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CCA prep exam 200 questions

200 Preguntes  I  By Melodey23
CCA prep exam 200 questions
200 Practice questions

  
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1.  Employees in the Hospital Busines Office may have legitimate access to patient health information without patient authorization based on what HIPAA standard/principle?
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2.  A patient is admitted to the hospital with abdominal pain. The principal diagnosis is cholecystitis. The patient also has a history of hypertension and diabetes. In the DRG prospective payment system, which of the following would determine the MDC assignment for this patient?
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3.  The sum of a hospital's relative DRG rates for a year was 15,192 and the hospital had 10,471 discharges for the year. Given this information what would be the hospital's case-mix index for that year?
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4.  Which of the following is required in order to prescribe medications?
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5.  Which of the following materials is not documented in an emergency care record?
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6.  When coding benign neoplasm of the skin, the section noted here directs the coder to: 216   Benign Neoplasm of Skin                   Includes:                            Blue Nevus                             Dermatofibroma                            Hydrocystoma                            Pigmented Nevus                            Syringoadenoma                            Syringoma                   Excludes:                             Skin of genital organs (221.0-222.9) 216.0   Skin of lip                    Excludes:                              Vermilion border of lip (210.0) 216.1   Eyelid, including canthus                    Excludes:                               Cartilage of eyelid (215.0)
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7.  Identify the two-digit modifier that may be reported to indicate a physician performed the postoperative management of a patient, but another physician performed the surgical procedure
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8.  What is the term used in reference to the systematic review of sample health records to determine whether health record documentation standards are being met?
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9.  Dr. Jones entered a progress note in a patient's health record 24 hours after he visited the patient. Which quality element is missing from the progress note?
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10.  Identify the diagnosis code(s) for carcinoma in situ of vocal cord.
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11.  Identify the appropriate ICD-9-CM diagnosis code for cerebral contusion with brief loss of consciousness.
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12.  A health information technician is hired as the chief compliance officer for a large group practice. In evaluating the current program the HIT learns that there are written standards of conduct and policies and procedures that address specific areas of potential fraud as well as audiots in place to monitor compliance. Which of the following should the compliance officer also ensure are in place?
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13.  Patient arrived via ambulance to the emergency department following a motor vehicle accident. Patient sustained a fracture of the ankle; 3.0 cm superficial laceration of the left arm; 5.0 laceration of the scalp with exposure of the fascia; and a concussion. Patient received the following procedures: X-ray of the ankle which showed a bimalleolar ankle fracture which required closed manipulative reduction and simple suturing of the laceration. Provide CPT codes for the procedures done in the emergency department for the facility bill.
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14.  Patient with flank pain was admitted and found to have a calculus of the kidney. Ureteroscopy with placement of ureteral stents was performed.
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15.  Assign the correct CPT code for the following: A 58-year-old male was seen in the outpatient surgical center for an insertion of self-contained inflatable penile prosthesis for impotence.
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16.  Under HIPAA rules, when an individual asks to see his or her own health information, a covered entity _________.
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17.  Adoption of the Minimum Standards marked the beginning of this modern __________ process for healthcare organizations.
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18.  According to CPT, a repair of a laceration that includes retention sutures would be considered what type of closure?
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19.  The goal of coding compliance programs is to prevent _________.
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20.  Prospective payment systems were developed by the federal government to:
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21.  A notation for a diabetic patient in a physician progress note reads: "Occasionally gets hungry. No insulin reactions. Says she is following her diabetic diet." In which part of a POMR progress note would this notation be written?
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22.  Reviewing the health record for missing signatures, missing medical reports, and ensuring that all documents belong in the health record is an example of ________________ review.
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23.  In long-term care, the resident's care plan is based on data collected in the _____________.
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24.  Which organization originally published ICD-9-CM?
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25.  Patient returns during a 90-day postoperative period from a ventral hernia repair; now complaining of eye pain. What modifier would a physician setting use with the Evaluation and Management code?
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26.  Use of the health record by a clinician to facilitate quality patient care is considered _____________
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27.  A special Web page that offers secure access to data is called a(n):
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28.  Which volume of ICD-9-CM contains the numerical listing of codes that represent diseases and injuries?
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29.  Use of the health record to monitor bioterrorism activity is considered a ______________
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30.  While the focus of inpatient data collection in the UHDDS is on principal diagnosis, the focus of outpatient data collection in the UACDS is on ___________.
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31.  The admitting data of Mrs. Smith's health record indicated that her birth date was March 21, 1948. On the discharge summary, Mrs. Smith's birth date was recorded as July 21, 1948. Which quality elements is mjissing from Mrs. Smith's health record?
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32.  Identify where the following information would be found in the acute care record. Following induction of an adequate general anesthesia, and with the patient supine on the padded table, the left upper extremity was prepped and draped in the standard fashion.
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33.  A notation for a diabetic patient in a physician progress note reads: "FBS 110 mg%, urine sugar, no acetone." In which part of a POMR progress note would this notation be written?
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34.  The following is documented in an acute care record: "Spoke to the attending re: my assessment. Provided adoption and counseling information. Spoke to CPS re: referral. Case manager to meet with patient and family." In which of the following would this documentation appear?
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35.  Mary Smith, RHIA, has been charged with the responsibility of designing a data collection form to be used on admission of a patient to the acute care hospital in which she works. The first resource that she should use is ________.
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36.  A patient is admitted to the hospital with shortness of breath and congestive heart failure. The patient subsequently develops respiratory failure. The patient undergoes intubation with ventilator management. Which of the following would be the correct sequencing and coding of this case?
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37.  A physician correctly prescribes Coumadin. The patient takes the Coumadin as prescribed, but develops hematuria as a result of taking the medication. Which of the following is the correct way to code this case?
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38.  The folowing is documented in an acute care record: "Microscopic: Sections are of squamous mucosa with no atypia." In which of the following would this documentation appear?
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39.  Exceptions to the consent requirement include:
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40.  The key data element for linking data about an individual who is seen in a variety of care settings is the _________.
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41.  A patient is admitted with acute exacerbation of COPD, chronic renal failure, and hypertension.
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42.  Which of the following is not an element of data quality?
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43.  What is the correct CPT code assignment for destruction of internal hemorrhoids with use of infrared coagulation?
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44.  Reference codes 49491 through 49525 for inguinal hernia repair. Patient is 47 years old. What is the correct code for an initial inguinal herniorrhaphy for incarcerated hernia?
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45.  Which of the following provides the most comprehensive controlled vocabulary for coding the content of a patient record?
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46.  Which of the following types of hospitals are excluded from the Medicare inpatient prospective payment system?
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47.  Identify the appropriate CPT code(s) for a routine EKG with 15 leads, with the physician providing only the interpretation and report
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48.  Identify where the following information would be found in the acute care record: "PA and Lateral Chest: The lungs are clear. The heart and mediastinum are normal in size and configuration. There are minor degenerative changes of the lower thoracic spine".
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49.  If a patient has an excision of a malignant lesion of the skin, the CPT code is determined by the body area from which the excision occurs and which of the following?
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50.  Which of the following is not a characteristic of high-quality healthcare data?
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51.  Which of the following is a direct command that requires an individual or a representative of an organization to appear in court or to present an object to the court?
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52.  Which of the following would a health record technician use to perform the billing function for a physician's office?
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53.  The HIPAA Privacy Rule requires that covered entities must limit use, access, and disclosure of PHI to only the amount needed to accomplish the intended purpose. What concept is this an example of?
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54.  Which of the following is the planned replacement for ICD-9-CM Volumes 1 and 2?
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55.  Dr. Williams is on the medical staff of Sutter Hospital and he has asked to see the health record of his wife who was recently hospitalized. Dr. Jones was the patient's physician. Of the options listed here, which is the best course of action?
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56.  Identify the correct diagnosis code(s) for adenoma of adrenal cortex with Conn's syndrome.
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57.  Patient admitted with major depression, recurrent, severe.
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58.  Which of the following provides macroscopic and microscopic information about tissue removed during an operative procedures?
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59.  The ______ mandated the development of standards for electronic medical records.
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60.  If a patient's total outpatient bill is $500, and the patient's healthcare insurance plan pays 80 percent of the allowable charges, what is the amount the patient is responsible?
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61.  A nurse is responsible for which of the following types of acute care documentation?
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62.  Patient admitted with senile cataract, diabetes mellitus, and extracapsular cataract extraction with simultaneous insertion of intraocular lens.
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63.  Which of the following provides a set of codes used for collecting data abount substance abuse and mental health disorders?
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64.  In conducting a qualitative analysis to ensure that documentation in the health record supports the diagnosis of the patient, what documentation wouild a coder look for to substantiate the diagnosis of aspiration pneumonia (PNA)
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65.  In designing an electronic health record, one of the best resources to use in helping to define the content of the record as well as to standardize data definitions is the E1384 standard promulgated by the:
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66.  A patient is admitted to an acute care hospital for acute intoxication and alcohol withdrawal syndrome due to chronic alcoholism.
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67.  If another status T procedure were performed, how much would the facility receive for the second status T procedure? (See handout if table is not aligned) Billing         Status       CPT/HCPCS     APC Number     Indicator 998323       V                  99285-25      0612 998324       T                  25500            0044 998325       X                  72050            0261 998326       S                  72128            0283 998327       S                  70450            0283
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68.  Which of the following is not reimbursed according to the Medicare outpatient prospective payment system?
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69.  The following is documented in an acute care record: "HEENT: Reveals the tympanic membranes, nares, and pharynx to be clear. No obvious head trauma. CHEST: Good bilateral chest sounds. "In which of the following would this documentation appear?
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70.  The physician performs an exploratory laparotomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy. What is the correct CPT code assignment for this procedure?
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71.  The ability to electronically send data from one electronic system to a different elctronic system and still retain its meaning is called _____________.  
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72.  A patient seen in the emergency department for chest pain. After evaluation of the patient it is suspected that the patient may have gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). The final diagnosis was "Rule out chest pain versus GERD". The correct ICD-9-CM code is:
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73.  In a managed fee-for service agreement, which of the following would be used as a cost-control process for inpatient surgical services?
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74.  CPT Category III code can be used by what groups of providers
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75.  Which volume of ICD-9-CM contains the tabular and alphabetic lists of procedures?
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76.  Which of the following statements does not apply to ICD-9-CM?
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77.  Which of the following contains the physician's findings based on an examination of the patient?
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78.  The __________ notifies physicians that Medicare payments to the facility is partly based on the patient's principal and secondary diagnoses, as well as the major procedures performed, and that falsification of records can lead to fines, imprisonment, or civil penalty under federal laws.
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79.  The legal health record is a(n) _____________.
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80.  In conducting a qualitative review the clinical documentation specialist sees that the nursing staff has documented the patient's skin integrity on admission to support the presence of a stage I pressure ulcer. However, the physician's documentation is unclear as to whether this condition was present on admission. How should the clinical documentation specialist proceed?
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81.  A patient is admitted for chest pain with cardiac dysrhythmia to Hospital A. The patient is found to have an acute inferior myocardial infarction with atrial fibrillation. After the atrial fibrillation was controlled and the patient was stabilized, the patient was transferred to Hospital B for a CABG X3. Using the codes listed here, what are the appropriate ICD-9-CM codes and sequencing for both hospitalizations? 410.00     Myocardial infarction of anterolateral wall, episode unspecified 410.01     Myocardial infarction of anterolateral wall, initial episode 410.40     Myocardial infarction of inferior wall, episode unspecified 410.41     Myocardial infarction of inferior wall, initial episode 410.42     Myocardial infarction of inferior wall, subsequent episode 427           Cardiac dysrhythmias 427.3                Atrial fibrillation and flutter 427.31              Atrial fibrillation 786.50     Chest pain, unspecified 36.13        Aortocoronary bypass of three coronary arteries
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82.  Which type of patient care record includes documentation of a family bereavement period?
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83.  A patient was admitted for abdominal pain with diarrhea and was diagnosed with infectious gastroenteritis. The patient also has angina and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following would be the correct coding and sequencing for this case?
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84.  Which of the following statements is false?
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85.  Which of the following statements is not true abount a business associate agreement?
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86.  Which of the following federal laws passed in 1996 resulted in new privacy regulations for healthcare organizations?
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87.  Which of the following must be reported to the medical examiner?
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88.  A 65-year-old patient, with a history of lung cancer, is admitted to a healthcare facility with ataxia and syncope and a fractured arm as a result of falling. The patient undergoes a closed reduction of the fracture in the emergency department and undergoes a complete workup for metastatic carcinoma of the brain. The patient is found to have metastatic carcinoma of the lung to the brain and undergoes radiation therapy to the brain. Which of the following would be the principal diagnosis in this case.
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89.  A 65-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital. She was diagnosed with septicemia secondary to staphylococcus aureus and abdominal pain secondary to diverticulitis of the colon. What is the correct code assignment?
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90.  A notation for a hypertensive patient in a physician ambulatory care progress note reads: "Continue with Diuril, 500 mgs once daily. Return visit in 2 weeks." In which part of a POMR progress note would this notation be written?
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91.  A female patient is admitted for stress incontinence. A urethral suspension is performed.
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92.  Which of the following is a secondary purpose of the health record?
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93.  A 45-year-old woman is admitted for blood loss anemia due to dysfunctional uterine bleeding.
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94.  Which of the following represents documentation of the patient's current and past health status?
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95.  Identify the correct diagnosis code for lipoma of the face.
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96.  The protection measures and tools for safeguarding information and information systems is a definition of:
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97.  A 7-year-old patient was admitted to the emergency department for treatment of shortness of breath. The patient is given epinephrine and nebullizer treatments. The shortness of breath and wheezing are unabated following treatment. What diagnosis should be suspected?
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98.  Which of the following is a condition that arises during hospitalization?
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99.  Sleeping patterns, head and chest measurements, feeding and elimination status, weight, and Apgar scores are recorded in which of the following records?
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100.  These codes are used to assign a diagnosis to a patient who is seeking health services, but is not necessarily sick.
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101.  The HIM department is planning to scan noneelectronic medical record documentation. The project include the scanning of health record documentation such as history and physicals, physician orders, operative reports, and nursing notes. Which of the following methods of scanning would be best to help HIM professionals monitor the completeness of health records during a patient's hospitalizations?
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102.  Both HEDIS and the Joint Commission's ORYX programs are designed to collect data to be used for _________.
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103.  Diagnosis-related groups are organized into __________.
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104.  The patient presented to the physical therapy department and received 30 minutes of water aerobics therapeutic exercise with the therapist for treatment of arthritis. What is the appropriate treatment code(s) and/or modifier for a Medicare patient on a physical therapy plan of care in an outpatient setting?
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105.  Which of the following is an example of clinical data?
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106.  Which of the following statements represents an example of nonmaleficence?
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107.  A coding audit shows that an impatient coder is using multiple codes that describe the individual components of a procedure rather than using a single code that describes all the steps of the procedure performed. Which of the following should be done in this case?
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108.  Electronic system used by nurses and physicians to document assessments and findings are called:
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109.  A patient was discharged with the following diagnoses: "Cerebral occlusion, hemiparesis, aspasia, and hypertension." Which of the following code assignments would be appropriate for this case? 342.90   Hemiparesis affecting unspecified side 342.91   Hemiparesis affecting dominant side 342.92   Hemiparesis affecting nondominant side 434.90   Cerebral artery occlusion unspecified, without mention of cerebral infarction 434.91   Cerebral artery occlusion unspecified with cerebral infarction 401                   Hypertension 401.0                Malignant hypertension 401.1                Benign hypertension 401.9                Unspecified hypertension 428.0     Congestive heart failure 784.3     Aphasia
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110.  Messaging standards for electronic data interchange in healthcare have been developed by ___________.
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111.  CPT codes describing endovascular repair of the descending thoracic aorta include all of the following procedures except one. Which procedure is not included in the repair code?
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112.  Accreditation standards and the Medicare Conditions of Participation require that the patient's __________ be documented by the attending physician in the patient's health record no more than 30 days after discharge.
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113.  A skin lesion is removed from a patient's cheek in the dermatologist's office. The dermatologist documents "skin lesion" in the health record. Prior to billing the pathology report returns with a diagnosis of basal cell carcinoma. Which of the following actions should the coding professional do for claim submission?
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114.  What are the five-digit ICD-9-CM diagnosis code referred to as?
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115.  A patient with a diagnosis of ventral hernia is admitted to undergo a laparotomy with ventral hernia repair. The patient undergoes a laparotomy and develops bradycardia. The operative site is closed without the repair of the hernia, which is the correct code assignment?
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116.  Which of the following is not true of notices of privacy practices?
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117.  The diagnosis of a patient was recorded as an abscess in the procedure report, but was listed as carcinoma on the discharge summary. This is an example of a problem with:
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118.  According to the UHDDS, which of the following is the definition of "other diagnoses"?
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119.  A 35-year-old male was admitted with esophageal reflux. An esophagoscopy and closed esophageal biopsy was performed. Identify the code for the ICD-9-CM diagnosis and procedure.
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120.  Which of the following is necessary to ensure that each term used in an EHR has a common meaning to all users?
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121.  The patient was admitted with nausea, vomitting, and abdominal pain. The physician documents the following on the discharge summary: acute cholecystitis, nauea, vomiting, and abdominal pain. Which of the following would be the correct coding and sequencing for this case?
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122.  In developing a coding compliance program, which of the following would not be ordinarily included as participants in coding compliance education?
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123.  What is the function of a consultation report?
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124.  An 80-year-old female is admitted with fever, lethargy, hypotension, tachycardia, oliguria, and elevated WBC. The patient has more than 100,000 organisms of Escherichia coli per cc of urine. The attending physician documents "urosepsis". How should the coder proceed to code this case?
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125.  The patient was admitted to the outpatient department and had a bronchoscopy with bronchial brushings performed:
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126.  Which of the following best describes data completeness?
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127.  To comply with HIPAA, under usual circumstances, a covered entity must act on a patient's request to review or copy his or her health information within ________ days.
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128.  Which of the following provides a system for coding the clinical procedures and services provided by physicians and other clinical professionals?
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129.  Community Hospital is launching a clinical documentation improvement initiative because currently clinical documentation does not always adequately reflect the severity of illiness of the patient and does not support optimal HIM coding quality and accuracy. Given the situation, which of the following would be the best action to provide improved documentation for patient care and coding?
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130.  In a problem-oriented medical record, problems are organized ________.
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131.  The following is documented in an acute care record: "38 weeks gestation, Apgars 8/9, 6# 9.8 oz, good cry." In which of the following would this documentation appear?
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132.  The following is documented in an acute care record: "I was asked to evaluate this Level I trauma patient with an open left humeral epicondylar fracture. Recommendations: Proceed with urgent surgery for debridement, irrigation, and treatment of open fracture." In which of the following would this documentation appear?
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133.  Patient had a laparoscopic incisional herniorrhaphy for a recurrent reducible hernia. The repair included insertion of mesh. What is the correct code assignment?
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134.  Which of the following tasks may not be performed in an electronic health record system?
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135.  What is the correct CPT code assignment for hysteroscopy with lysis of intrauterine adhesions?
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136.  Law enacted by a legislative body is a(n) _________.
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137.  What is the defining characteristic of an integrated health record format?
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138.  An epidural was given during labor. Subsequently, it was determined that the patient would require a C-section for cephalopelvic disproportion because of obstructed labor. Assign the correct ICD-9-CM diagnostic and CPT anesthesia codes. (Modifiers are not used in this example.)
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139.  The inpatient data set that has been incorporated into federal law and is required for Medicare reporting is the __________.
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140.  A patient was admitted to the hospital with symptoms of a stroke and secondary diagnoses of COPD and hypertension. The patient was subsequently discharged from the hospital with a principal diagnosis of cerebral vascular accident and secondary diagnoses of catheter-associated urinary tract infection, COPD, and hypertension. Which of the following diagnoses should not be tagged as POA?
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141.  Data definition refers to _________.
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142.  Which of the following elements is not a component of most patient records?
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143.  A 65-year-old patient is admitted with pain and loosening of a previous total hip arthroplasty. The acetabular component has loosened and become painful. The patient was admitted for revision of the hip replacement. The acetabular component uses a metal-on-metal bearing surface. Which of the following codes would be appropriate coding for admission? 996.41   Mechanical loosening of prosthetic joint 996.96   Infection and inflammatory reaction to join prosthesis V43.64   Organ or tissue replaced by other means 00.71   Revision hip replacement, acetabular component 00.74   Revision hip replacement bearing surface, metal on polyethylene 00.75    Revision hip replacement bearing surface, metal on metal 00.76    Revision hip replacement bearing surface, ceramic on ceramic
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144.  The following is documented in an acute care record: "Atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response, left axis deviation, left bundle branch block." In which of the following would this documentation appear?
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145.  Assign the correct CPT code for the following procedure: Revision of the pacemaker skin pocket:
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146.  Which stage of the litigation process focuses on how strong a case the opposing party has?
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147.  When a provider accepts assignment, this means the __________.
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148.  From the information provided, how many APCs would this patient have? (See handout if table is not aligned) Billing        Status          CPT/HCPCS     APC Number     Indicator 998323       V                  99285-25          0612 998324       T                  25500                0044 998325       X                  72050                0261 998326       S                  72128                0283 998327       S                  70450                0283  
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149.  A 61-year-old male patient is being assessed for possible colon cancer and treated in the special procdure unit of the hospital. He undergoes a colonoscopy into the ascending colon with biopsy of a suspicious area in the transverse colon using the cold biopsy forceps. In addition, a colonic ultrasound of the area is performed, the transmural bipsy of an area of the mesentery adjacent to the transverse colon. Assign the appropriate CPT codes.
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150.  Which of the following spells out the powers of the three branches of the federal government?
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151.  A coder notes that the patient is taking prescribed Haldol. The final diagnoses on the progress notes include diabetes mellitus, acute pharyngitis, and malnutrition. What condition might the coder suspect the patient has and should query the physician?
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152.  Dr. Smith sees his patient, Bob Jones, in the nursing home where he has resided for 11 months. Bob is stable and happy, and Dr. Smith performs an annual physical examination and completes the minimum data set instrument. He performs and documents a detailed interval history, comprehensive examination, and performs medical decision making of low complexity. Assign the appropriate CPT code.
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153.  The Uniform Health Care Decisions Act ranks the next-of-kin in the following order for medical decision-making purposes:
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154.  Which of the following organizations is responsible for updating the procedure classification of ICD-9-CM?
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155.  A patient was diagnosed with L4-5 lumbar neuropathy and discogenic pain. The patient underwent an intradiscal electrothermal annuloplasy (IDET) in the radiology suite. What ICD-9-CM code should be used?
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156.  A statement or guideline that directs decision making or behavior is called a ____________.
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157.  Which of the following technologies would allow a hospital to get as much medical record information online as quickly as possible?
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158.  Which of the following actions would be best to determine if present on admission (POA) indicators for the conditions selected by CMS are having a negative impact on the hospital's Medicare reimbursement?
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159.  Patient had carcinoma of the anterior bladder wall fulgurated three years ago. The patient retruns yearly for a cystoscopy to recheck for bladder tumor. Patient is currently admitted for a routine check. A small recurring malignancy is found and fulgurated during the cystoscopy procedure. Which is the correct code assignment?
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160.  A patient is admitted with abdominal pain. The physician states that the discharge diagnosis is pancreatitis versus noncalculus cholecystitis. Both diagnose are equally treated. The correct coding and sequencing for this case would be:
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161.  Attorneys for healthcare organizations use the health record to _________.
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162.  A patient is admitted with a history of prostate cancer and with mental confusion. The patient completed radiation therapy for prostatic carcinoma three years ago and is status post a radical resection of the prostate. A CT scan of the brain during the current admission reveals metastatic. Which of the following is the correct coding and sequencing for the current hospital stay?
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163.  Which of the following ICD-9-CM codes classify environmental events and circumstances as the cause of an injury, poisoning, or other adverse effect?
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164.  In processing a bill under the Medicare outpatient prospective payment system (OPPS), where a patient had three surgical procedures performed during the same operative session, which of the following would apply?
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165.  The attending physician is responsible for which of the following types of acute care documentations?
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166.  The following is documented in an acute care record: "Admit to 3C. Diet: NPO Meds: Compazine 10mg IV Q 6 PRN." In which of the following would this documentation appear?
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167.  Written or spoken permission to proceed with care is classified as ___________.
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168.  Patient was admitted through the emergency department following a fall from a ladder while painting an interior room in his house. He had contusions of the scalp and face and an open fracture of the acetabulum. The fracture site was debrided and the fracture was reduced by open procedure with an external fixation device applied, which is the correct code assignment?
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169.  A coding audit shows that an inpatient coder is using multiple codes that describe the individual components of a procedure rather than using a single code that describes all the steps of the procedure performed. Which of the following should be done in this case?
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170.  What is the functions of physician's orders?
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171.  A health information technician is processing payments for hospital outpatient services to be reimbursed by Medicare for a patient who had two physician visits, underwent radiology examinations, clinical laboratory tests, and who received take-home surgical dressings. Which of the following could be reimbursed under the outpatient prospective payment system?
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172.  Given NCCI edits, if the replacement of a catheter is billed along with the performance of an infusion procedure for the same date of service for an outpatient beneficiary, Medicare will pay for:
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173.  Identify the CPT code for a 42-year-old diagnosed with ESRD who requires home dialysis for the month of April.
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174.  What is the legal term used to define the protection of health information in a patient-provider relationship?
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175.  Fee schedules are updated by third-party payers _____________.
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176.  Which of the following is not one of the purpose of ICD-9-CM?
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177.  Which of the following is used to report the healthcare supplies, products, and services provided to patients by healthcare professionals?
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178.  A patient is admitted with spotting. She had been treated two weeks previously for a miscarriage with sepsis. The sepsis had resolved and she is afebrile at this time. She is treated with an aspiration dilation and curettage. Products of conception are found. Which of the following should be the principal diagnosis?
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179.  Which of the following dictates how the medical staff operates?
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180.  To be in compliance with HIPAA regulations, a hospital would make its membership in a RHIO known to its patients through which of the following?
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181.  In the relational database here the patient table and the visit table are related by _________.                Patient Table Patient#   Last Name     First Name       DOB 021234     Smith              Donna               03/21/1944 022366     Jones             William              04/09/1960 034457     Collins            Mary                   08/21/1977                Visit Table Visit#            Date of Visit      Practitioner#     Patient# 0045678    11/12/2008         456                     021234 0045679    11/12/2008         997                     021234 0045680    11/12/2008         456                     034457  
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182.  Which of the following is a written description of an organization's formal position?
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183.  Which of the following ICD-9-CM codes are always alphanumeric
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184.  The number that has been proposed for use as a unique patient identification number but is controversial because of confidentiality and privacy concerns is the ________.
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185.  Documentation of aides who assist a patient with activities of daily living, bathing, laundry, and cleaning would be found in which type of specialty record?
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186.  Computer software programs that assist in the assignment of codes used with diagnostic and procedural classifications are called _________.
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187.  A notation for a hypertensive patient in a physician ambulatory care progress note reads: "Blood pressure adequately controlled." In which part of a POMR progress note would this notation be written?
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188.  Identify where the following information would be found in the acute care record:  "CBC; WBC 12.0, RBC 4.65, HGB 14.8, HCT 43.3, MCV 93".
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189.  What are four-digit ICD-9-CM diagnosis codes referred to as?
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190.  What is it called when accrediting bodies such as the Joint Commission or American Osteopathic Association (AOA) Healthcare Facilities Accreditation Program can survey facilities for compliance with the Medicare Conditions of Participation of Hospitals instead of the government?
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191.  In which setting may treatment records travel with the patient between treatment centers?
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192.  Which of the following isues compliance program guidance?
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193.  Privacy can be defined as the ________.
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194.  Which document directs an individual to bring originals or copies of records to court?
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195.  Identify the diagnosis code(s) for benign melanoma of skin of shoulder.
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196.  At which level of classification system are the most specific ICD-9-CM codes found?
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197.  Which of the following is a standard terminology used to code medical procedures and services?
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198.  An encoder that takes a coder through a series of questions and choices is called a(n):
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199.  In processing a Medicare payment for outpatient radiology exams, a hospital outpatient services department would receive payment under which of the following?
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200.  Given the following information, which of the following statements is correct? Given the following information, which of the following statements is correct? (see handout if table is not aligned) MS-DRG    MDC  Type      MS-DRG Title                                 Weight      Discharges      Geometric       Arithmetic                                                                                                                                                               Mean             Mean 191              04      MED     Chronic obstructive                       0.9757          10                          4.1                  5.0                                               pulmonary disease w CC 192              04      MED     Chronic obstructive                       0.7254           20                         3.3                  4.0                                               pulmonary disease                                               w/o CC/MCC 193              04      MED     Simple pneumonia &                    1.4327         10                          5.4                  6.7                                               pleurisy w MCC 194              04      MED     Simple pneumonia &                    1.0056         20                          4.4                  5.3                                                pleurisy w CC 195              04      MED     Simple pneumonia &                    0.7316         10                          3.5                  4.1
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