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Biology/biotech April 19th

75 Questions
Biology Quizzes & Trivia

Biology/Biotech April 19th. Tomorrow.

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    A cell that completed the cell cycle without undergoing cytokinesis would ______.
    • A. 

      Have less genetic material than it started with

    • B. 

      Not have completed anaphase

    • C. 

      Have two nuclei

    • D. 

      Have its chromosomes lined up in the middle of the cell

    • E. 

      Be a prokaryotic cell

  • 2. 
    One difference between mitosis and meiosis is ______.
    • A. 

      Mitosis produces more daughter cells than meiosis

    • B. 

      Mitosis produces haploid cells, but meiosis produces diploid cells

    • C. 

      Mitosis requires only one parent cell, but meiosis requires two parent cells

    • D. 

      Meiosis is needed for growth and tissue repair, but mitosis is not

    • E. 

      Mitosis produces cells genetically identical to the parent cell, but meiosis does not

  • 3. 
    Chromatin consists of ______.
    • A. 

      Protein only

    • B. 

      RNA and protein

    • C. 

      DNA and protein

    • D. 

      DNA only

    • E. 

      RNA only

  • 4. 
    Crossing over during prophase I results in ______.
    • A. 

      Reciprocal translocation

    • B. 

      Duplication

    • C. 

      Genetic recombination

    • D. 

      Translocation

    • E. 

      Nondisjunction

  • 5. 
    During metaphase ______.
    • A. 

      Chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell

    • B. 

      Centromeres divide

    • C. 

      Cytokinesis occurs

    • D. 

      The nuclear envelope breaks up

    • E. 

      Sister chromatids separate

  • 6. 
    Chromosomes that do not determine the sex of an individual are called ______.
    • A. 

      Autosomes

    • B. 

      Transposons

    • C. 

      Centromeres

    • D. 

      Sister chromatids

    • E. 

      Polysomes

  • 7. 
    A true-breeding plant that produces yellow seeds is crossed with a true-breeding plant that produces green seeds. The F1 plants have yellow seeds. What is the expected phenotypic ratio of seed color of the offspring of an F1 × F1 cross?
    • A. 

      1:1

    • B. 

      3:1

    • C. 

      2:1

    • D. 

      9:3:3:1

    • E. 

      1:2:1

  • 8. 
    The chromosomes of eukaryotic cells are found in the ______.
    • A. 

      Centriole

    • B. 

      Golgi apparatus

    • C. 

      Nucleus

    • D. 

      Nucleolus

    • E. 

      Basal body

  • 9. 
    In humans, the inheritance of ______ is best explained as being polygenic.
    • A. 

      Sickle-cell disease

    • B. 

      Huntington's disease

    • C. 

      Blood type

    • D. 

      Cystic fibrosis

    • E. 

      Height

  • 10. 
    How many chromosomes does an individual with Turner syndrome have?
    • A. 

      N + 1

    • B. 

      2n - 1

    • C. 

      N - 1

    • D. 

      4n

    • E. 

      2n + 1

  • 11. 
    Viruses that infect bacteria are ______.
    • A. 

      Retroviruses

    • B. 

      Emerging viruses

    • C. 

      Proviruses

    • D. 

      Enveloped viruses

    • E. 

      Bacteriophages

  • 12. 
    Alleles are described as ______.
    • A. 

      Environmental factors that affect gene expression

    • B. 

      Alternate phenotypes

    • C. 

      Alternate versions of a gene

    • D. 

      Punnett squares

    • E. 

      Homologous chromosomes

  • 13. 
    A duplicated chromosome consists of two ______.
    • A. 

      Sister chromatids

    • B. 

      Centrosomes

    • C. 

      Genes

    • D. 

      Genomes

    • E. 

      Centromeres

  • 14. 
    An individual with the genotype AaBb produces four different gametes in equal proportions. This is a demonstration of ______.
    • A. 

      Crossing over

    • B. 

      Mendel's law of independent assortment

    • C. 

      Mendel's principle of segregation

    • D. 

      The chromosomal theory of inheritance

    • E. 

      Linkage

  • 15. 
    To determine the phenotype of an individual who expresses a dominant trait, you would cross that individual with an individual who ______.
    • A. 

      Is homozygous dominant for that trait

    • B. 

      Expresses the dominant trait

    • C. 

      Has the genotype Aa

    • D. 

      Is homozygous recessive for that trait

    • E. 

      Is heterozygous for that trait

  • 16. 
    What is the difference between a benign and a malignant tumor?
    • A. 

      Benign tumors do not form lumps; malignant tumors do form lumps.

    • B. 

      Benign tumors are composed of cancer cells; malignant tumors are not.

    • C. 

      Benign tumors are not the result of a failure of a cell cycle control system; malignant tumors are.

    • D. 

      Benign tumors do not metastasize; malignant tumors do.

    • E. 

      Benign tumors cannot kill you; malignant tumors can.

  • 17. 
    The ______ is most commonly found in nature.
    • A. 

      Dominant trait

    • B. 

      F1

    • C. 

      Recessive trait

    • D. 

      Parental

    • E. 

      Wild-type trait

  • 18. 
    Which of the following occurs during interphase?
    • A. 

      Chromatin becomes tightly coiled.

    • B. 

      Cytokinesis occurs.

    • C. 

      Chromosome duplication.

    • D. 

      Sister chromatids separate.

    • E. 

      The mitotic spindle forms.

  • 19. 
    Attached earlobes are recessive to free earlobes. What is the probability of having a child with attached earlobes when an individual with attached earlobes mates with an individual heterozygous for free earlobes?
    • A. 

      50%

    • B. 

      25%

    • C. 

      100%

    • D. 

      0%

    • E. 

      75%

  • 20. 
    The best definition of a true-breeding plant is one that ______.
    • A. 

      Produces sterile offspring when cross-fertilized

    • B. 

      Self-fertilizes to produce offspring identical to the parent

    • C. 

      Becomes sterile after three generations

    • D. 

      Self-fertilizes to produce hybrid offspring

    • E. 

      Cannot be cross-fertilized

  • 21. 
    The correct sequence of stages of mitosis is ______.
    • A. 

      Anaphase, interphase, prophase, metaphase, telophase

    • B. 

      Interphase, prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase

    • C. 

      Metaphase, prophase, anaphase, telophase

    • D. 

      Prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase

    • E. 

      Telophase, prophase, interphase, anaphase, metaphase

  • 22. 
    HIV (human immunodeficiency virus) must use its own ______ to reproduce.
    • A. 

      Reverse transcriptase

    • B. 

      TRNA

    • C. 

      RIBOSOMES

    • D. 

      DNA polymerase

    • E. 

      RNA polymerase

  • 23. 
    Where is translation accomplished?
    • A. 

      Ribosomes

    • B. 

      Peroxisomes

    • C. 

      Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

    • D. 

      Nucleoli

    • E. 

      Lysosomes

  • 24. 
    Evidence for the spiral nature of DNA came from ______.
    • A. 

      Base rule studies

    • B. 

      Studies of disease-causing bacteria

    • C. 

      X-ray crystallography studies

    • D. 

      Transforming studies

    • E. 

      Bacteriophage studies

  • 25. 
    What protects mRNA from attack by cellular enzymes?
    • A. 

      A cap and tail

    • B. 

      The lack of RNA-digesting enzymes in the cytoplasm

    • C. 

      The removal of introns

    • D. 

      The removal of exons

    • E. 

      RNA splicing

  • 26. 
    Transcription is the ______.
    • A. 

      Manufacture of two new DNA double helices that are identical to an old DNA double helix

    • B. 

      Modification of a strand of RNA prior to the manufacture of a protein

    • C. 

      Manufacture of a strand of RNA complementary to a strand of DNA

    • D. 

      Manufacture of a new strand of DNA complementary to an old strand of DNA

    • E. 

      Manufacture of a protein based on information carried by RNA

  • 27. 
    How many amino acids are common to all living systems?
    • A. 

      10

    • B. 

      20

    • C. 

      30

    • D. 

      100

    • E. 

      1000

  • 28. 
    How can a single RNA transcript be translated into different polypeptides?
    • A. 

      There is more than one way to splice an RNA transcript.

    • B. 

      Two different genes can produce the same RNA transcript, which will then be translated differently.

    • C. 

      It does so by varying the rate at which it is broken down in the cytoplasm.

    • D. 

      There is more than one way to modify the coded polypeptide.

    • E. 

      It does so by varying the length of its tail.

  • 29. 
    The correct sequence of events occurring during transcription is ______.
    • A. 

      Elongation, initiation, termination

    • B. 

      Tailing, capping, splicing

    • C. 

      Initiation, elongation, termination

    • D. 

      Splicing, capping, tailing

    • E. 

      Capping, tailing, splicing

  • 30. 
    Which of these crosses will only produce heterozygous offspring?
    • A. 

      AA × aa

    • B. 

      Aa × aa

    • C. 

      AA × Aa

    • D. 

      Aa × aa

    • E. 

      Aa × Aa

  • 31. 
    Which of the following techniques is used to collect fetal cells during pregnancy for genetic testing?
    • A. 

      Pedigree analysis

    • B. 

      Dihybrid cross

    • C. 

      Amniocentesis

    • D. 

      Monohybrid cross

    • E. 

      Testcross

  • 32. 
    The DNA double helix is ______.
    • A. 

      Composed of adenine and guanine

    • B. 

      Composed of adenine and thymine

    • C. 

      A puzzle to geneticists

    • D. 

      Made up of two polynucleotide strands

    • E. 

      Composed of two chromosomes

  • 33. 
    What is the ultimate source of all diversity?
    • A. 

      Crossing over

    • B. 

      Natural selection

    • C. 

      Mutation

    • D. 

      Meiosis

    • E. 

      Sexual recombination

  • 34. 
    Cells communicate with one another via ______.
    • A. 

      Sound

    • B. 

      Cascades of gene activation

    • C. 

      The diffusion of RNA transcripts through adhesion junctions

    • D. 

      RNA splicing

    • E. 

      Signal transduction pathways

  • 35. 
    What is the key to the recognition of codominance?
    • A. 

      The heterozygote expresses the phenotype of both homozygotes.

    • B. 

      The phenotype of the heterozygote falls between the phenotypes of the homozygotes.

    • C. 

      The trait exhibits a continuous distribution.

    • D. 

      The dominant allele is not always expressed.

    • E. 

      The alleles affect more than one trait.

  • 36. 
    A(n) ______ is to bacteria as a ______ is to animal cells.
    • A. 

      Phage . . . prophage

    • B. 

      Provirus . . . phage

    • C. 

      Retrovirus . . . virus

    • D. 

      Prophage . . . provirus

    • E. 

      RNA virus . . . DNA virus

  • 37. 
    Who discovered the structure of DNA?
    • A. 

      Chase

    • B. 

      Pauling

    • C. 

      Watson and Crick

    • D. 

      Franklin

    • E. 

      Hershey and Chase

  • 38. 
    What is the correct order of the stages of translation?
    • A. 

      Initiation, peptide bond formation, translocation, codon recognition, termination

    • B. 

      Initiation, codon recognition, peptide bond formation, translocation, termination

    • C. 

      Initiation, translocation, codon recognition, peptide bond formation, termination

    • D. 

      Initiation, codon recognition, translocation, peptide bond formation, termination

    • E. 

      Initiation, peptide bond formation, codon recognition, translocation, termination

  • 39. 
    Which of these lifestyle choices will increase cancer risk?
    • A. 

      Quitting smoking

    • B. 

      Eating more foods such as cabbage and cauliflower

    • C. 

      A diet high in animal fat

    • D. 

      Jogging

    • E. 

      A diet high in plant fiber

  • 40. 
    Genetically modifying human ______ cells may directly affect future generations.
    • A. 

      Pancreatic

    • B. 

      Immune

    • C. 

      Gametic

    • D. 

      Somatic

    • E. 

      Intestinal

  • 41. 
    An individual who is homozygous ______.
    • A. 

      Carries two different alleles for a gene

    • B. 

      Carries two copies of the same allele for a gene

    • C. 

      Is a carrier of a genetic disorder

    • D. 

      Expresses the recessive trait

    • E. 

      Expresses the dominant trait

  • 42. 
    In bacteria, what name is given to a cluster of genes with related functions, along with their control sequences?
    • A. 

      Activator

    • B. 

      Promoter

    • C. 

      Operon

    • D. 

      Regulatory gene

    • E. 

      Exon

  • 43. 
    During replication, ______ are the enzymes responsible for joining the nucleotides of a new DNA strand together.
    • A. 

      DNases

    • B. 

      DNA polymerases

    • C. 

      DNA gyrases

    • D. 

      DNA ligases

    • E. 

      DNA helicases

  • 44. 
    In an operon, the ______ acts as an on/off switch.
    • A. 

      Repressor

    • B. 

      Promoter

    • C. 

      Regulatory gene

    • D. 

      Operator

    • E. 

      Activator

  • 45. 
    What name is given to the collection of traits exhibited by an organism?
    • A. 

      Phenotype

    • B. 

      Holotype

    • C. 

      Typology

    • D. 

      Genotype

    • E. 

      Morphology

  • 46. 
    More people die of ______ cancer than of any other cancer.
    • A. 

      Pancreatic

    • B. 

      Lung

    • C. 

      Breast

    • D. 

      Cervical

    • E. 

      Skin

  • 47. 
    Inheritance of certain genes increases the risk of getting certain cancers; thus, it can be said that ______.
    • A. 

      Most cancers are inherited

    • B. 

      These cancers are inherited as a dominant trait

    • C. 

      Mutations that occur in somatic cells can be passed from parent to offspring

    • D. 

      (for these individuals) lifestyle will have little impact on cancer risk

    • E. 

      Predisposition to these cancers is inherited

  • 48. 
    Which of the following enzymes is responsible for RNA synthesis?
    • A. 

      RNA polymerase

    • B. 

      RNase

    • C. 

      RNA ligase

    • D. 

      RNA helicase

    • E. 

      RNA gyrase

  • 49. 
    A vaccine works by ______.
    • A. 

      Preventing translation of mRNA molecules that code for disease-causing proteins

    • B. 

      Inhibiting bacterial reproduction

    • C. 

      Stimulating the immune system to develop lasting defenses

    • D. 

      Providing a temporary immunity to a pathogen

    • E. 

      Killing cells infected with a virus

  • 50. 
    Possible uses of reproductive cloning include ______.
    • A. 

      The production of organs in pigs for transplant into humans

    • B. 

      The production of potentially valuable drugs

    • C. 

      The production of genetically identical animals for experimentation

    • D. 

      Restocking populations of endangered animals

    • E. 

      All of the above.

  • 51. 
    Which of the following turns off transcription by binding to the operator?
    • A. 

      Enzymes

    • B. 

      Repressors

    • C. 

      Promoters

    • D. 

      RNA polymerase

    • E. 

      Lactose

  • 52. 
    Which of the following best defines the term transgenic animal?
    • A. 

      An animal in which a genetic defect has been corrected using recombinant DNA therapy

    • B. 

      An animal containing a gene from a another species

    • C. 

      An animal containing genes from both its parents

    • D. 

      An animal containing genes from three or more species

    • E. 

      An animal that is the first of its kind to bear a particular allele

  • 53. 
    DNA and RNA are polymers composed of ______ monomers.
    • A. 

      Nucleotide

    • B. 

      Protein

    • C. 

      Fatty acid

    • D. 

      Carbohydrate

    • E. 

      Amino acid

  • 54. 
    Bacterial RNA polymerase binds to the ______.
    • A. 

      Promoter

    • B. 

      Operator

    • C. 

      Exon

    • D. 

      Proto-oncogene

    • E. 

      Regulatory gene

  • 55. 
    Introns are ______.
    • A. 

      Expressed DNA sequences

    • B. 

      Noncoding DNA sequences

    • C. 

      DNA sequences to which activators bind

    • D. 

      The product of RNA splicing

    • E. 

      DNA sequences to which silencers bind

  • 56. 
    Restriction enzymes are obtained from ______.
    • A. 

      Archaea

    • B. 

      Retroviruses

    • C. 

      Eukaryotes

    • D. 

      DNA viruses

    • E. 

      Bacteria

  • 57. 
    Which of these is a genetically modified organism?
    • A. 

      An organism carrying genes from two different parents

    • B. 

      An organism that gestated in an artificial womb

    • C. 

      A cloned organism carrying two different alleles

    • D. 

      The first organism in which a particular mutation has appeared

    • E. 

      An organism carrying a gene that was acquired by artificial means

  • 58. 
    Which of these can act as a vector to introduce new genes into a cell?
    • A. 

      Plasmids

    • B. 

      Clones

    • C. 

      Humulin

    • D. 

      GM

    • E. 

      PCR

  • 59. 
    When plasmids are used to produce a desired protein, the ______.
    • A. 

      Bacterial genome and plasmid are inserted into the genome of the cell containing the desired gene (perhaps the cell of a plant or animal)

    • B. 

      Plasmids multiply and produce the protein outside of the bacterium

    • C. 

      Desired gene is inserted into the plasmid and the plasmid is taken up by the bacterium

    • D. 

      Bacterial chromosome is genetically engineered and the plasmid is used to help the bacterium replicate

    • E. 

      Plasmids are inserted into the main bacterial chromosome

  • 60. 
    The Human Genome Project has the potential to ______.
    • A. 

      Increase our understanding of the historical relationships among species

    • B. 

      Lead to treatments for contagious diseases

    • C. 

      Aid in solving crimes

    • D. 

      Lead to treatments for inherited diseases

    • E. 

      Play a role in all of the choices listed here

  • 61. 
    The study of the full protein sets that genomes encode is _____.
    • A. 

      Transgenics

    • B. 

      Gene therapy

    • C. 

      Proteomics

    • D. 

      Gene cloning

    • E. 

      Genomics

  • 62. 
    The modern phrasing of Beadle and Tatum's hypothesis about relationships between genes and their products is "one gene-one ______."
    • A. 

      Enzyme

    • B. 

      Polypeptide

    • C. 

      Nucleotide

    • D. 

      Protein RNA

  • 63. 
    The process of making multiple copies of a gene by inserting it into a host genome and culturing the host is an example of ______.
    • A. 

      Gene cloning

    • B. 

      Gene amplification

    • C. 

      Gene pharming

    • D. 

      Gene magnification

    • E. 

      Industrial genetic engineering

  • 64. 
    How is it that the cells in different body tissues are able to perform different functions?
    • A. 

      The cells exhibit different patterns of gene expression.

    • B. 

      The cells contain different genes.

    • C. 

      The nutrient preferences of particular tissues play a role.

    • D. 

      The age of the cells making up the tissues plays a role.

    • E. 

      The mutations that have accumulated in the cells of the different tissues control functions.

  • 65. 
    What is a difference between embryonic and adult stem cells?
    • A. 

      Embryonic stem cells are undifferentiated; adult stem cells are partially differentiated.

    • B. 

      It is easier to enucleate embryonic stem cells.

    • C. 

      Embryonic stem cells are harder to isolate than are adult stem cells.

    • D. 

      The use of embryonic stem cells raises fewer ethical issues than the use of adult stem cells.

    • E. 

      Adult stem cells are easier to grow in culture.

  • 66. 
    Ethical dilemmas raised by DNA technology and knowledge of the human genome include ______.
    • A. 

      The appropriateness of creating new plants, animals, and microorganisms

    • B. 

      The safety of GM foods

    • C. 

      The potential discrimination against people predisposed to certain diseases

    • D. 

      The potential for interfering in evolution

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 67. 
    Which enzyme is used to bind DNA fragments together?
    • A. 

      DNA polymerase

    • B. 

      Humulin

    • C. 

      Telomerase

    • D. 

      DNA ligase

    • E. 

      Restriction enzyme

  • 68. 
    "Sticky ends" are produced as a result of the action of ______.
    • A. 

      A clone

    • B. 

      Humulin

    • C. 

      A restriction enzyme

    • D. 

      DNA ligase

    • E. 

      Genomics

  • 69. 
    What name is given to a region of DNA that varies from person to person?
    • A. 

      Genetic probe

    • B. 

      Restriction fragment

    • C. 

      MonoDNA

    • D. 

      Genetic marker

    • E. 

      Codon

  • 70. 
    Which of the following is the best definition for recombinant DNA?
    • A. 

      DNA that is produced as a result of crossing over

    • B. 

      An alternate form of DNA that is the product of a mutation

    • C. 

      DNA that carries genes from two different sources

    • D. 

      DNA that results from bacterial conjugation

    • E. 

      DNA that carries a translocation

  • 71. 
    The world's first genetically engineered pharmaceutical product was ______.
    • A. 

      HGH

    • B. 

      Humulin

    • C. 

      SCID

    • D. 

      CF

    • E. 

      RFLP

  • 72. 
    At one point, you were just an undifferentiated, single cell. You are now made of many cells; some of these cells function as liver cells, some as muscle cells, some as red blood cells, while others play different roles. What name is given to the process that is responsible for this?
    • A. 

      Cleavage

    • B. 

      Carcinogenesis

    • C. 

      Cellular differentiation

    • D. 

      Morphology

    • E. 

      Regeneration

  • 73. 
    The scientific field that studies whole genomes is called ______.
    • A. 

      Molecular biology

    • B. 

      Genetic engineering

    • C. 

      Genomics

    • D. 

      Recombinant DNA

    • E. 

      Proteomics

  • 74. 
    Gel electrophoresis separates DNA fragments on the basis of differences in their ______.
    • A. 

      G:T ratio

    • B. 

      Degree of hydration

    • C. 

      Length

    • D. 

      PH

    • E. 

      A:C ratio

  • 75. 
    Nucleic acid probes are used to ______.
    • A. 

      Destroy clones that do not carry the recombinant plasmid of interest

    • B. 

      Create sticky ends

    • C. 

      Find a specific nucleotide sequence

    • D. 

      Synthesize a DNA strand complementary to a sticky end

    • E. 

      Isolate bacterial genes