CDC 3d153 volume 1 v1 (april 2013)

100 Questions  I  By Mmikhaylevskiy
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CDC Quizzes & Trivia
CDC 3D153 01 1206, Edit Code 02 (April 2013) Volume 1 Units 1-5 Unit 1: Communication Principles Unit 2: Protecting Electronic Equipment Unit 3: General Purpose Instruments Unit 4: Radio Frequency Test Equipment Unit 5: Standard Practices

  
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  • 1. 
     What is one reason for modulation that involves modulating low frequency signals for transmission over long distances?
    • A. 

      Spectrum conservation.

    • B. 

      Channel allocation

    • C. 

      Ease of radiation

    • D. 

      Companding


  • 2. 
    What are the three general categories used to produce modulation in radio frequency (RF) transmission today?
    • A. 

      Binary amplitude shift keying, frequency shift keying, and phase shift keying.

    • B. 

      Pulse amplitude, pulse width, and pulse position.

    • C. 

      Amplitude, frequency, and phase.

    • D. 

      Analog, digital, and shift keying.


  • 3. 
    When the modulating signal and carrier signal are combined within a modulator, the output signal contains
    • A. 

      Modulating signal, upper sideband, and lower sideband.

    • B. 

      Carrier, upper sideband, and lower sideband.

    • C. 

      Upper sideband and modulating signal.

    • D. 

      Carrier and modulating signal.


  • 4. 
    If a carrier frequency of 1 MHz and a modulating tone of 10 kHz goes to the modulator, the output signal include
    • A. 

      1.01 MHz, 1 MHz, and 0.99 MHz.

    • B. 

      1.1 MHz, 1 MHz, and 0.9 MHz.

    • C. 

      1.11 MHz, 1 MHz, and 0.99 MHz.

    • D. 

      1.111 MHz, 1 MHz, 0.999 MHz.


  • 5. 
    The bandwidth of an amplitude modulated signal is
    • A. 

      Two times the modulating signal.

    • B. 

      The same as the modulating signal.

    • C. 

      Determined by the modulation index.

    • D. 

      Defined in terms of maximum amount of modulation.


  • 6. 
    Use the formula on page 1-3. If an oscilloscope displays a modulation envelope having an E(max) of 200 volts and an E(min) of 20 volts, what is the modulation percentage?
    • A. 

      81.8.

    • B. 

      85.5.

    • C. 

      88.

    • D. 

      122.


  • 7. 
    Which statement concerning bandwidth is true?
    • A. 

      Overmodulating increases bandwidth because the distortion produces harmonics.

    • B. 

      Undermodulating increases bandwidth because the distortion produces harmonics.

    • C. 

      Overmodulating increases bandwidth because the output's increased amplitude.

    • D. 

      Undermodulating increases bandwidth because the output's decreased amplitude.


  • 8. 
    The output of the oscillator in a frequency modulation (FM) modulator increases in frequency with each...
    • A. 

      Positive half cycle of the carrier.

    • B. 

      Negative half cycle of the carrier.

    • C. 

      Positive half cycle of the modulating signal.

    • D. 

      Negative half cycle of the modulating signal.


  • 9. 
    In frequency modulation, a significant sideband contains at least what percentage of the total transmitted power?
    • A. 

      1.

    • B. 

      3.

    • C. 

      10.

    • D. 

      0.1.


  • 10. 
    What is the formula to find the modulating index?
    • A. 

      Deviation divided by frequency of modulation.

    • B. 

      Deviation times frequency of modulation.

    • C. 

      Sideband divide by carrier frequency.

    • D. 

      Sideband times carrier frequency.


  • 11. 
    A 5 kHz modulating signal has enough peak voltage to cause a deviation of 15 kHz. What is the modulation index?
    • A. 

      5.

    • B. 

      0.5.

    • C. 

      0.3.

    • D. 

      3.


  • 12. 
    What is it called when a narrow frequency band between adjacent stations prevent frequency modulated sidebands from overlapping?
    • A. 

      Space.

    • B. 

      Guard band.

    • C. 

      Buffer zone.

    • D. 

      Prevention field.


  • 13. 
    In phase modulation, what part of the carrier signal is varied?
    • A. 

      Frequency.

    • B. 

      Amplitude.

    • C. 

      Height.

    • D. 

      Phase.


  • 14. 
    In phase modulation, the carrier's
    • A. 

      Phase is shifted at the rate of the modulating signal.

    • B. 

      Phase shifted with the phase of the modulating signal.

    • C. 

      Amplitude is shifted at the rate of the modulating signal.

    • D. 

      Amplitude is shifted with the phase of the modulating signal.


  • 15. 
    What is the first step in the pulse code modulation process?
    • A. 

      Discrete amplitudes are assigned to the sampling pulses.

    • B. 

      A binary code number is assigned to the sample.

    • C. 

      The quantizer limits the amplitude of the pulses.

    • D. 

      The analog signal is band limited.


  • 16. 
    What part of the pulse code modulation process converts a continuous time signal into a discrete time signal?
    • A. 

      Sampling.

    • B. 

      Rectifying.

    • C. 

      Oscillating.

    • D. 

      Band limiting.


  • 17. 
    In asynchronous transmissions, what bit is used by the receiving device to verify that the transmission was received correctly?
    • A. 

      Control.

    • B. 

      Parity.

    • C. 

      Start.

    • D. 

      Stop.


  • 18. 
    If an error should occur, what transmission is lost in a synchronous transmission?
    • A. 

      One character.

    • B. 

      Block of data.

    • C. 

      A parity bit.

    • D. 

      A stop bit.


  • 19. 
    When using vertical redundancy check, what significance does the amount of ones have in a data bit pattern?
    • A. 

      Determines parity.

    • B. 

      Determines transmission rate.

    • C. 

      Determines whether transmission is in ASCII format.

    • D. 

      Determines whether transmission is synchronous or asynchronous.


  • 20. 
    What error detection method is used for checking a data block greater than 512 and is about 99 percent effective in most applications?
    • A. 

      Checksum.

    • B. 

      Cyclic redundancy check.

    • C. 

      Vertical redundancy check.

    • D. 

      Longitudinal redundancy check.


  • 21. 
    When using forward error control as a method of error correction, where does error correction take place?
    • A. 

      Receiving end.

    • B. 

      In the oscillator.

    • C. 

      Transmitting end.

    • D. 

      In the primary buffers.


  • 22. 
    Light sources that are applicable to fiber optic waveguide are light-emitting diodes and
    • A. 

      Photo transistors.

    • B. 

      Hybrid photodiodes.

    • C. 

      Semiconductor laser diodes.

    • D. 

      Integrated photodiode/preamplifiers.


  • 23. 
    What type of light is emitted from a laser?
    • A. 

      Incoherent.

    • B. 

      Coherent.

    • C. 

      Ordinary.

    • D. 

      Invisible.


  • 24. 
    What are the two main types of photodetectors?
    • A. 

      Positive intrinsic negative and avalanche photodiode.

    • B. 

      Light-emitting diode and avalanche photodiode.

    • C. 

      Light emitting diode and semiconductor laser.

    • D. 

      Tunnel and zener diodes.


  • 25. 
    What photo detector converts one photon to one electron?
    • A. 

      Light emitting diode.

    • B. 

      Avalanche photodiode.

    • C. 

      Positive intrinsic negative diode.

    • D. 

      Integrated photodiode/preamplifier.


  • 26. 
    Which repeater amplifies optical signal without converting to and from the electrical domain? 
    • A. 

      Receiver.

    • B. 

      Repeaters.

    • C. 

      Regenerators.

    • D. 

      Optical amplifiers.


  • 27. 
    A short section of single fiber cable that has a connector at each end is called a
    • A. 

      Pigtail.

    • B. 

      Jumper.

    • C. 

      Patch cord.

    • D. 

      Breakout cables.


  • 28. 
    Which fiber-optic connector uses quick-release, keyed bayonet couplings that are preferred in situations where severe vibrations are not expected?
    • A. 

      Biconic.

    • B. 

      Field (FC).

    • C. 

      Straight tip (ST).

    • D. 

      Sub-miniature, type A (SMA).


  • 29. 
    Whoever made the CDC's skipped over question 29. This slot pending for potential future revision. The Hadron Collider in Switzerland has the ability to 'make' atoms. For instance, it can make 2,000,000 gold atoms every second. Question: If the Hadron Collider were producing 2 million atoms of gold every second, how long would it take to produce 1 gram of gold?
    • A. 

      100 years.

    • B. 

      20 minutes. It's science.

    • C. 

      24.6 years.

    • D. 

      50 million years.


  • 30. 
    High-altitude electromagnetic pulse is a wideband phenomenon that involves which frequency range?
    • A. 

      1 hertz to 1 kilohertz.

    • B. 

      1 hertz to 1 gigahertz.

    • C. 

      10 hertz to 10 kilohertz.

    • D. 

      10 hertz to 10 gigahertz.


  • 31. 
    High-altitude electromagnetic pulse environment protection is important for critical, time urgent mission systems because it
    • A. 

      Is a problem for electronic components in satellites and reentry vehicles.

    • B. 

      Has a vertical amplitude that decreases inversely with distance, but remains significant for many kilometers.

    • C. 

      Has very intense radial electrical fields, azimuthal magnetic fields, and time-varying air conductivity.

    • D. 

      Is the only nuclear environment that may be imposed on many systems simultaneously with the expenditure of very few weapons.


  • 32. 
    A system-generated electromagnetic pulse is a problem for satellites and reentry vehicles that are
    • A. 

      Susceptible to the wideband frequency phenomenon.

    • B. 

      Directly exposed to nuclear radiations from a high-altitude burst.

    • C. 

      Affected by the azimuthal magnetic fields and time-varying air conductivity.

    • D. 

      Influenced by the signal fading or waveform distortion caused by the structured plasma field.


  • 33. 
    Which distinct region of the source region electromagnetic pulse is produced by the interactions between the weapon products and the earth’s atmosphere?
    • A. 

      Secondary.

    • B. 

      Radiated.

    • C. 

      Plasma.

    • D. 

      Source.


  • 34. 
    Atmospheric disturbances from initial nuclear radiation on higher frequencies affect communications by
    • A. 

      Blackout effects.

    • B. 

      Absorption effects.

    • C. 

      Scintillation effects.

    • D. 

      Attenuation effects.


  • 35. 
    Currents and voltages induced on power lines, cable links, and pipelines by electromagnetic pulse are called
    • A. 

      Scintillation.

    • B. 

      Local effects.

    • C. 

      Source region.

    • D. 

      Long-line effects.


  • 36. 
    Which type of filters are always used in combination with surge arresters?
    • A. 

      Linear.

    • B. 

      AC line.

    • C. 

      DC line.

    • D. 

      Power line.


  • 37. 
    If the interference can be eliminated by disconnecting the receiving antenna, the source of the disturbance is most likely
    • A. 

      Line noise.

    • B. 

      Internal to the radio.

    • C. 

      External to the radio.

    • D. 

      Radio receiver trouble.


  • 38. 
    Little or no variations in the strength of the interfering signal when moving the receiving antenna for short distance normally indicates
    • A. 

      Enemy jamming.

    • B. 

      Internal interference.

    • C. 

      Radio receiver trouble.

    • D. 

      Unintentional interference.


  • 39. 
    What type of electromagnetic interference occurs when a receiver responds to off-frequency signals?
    • A. 

      Rusty bolt.

    • B. 

      Co-channel.

    • C. 

      Brute force.

    • D. 

      Spurious responses.


  • 40. 
    Which type of intermodulation interference varies significantly with temperature and weather conditions?
    • A. 

      Transmitter.

    • B. 

      Rusty-bolt.

    • C. 

      Spurious.

    • D. 

      Receiver.


  • 41. 
    What man-made noise results from voltage surges, arcing, or corona discharges?
    • A. 

      Relays.

    • B. 

      Lighting.

    • C. 

      Power line.

    • D. 

      Switching equipment.


  • 42. 
    How can you normally eliminate electromagnetic interference noise bursts caused by sodium and mercury vapor lights that have stopped working while the power is still applied?
    • A. 

      Change the bulb.

    • B. 

      Ground out the light fixture.

    • C. 

      Install a noise reject filter on the light.

    • D. 

      Install a noise reject filter on the receiver.


  • 43. 
    What Air Force program is used to resolve an electromagnetic interference incident?
    • A. 

      Mishap prevention.

    • B. 

      Frequency management.

    • C. 

      Electrostatic discharge control.

    • D. 

      Spectrum interference resolution.


  • 44. 
    At what level does the Air Force want electromagnetic interference problems resolved?
    • A. 

      Affected unit.

    • B. 

      Affected major command.

    • C. 

      Electromagnetic environmental effects office.

    • D. 

      Spectrum interference resolution office.


  • 45. 
    What do you do when you are reasonably sure electromagnetic interference exists?
    • A. 

      Request engineering assistance.

    • B. 

      Contact the base frequency manager.

    • C. 

      Systematically gather data for analysis.

    • D. 

      Contact the spectrum interference resolution office.


  • 46. 
    Who is initially responsible for reporting an electromagnetic interference?
    • A. 

      The operator.

    • B. 

      Major command.

    • C. 

      The frequency manager.

    • D. 

      Federal Communications Commission.


  • 47. 
    Who is tasked to provide interference resolution support to the unified commanders?
    • A. 

      The operator.

    • B. 

      Joint spectrum center.

    • C. 

      Installation spectrum manager.

    • D. 

      Federal Communications Commission.


  • 48. 
    Which feature of the Fluke 8025A multimeter do you use to select various measurement functions?
    • A. 

      Circuit jacks.

    • B. 

      Rotary switch.

    • C. 

      Range push button.

    • D. 

      Touch-hold button.


  • 49. 
    Which part of the Fluke 8025A’s display section indicates the absolute value of the input?
    • A. 

      Digital.

    • B. 

      Annunciator.

    • C. 

      Range indicator.

    • D. 

      Analog bar graph.


  • 50. 
    Which feature of the Fluke 8025A locks the measurement into the display for viewing and automatically updates the display when you take a new measurement?
    • A. 

      Rotary switch.

    • B. 

      Range push button.

    • C. 

      Power-up self-test.

    • D. 

      Touch-hold push button.


  • 51. 
    When you use the Fluke 8025A, which voltage range do you select to measure 50 volts DC?
    • A. 

      Volts AC.

    • B. 

      Volts DC.

    • C. 

      Millivolts AC.

    • D. 

      Millivolts DC.


  • 52. 
    When testing a diode with the 8025A, the leads across a “good” diode produces an “OL” (open) on the display in one direction while reversing the leads produces
    • A. 

      A continuous audible tone.

    • B. 

      “SL” (short) on the display.

    • C. 

      A wavering audible tone.

    • D. 

      Three short beeps.


  • 53. 
    How are voltage, time, and depth represented on the oscilloscope display?
    • A. 

      Voltage = intensity, time = vertical axis, and depth = horizontal axis.

    • B. 

      Voltage = intensity, time = horizontal axis, and depth = vertical axis.

    • C. 

      Voltage = horizontal axis, time = vertical axis, and depth = intensity.

    • D. 

      Voltage = vertical axis, time = horizontal axis, and depth = intensity.


  • 54. 
    Which oscilloscope’s input coupling position allows you to view both AC and DC components of the input signal?
    • A. 

      DC.

    • B. 

      AC.

    • C. 

      Norm.

    • D. 

      Ground.


  • 55. 
    Which oscilloscope probe is essentially just a shielded piece of wire?
    • A. 

      Current.

    • B. 

      Passive 1:1.

    • C. 

      Passive divider, 1:10.

    • D. 

      Active field effect transistor.


  • 56. 
    Which probe lets you use the oscilloscope to measure higher voltage levels, raises the input impedance, does not require a bias voltage, and attenuates noise?
    • A. 

      Current.

    • B. 

      Passive 1:1.

    • C. 

      Active (FET).

    • D. 

      Passive divider, 10:1.


  • 57. 
    Which probe does not need to actually make contact with the circuit under test?
    • A. 

      Current.

    • B. 

      Passive 1:1.

    • C. 

      Active (FET).

    • D. 

      Passive divider, 10:1.


  • 58. 
    Sampled data points are stored in the memory of a digital storage oscilloscope as
    • A. 

      Sequential records.

    • B. 

      Waveform points.

    • C. 

      Record lengths.

    • D. 

      Record points.


  • 59. 
    What area of a digital storage oscilloscope takes digitized samples and performs numerous manipulations on the data including measuring rise and fall times, periods, time intervals, and math computations?
    • A. 

      Microprocessors.

    • B. 

      Acquisition.

    • C. 

      Memory.

    • D. 

      Input.


  • 60. 
    What type of sampling does a digital storage oscilloscope normally use on single-shot or seldom-occurring signals?
    • A. 

      Sequential.

    • B. 

      Repetitive.

    • C. 

      Real-time.

    • D. 

      Random.


  • 61. 
    In real-time sampling, what type of interpolation is used when measuring pulse waves?
    • A. 

      Sine.

    • B. 

      Linear.

    • C. 

      Non-uniform.

    • D. 

      Companding.


  • 62. 
    In acquiring a 4K record length on a digital storage oscilloscope, how many samples can you view at one time?
    • A. 

      1,000.

    • B. 

      2,000.

    • C. 

      3,000.

    • D. 

      4,000.


  • 63. 
    Which pattern simulator section of a bit error rate test set controls the clock selector and selects either the external clock or the internal clock for processing?
    • A. 

      Clock drivers.

    • B. 

      Code converter.

    • C. 

      Data/sync selector.

    • D. 

      Data/clock select encoder.


  • 64. 
    What pattern simulator section of the bit error rate test set accepts a 48-bit parallel word and generates a serial pattern?
    • A. 

      48-bit transmitter only.

    • B. 

      48-bit register and 8-bit word display.

    • C. 

      Pseudo random noise (PRN) generator.

    • D. 

      Pseudo random noise (PRN) comparator.


  • 65. 
    Which is the primary means of measuring the quality of transmitted digital information, and how is this means derived?
    • A. 

      Bit error rate (BER), the ratio of the number of bits in error to total number of bits transmitted.

    • B. 

      Bit error rate (BER), the difference between the number of bits transmitted and the total number of bits received.

    • C. 

      Distribution of errors, the ratio of the number of bits in error to total number of bits transmitted.

    • D. 

      Distribution of errors, the difference between the number of bits transmitted and the total number of bits received.


  • 66. 
    Which of these bit rates do you use for a bit error rate test on a 64 kbps data circuit?
    • A. 

      511 bps.

    • B. 

      9600 bps.

    • C. 

      64 kbps.

    • D. 

      1.544 Mbps.


  • 67. 
    On the bit error rate test set, the 25-pin connectors are designed to operate with data modems to
    • A. 

      Simplify connection of test equipment to the modem under test and to transmit the test pattern.

    • B. 

      Simplify connection of test equipment to the modem under test and to carry the necessary signaling and handshake signals for modem operations.

    • C. 

      Isolate test equipment from the data circuit under test and to transmit the test pattern.

    • D. 

      Isolate test equipment from the data circuit under test and to carry the necessary signaling and handshake signals for modem operations.


  • 68. 
    How often must you continue to test system grounds?
    • A. 

      Randomly.

    • B. 

      Periodically.

    • C. 

      Every 10 years.

    • D. 

      Just one time only.


  • 69. 
    What type of equipment helps resolve intermittent electrical problems because of poor grounding?
    • A. 

      Earth ground tester.

    • B. 

      Frequency counter.

    • C. 

      Spectrum analyzer.

    • D. 

      Oscilloscope.


  • 70. 
    Resistance reading on the ground under test is plotted on a graph of
    • A. 

      Resistance versus distance.

    • B. 

      Current versus distance.

    • C. 

      Frequency versus time.

    • D. 

      Amplitude versus time.


  • 71. 
    A known current is generated by the earth ground tester between the earth ground electrode and the
    • A. 

      Grounding point.

    • B. 

      Inner earth stake Y.

    • C. 

      Auxiliary current probe.

    • D. 

      Auxiliary potential probe.


  • 72. 
    What component of a protocol analyzer discards frames based on its definition or activates a trigger based on the trigger definition?
    • A. 

      Filter.

    • B. 

      Buffer.

    • C. 

      Counter.

    • D. 

      Central processing unit.


  • 73. 
    What protocol analyzer test window provides information concerning the network utilization and frame error that are related to a specific protocol?
    • A. 

      Media Access Control (MAC) node statistics.

    • B. 

      Connection statistics.

    • C. 

      Protocol statistics.

    • D. 

      Node discovery.


  • 74. 
    What protocol analyzer test window automatically runs in the background when the protocol analyzer application is activated?
    • A. 

      Media Access Control (MAC) node statistics.

    • B. 

      Connection statistics.

    • C. 

      Protocol statistics.

    • D. 

      Node discovery.


  • 75. 
    What protocol analyzer test window provides information concerning the bandwidth utilization and the number of connections that are related to specific nodes?
    • A. 

      Media Access Control (MAC) node statistics.

    • B. 

      Connection statistics.

    • C. 

      Protocol statistics.

    • D. 

      Node discovery.


  • 76. 
    Which one of these is not an application of a radio frequency generator?
    • A. 

      Verifying transmitter frequencies.

    • B. 

      Troubleshooting receivers.

    • C. 

      Checking antenna systems.

    • D. 

      Aligning galvanometers.


  • 77. 
    A power reading that uses the abbreviation dBm indicates the
    • A. 

      Ratio of decibels relative to a 1-milliwatt standard.

    • B. 

      Ratio of decibels relative to a 1-megawatt standard.

    • C. 

      Actual power level expressed in milliwatts.

    • D. 

      Actual power level expressed in megawatts.


  • 78. 
    The measurable frequency and power ranges of the HP 436A power meter are determined by the
    • A. 

      Digital display.

    • B. 

      Power sensor.

    • C. 

      Power meter.

    • D. 

      Interface.


  • 79. 
    During what operation is the radio frequency blanking output used on the HP 436A power meter?
    • A. 

      While in WATT mode operation.

    • B. 

      While in REMOTE mode operation.

    • C. 

      During the automatic zeroing operation.

    • D. 

      During calibration adjustment operation.


  • 80. 
    The two switches on the front panel of the wattmeter correspond to the
    • A. 

      Power range of the reverse element.

    • B. 

      Power range of the forward element.

    • C. 

      Frequency range of the reverse element.

    • D. 

      Frequency range of the forward element.


  • 81. 
    What feature is useful for making adjustments to optimize any of the parameters which the wattmeter measures?
    • A. 

      Peaking aid.

    • B. 

      Minimum reading.

    • C. 

      Maximum reading.

    • D. 

      Standing wave ratio.


  • 82. 
    Which measurement is not made with a spectrum analyzer?
    • A. 

      Frequency stability.

    • B. 

      Peak-peak voltage.

    • C. 

      Amplitude modulation.

    • D. 

      Subcarrier oscillator outputs.


  • 83. 
    Which electronic counter measurement represents the average bit-to-bit time of an input signal?
    • A. 

      Period.

    • B. 

      Scaling.

    • C. 

      Frequency.

    • D. 

      Time interval.


  • 84. 
    Which are the correct four classes of electronic counters?
    • A. 

      Frequency counters, time counters, microwave counters, and reciprocal counters.

    • B. 

      Frequency counters, universal counters, microwave counters, and reciprocal counters.

    • C. 

      Frequency counters, universal counters, period counters, and reciprocal counters.

    • D. 

      Scaling counters, universal counters, microwave counters, and reciprocal counters.


  • 85. 
    What function is not part of the communication service monitor?
    • A. 

      Radio frequency generator.

    • B. 

      Analog multimeter.

    • C. 

      Oscilloscope.

    • D. 

      Receiver.


  • 86. 
    What operational capability of the communication service monitor receives amplitude and frequency modulated signals?
    • A. 

      Scope.

    • B. 

      Receiver.

    • C. 

      Generator.

    • D. 

      Function generator.


  • 87. 
    What operational capability of the communication service monitor produce sine, square and triangle waveforms?
    • A. 

      Scope.

    • B. 

      Duplex.

    • C. 

      Receiver.

    • D. 

      Function generator.


  • 88. 
    Why should the number of splices be controlled during fiber optic installation?
    • A. 

      Prevent eavesdropping.

    • B. 

      To aid in troubleshooting.

    • C. 

      Reduce potential damage.

    • D. 

      Minimize transmission loss.


  • 89. 
    Which is a function of Air Force Communications Special Instructions?
    • A. 

      Permanently change technical order procedures.

    • B. 

      Means to issue optional equipment modifications.

    • C. 

      Provide significant system repair history for equipment transfers.

    • D. 

      Paraphrases technical order procedures via quick reference index cards.


  • 90. 
    What are the three main functions of grounding?
    • A. 

      Personnel safety, equipment protection, and noise reduction.

    • B. 

      Signal amplification, personnel safety, and emissions security.

    • C. 

      Equipment protection, signal amplification, and capacitance reaction.

    • D. 

      Corrosion prevention, emissions security, and over-voltage protection.


  • 91. 
    What facility ground subsystem uses surge arrestors?
    • A. 

      The earth electrode.

    • B. 

      The fault protection.

    • C. 

      The signal reference.

    • D. 

      The lightning protection.


  • 92. 
    What facility ground subsystem is also called the safety ground?
    • A. 

      The earth electrode.

    • B. 

      The fault protection.

    • C. 

      The signal reference.

    • D. 

      The lightning protection.


  • 93. 
    Bonds in the earth electrode subsystem normally are direct permanent bonds and do not exceed a resistance of
    • A. 

      1 milliohm.

    • B. 

      2 milliohm.

    • C. 

      5 milliohm.

    • D. 

      10 milliohm.


  • 94. 
    What kind of bonds are normally applied to signal reference bonds?
    • A. 

      None.

    • B. 

      Brazing.

    • C. 

      Welding.

    • D. 

      Mechanical.


  • 95. 
    What are the two basic functions of shielding?
    • A. 

      Prevent interference between multiple emanating systems and minimize compromising emanations.

    • B. 

      Prevent interference between multiple emanating systems and block all emanations from exiting a secure facility.

    • C. 

      To equalize all electronic systems to the same potential and minimize compromising emanations.

    • D. 

      To equalize all electronic systems to the same potential and block all emanations from exiting a secure facility.


  • 96. 
    What equipment should be designated as RED?
    • A. 

      Equipment processing unencrypted unclassified information.

    • B. 

      Equipment processing clear-text unclassified information.

    • C. 

      Equipment processing encrypted classified information.

    • D. 

      Equipment processing clear-text classified information.


  • 97. 
    Which of these is considered a primary cell?
    • A. 

      Nickel cadmium.

    • B. 

      Carbon zinc.

    • C. 

      Lead-acid.

    • D. 

      Lithium.


  • 98. 
    What power line fault category is more typically referred to as Electro-Magnetic Interference and Radio Frequency Interference?
    • A. 

      Sag.

    • B. 

      Spike.

    • C. 

      Noise.

    • D. 

      Blackout.


  • 99. 
    What type of uninterruptible power supply (UPS) has traditionally been referred to as “offline” by technicians?
    • A. 

      Passive standby.

    • B. 

      Line interactive.

    • C. 

      Double conversion.

    • D. 

      Ferro resonant standby.


  • 100. 
    How many phases of generator power are usually required for industrial and commercial applications?
    • A. 

      Single.

    • B. 

      Double.

    • C. 

      Three.

    • D. 

      Four.


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