.
10.  What is the formula to find the modulating index?
A.
B.
C.
D.
11.  What part of the pulse code modulation process converts a continuous time signal into a discrete time signal?
A.
B.
C.
D.
12.  What power line fault category is more typically referred to as Electro-Magnetic Interference and Radio Frequency Interference?
A.
B.
C.
D.
13.  What function is not part of the communication service monitor?
A.
B.
C.
D.
14.  Which electronic counter measurement represents the average bit-to-bit time of an input signal?
A.
B.
C.
D.
15.  Which one of these is not an application of a radio frequency generator?
A.
B.
C.
D.
16.  High-altitude electromagnetic pulse environment protection is important for critical, time urgent mission systems because it
A.
B.
C.
D.
17.  What are the two main types of photodetectors?
A.
B.
C.
D.
18.  Which of these is considered a primary cell?
A.
B.
C.
D.
19.  A 5 kHz modulating signal has enough peak voltage to cause a deviation of 15 kHz. What is the modulation index?
A.
B.
C.
D.
20.  Little or no variations in the strength of the interfering signal when moving the receiving antenna for short distance normally indicates
A.
B.
C.
D.
21.  How are voltage, time, and depth represented on the oscilloscope display?
A.
B.
C.
D.
22.  When testing a diode with the 8025A, the leads across a “good” diode produces an “OL” (open) on the display in one direction while reversing the leads produces
A.
B.
C.
D.
23.  What protocol analyzer test window provides information concerning the network utilization and frame error that are related to a specific protocol?
A.
B.
C.
D.
24.  What photo detector converts one photon to one electron?
A.
B.
C.
D.
25.  When using vertical redundancy check, what significance does the amount of ones have in a data bit pattern?
A.
B.
C.
D.
26.  Why should the number of splices be controlled during fiber optic installation?
A.
B.
C.
D.
27.  The measurable frequency and power ranges of the HP 436A power meter are determined by the
A.
B.
C.
D.
28.  Currents and voltages induced on power lines, cable links, and pipelines by electromagnetic pulse are called
A.
B.
C.
D.
29.  What protocol analyzer test window automatically runs in the background when the protocol analyzer application is activated?
A.
B.
C.
D.
30.  What facility ground subsystem is also called the safety ground?
A.
B.
C.
D.
31.  What man-made noise results from voltage surges, arcing, or corona discharges?
A.
B.
C.
D.
32.  In real-time sampling, what type of interpolation is used when measuring pulse waves?
A.
B.
C.
D.
33.  What feature is useful for making adjustments to optimize any of the parameters which the wattmeter measures?
A.
B.
C.
D.
34.  How often must you continue to test system grounds?
A.
B.
C.
D.
35.  Which type of intermodulation interference varies significantly with temperature and weather conditions?
A.
B.
C.
D.
36.  Who is initially responsible for reporting an electromagnetic interference?
A.
B.
C.
D.
37.  Which probe lets you use the oscilloscope to measure higher voltage levels, raises the input impedance, does not require a bias voltage, and attenuates noise?
A.
B.
C.
D.
38.  The two switches on the front panel of the wattmeter correspond to the
A.
B.
C.
D.
39.  Use the formula on page 1-3. If an oscilloscope displays a modulation envelope having an E(max) of 200 volts and an E(min) of 20 volts, what is the modulation percentage?
A.
B.
C.
D.
40.  The output of the oscillator in a frequency modulation (FM) modulator increases in frequency with each...
A.
B.
C.
D.
41.  Which of these bit rates do you use for a bit error rate test on a 64 kbps data circuit?
A.
B.
C.
D.
42.  Whoever made the CDC's skipped over question 29. This slot pending for potential future revision. The Hadron Collider in Switzerland has the ability to 'make' atoms. For instance, it can make 2,000,000 gold atoms every second. Question: If the Hadron Collider were producing 2 million atoms of gold every second, how long would it take to produce 1 gram of gold?
A.
B.
C.
D.
43.  Which is a function of Air Force Communications Special Instructions?
A.
B.
C.
D.
44.  Which oscilloscope’s input coupling position allows you to view both AC and DC components of the input signal?
A.
B.
C.
D.
45.  At what level does the Air Force want electromagnetic interference problems resolved?
A.
B.
C.
D.
46.  If an error should occur, what transmission is lost in a synchronous transmission?
A.
B.
C.
D.
47.  What Air Force program is used to resolve an electromagnetic interference incident?
A.
B.
C.
D.
48.  What type of equipment helps resolve intermittent electrical problems because of poor grounding?
A.
B.
C.
D.
49.  Which probe does not need to actually make contact with the circuit under test?
A.
B.
C.
D.
50.  Which is the primary means of measuring the quality of transmitted digital information, and how is this means derived?
A.
B.
C.
D.
51.  In phase modulation, the carrier's
A.
B.
C.
D.
52.  Which feature of the Fluke 8025A multimeter do you use to select various measurement functions?
A.
B.
C.
D.
53.  Atmospheric disturbances from initial nuclear radiation on higher frequencies affect communications by
A.
B.
C.
D.
54.  What area of a digital storage oscilloscope takes digitized samples and performs numerous manipulations on the data including measuring rise and fall times, periods, time intervals, and math computations?
A.
B.
C.
D.
55.  A power reading that uses the abbreviation dBm indicates the
A.
B.
C.
D.
56.   What is one reason for modulation that involves modulating low frequency signals for transmission over long distances?
A.
B.
C.
D.
57.  What type of light is emitted from a laser?
A.
B.
C.
D.
58.  What are the three main functions of grounding?
A.
B.
C.
D.
59.  In phase modulation, what part of the carrier signal is varied?
A.
B.
C.
D.
60.  What facility ground subsystem uses surge arrestors?
A.
B.
C.
D.
61.  Sampled data points are stored in the memory of a digital storage oscilloscope as
A.
B.
C.
D.
62.  Which feature of the Fluke 8025A locks the measurement into the display for viewing and automatically updates the display when you take a new measurement?
A.
B.
C.
D.
63.  Which measurement is not made with a spectrum analyzer?
A.
B.
C.
D.
64.  Which pattern simulator section of a bit error rate test set controls the clock selector and selects either the external clock or the internal clock for processing?
A.
B.
C.
D.
65.  Resistance reading on the ground under test is plotted on a graph of
A.
B.
C.
D.
66.  What operational capability of the communication service monitor produce sine, square and triangle waveforms?
A.
B.
C.
D.
67.  What equipment should be designated as RED?
A.
B.
C.
D.
68.  How many phases of generator power are usually required for industrial and commercial applications?
A.
B.
C.
D.
69.  What component of a protocol analyzer discards frames based on its definition or activates a trigger based on the trigger definition?
A.
B.
C.
D.
70.  How can you normally eliminate electromagnetic interference noise bursts caused by sodium and mercury vapor lights that have stopped working while the power is still applied?
A.
B.
C.
D.
71.  A known current is generated by the earth ground tester between the earth ground electrode and the
A.
B.
C.
D.
72.  High-altitude electromagnetic pulse is a wideband phenomenon that involves which frequency range?
A.
B.
C.
D.
73.  When using forward error control as a method of error correction, where does error correction take place?
A.
B.
C.
D.
74.  In acquiring a 4K record length on a digital storage oscilloscope, how many samples can you view at one time?
A.
B.
C.
D.
75.  On the bit error rate test set, the 25-pin connectors are designed to operate with data modems to
A.
B.
C.
D.
76.  Which statement concerning bandwidth is true?
A.
B.
C.
D.
77.  Bonds in the earth electrode subsystem normally are direct permanent bonds and do not exceed a resistance of
A.
B.
C.
D.
78.  Which oscilloscope probe is essentially just a shielded piece of wire?
A.
B.
C.
D.
79.  In asynchronous transmissions, what bit is used by the receiving device to verify that the transmission was received correctly?
A.
B.
C.
D.
80.  Which repeater amplifies optical signal without converting to and from the electrical domain? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
81.  What type of electromagnetic interference occurs when a receiver responds to off-frequency signals?
A.
B.
C.
D.
82.  If the interference can be eliminated by disconnecting the receiving antenna, the source of the disturbance is most likely
A.
B.
C.
D.
83.  What protocol analyzer test window provides information concerning the bandwidth utilization and the number of connections that are related to specific nodes?
A.
B.
C.
D.
84.  Which distinct region of the source region electromagnetic pulse is produced by the interactions between the weapon products and the earth’s atmosphere?
A.
B.
C.
D.
85.  The bandwidth of an amplitude modulated signal is
A.
B.
C.
D.
86.  What is it called when a narrow frequency band between adjacent stations prevent frequency modulated sidebands from overlapping?
A.
B.
C.
D.
87.  What kind of bonds are normally applied to signal reference bonds?
A.
B.
C.
D.
88.  During what operation is the radio frequency blanking output used on the HP 436A power meter?
A.
B.
C.
D.
89.  A system-generated electromagnetic pulse is a problem for satellites and reentry vehicles that are
A.
B.
C.
D.
90.  What error detection method is used for checking a data block greater than 512 and is about 99 percent effective in most applications?
A.
B.
C.
D.
91.  Which fiber-optic connector uses quick-release, keyed bayonet couplings that are preferred in situations where severe vibrations are not expected?
A.
B.
C.
D.
92.  Who is tasked to provide interference resolution support to the unified commanders?
A.
B.
C.
D.
93.  Which are the correct four classes of electronic counters?
A.
B.
C.
D.
94.  If a carrier frequency of 1 MHz and a modulating tone of 10 kHz goes to the modulator, the output signal include
A.
B.
C.
D.
95.  What are the three general categories used to produce modulation in radio frequency (RF) transmission today?
A.
B.
C.
D.
96.  When the modulating signal and carrier signal are combined within a modulator, the output signal contains
A.
B.
C.
D.
97.  What is the first step in the pulse code modulation process?
A.
B.
C.
D.
98.  Which type of filters are always used in combination with surge arresters?
A.
B.
C.
D.
99.  Light sources that are applicable to fiber optic waveguide are light-emitting diodes and
A.
B.
C.
D.
100.  What do you do when you are reasonably sure electromagnetic interference exists?
A.
B.
C.
D.
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