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AP Psychology Midterm Review

300 Questions
AP Psychology Quizzes & Trivia
Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    The first two major "schools" of psychology were
    • A. 

      Structuralism and functionalism

    • B. 

      Behaviorism and psychoanalysis

    • C. 

      Functionalism and behaviorism

    • D. 

      Behaviorism and Gestalt psychology

  • 2. 
    The theoretical orientation that insisted on verifiability of observation was
    • A. 

      Behaviorism

    • B. 

      Structuralism

    • C. 

      Functionalism

    • D. 

      Psychoanalysis

  • 3. 
    Gestalt psychologists were primarily concerned with which of the following
    • A. 

      Perception

    • B. 

      Emotions

    • C. 

      Overt behavior

    • D. 

      Unconscious desires

  • 4. 
    According to Sigmund Freud, an individual's personality is largely determined by
    • A. 

      Forces in the unconscious

    • B. 

      Self-actualizing tendencies

    • C. 

      Forces in the environment

    • D. 

      Strivings for superiority

  • 5. 
    The most frequently occurring score in a group of scores is the
    • A. 

      Mode

    • B. 

      Mean

    • C. 

      Median

    • D. 

      Harmonic mean

  • 6. 
    The median is
    • A. 

      The score that divides a distribution of data in half

    • B. 

      The most frequently occurring score in a group of scores

    • C. 

      The arithmetic average for a group of scores

    • D. 

      Typically greater than the mean

  • 7. 
    The mean in a set of scores is
    • A. 

      The arithmetic average for a group of scores

    • B. 

      The most frequently occurring score

    • C. 

      The basis for calculating the range

    • D. 

      The score that divides a distribution of scores in half

  • 8. 
    Scores pile up at the low end of the scale in
    • A. 

      A positively skewed distribution

    • B. 

      A negatively skewed distribution

    • C. 

      Any skewed distribution

    • D. 

      A normal distribution

  • 9. 
    The standard deviation
    • A. 

      Indicates the average difference between each score in a group and the mean for that group of scores

    • B. 

      Reveals the degree of skew for a group of scores

    • C. 

      Is sensitive to scores at the extremes of a distribution of scores

    • D. 

      Is used to determine whether a data set is positively or negatively skewed

  • 10. 
    A theory is
    • A. 

      A system of interrelated ideas used to explain a set of observations

    • B. 

      A tentative statement about the relationship between two or more variables

    • C. 

      A statement of research results trhat have been proven to be correct

    • D. 

      A preliminary proposal that has yet to be tested

  • 11. 
    A hypothesis is
    • A. 

      A tentative statement about the relationship between two or more variables

    • B. 

      A random guess as to what might happen in an experiment

    • C. 

      A conclusion drawn from an experiment

    • D. 

      A system of interrelated ideas used to explain a set of observations

  • 12. 
    Hypotheses are typically expressed as
    • A. 

      Predictions

    • B. 

      Theories

    • C. 

      Variables

    • D. 

      Statistics

  • 13. 
    Researchers who were studying plant growth raised plants in two separate rooms. One room had taped conversations playing 24 hours a day; the other room was silent. The researchers found that the plants grew better in the room which had the conversations playing. In this study, the type of room (conversation or silence) would be
    • A. 

      The independent variable

    • B. 

      The dependent variable

    • C. 

      The extraneous variable

    • D. 

      A placebo

  • 14. 
    Researchers who were studying memory had participants learn a list of words after consuming a soft drink with caffeine or a decaffeinated version of the same soft drink. The researchers then counted the number of words that were recalled from the list. In this study, the type of beverage (caffeinated or decaffeinated) would be
    • A. 

      The independent variable

    • B. 

      The extraneous variable

    • C. 

      A placebo

    • D. 

      The dependent variable

  • 15. 
    A dependent variable in an experiment refers to the variable
    • A. 

      That changes value because of the systematic manipulation in the experiment

    • B. 

      Held constant across the experimental conditions

    • C. 

      Deliberately manipulated by the experimenter

    • D. 

      That the experimenter is depending on to cause something to happen in the experiment

  • 16. 
    A group of researchers want to determine if people are more likely to follow directions if the person giving the directions is in a uniform. Half the participants are directed to a parking spot by a uniformed security guard, the other half are direction to a parking spot by an individual wearing blue jeans and a t-shirt. In this study, the dependent variable would be
    • A. 

      The number of participants who park in the spot they are directed to

    • B. 

      The type of clothing worn by the person giving the directions

    • C. 

      The gender of the person driving into the parking lot

    • D. 

      The distance between the parking spot and the entrance

  • 17. 
    If we view an experiment as an attempt to establish a cause-effect relationship, the ________ variable would be the cause, and the ________ variable would be the effect.
    • A. 

      Independent; dependent

    • B. 

      Dependent; independent

    • C. 

      Control; experimental

    • D. 

      Independent; confounded

  • 18. 
    The experimental group
    • A. 

      Consists of the subjects who receive some special treatment with regard to the independent variable

    • B. 

      Consists of the subjects who receive some special treatment with regard to the dependent variable

    • C. 

      Consists of the subjects who did not receive special treatment

    • D. 

      Must be chosen so as to be as different from the control group as possible

  • 19. 
    The purpose of the control group is to
    • A. 

      Isolate the effect of the independent variable on the dependent variable

    • B. 

      Make the experiment more complex

    • C. 

      Make statistical significance more likely

    • D. 

      Isolate the effect of the dependent variable on the independent variable

  • 20. 
    A researcher wants to see if a protein-enriched diet will enhance the maze-running performance of rats. One group of rats is fed the high-protein diet for the duration of the study; the other group continues to receive ordinary rat chow. In this experiment, the group of rats that is fed the high-protein diet is _________ group; the group that receives ordinary rat chow is ________ group.
    • A. 

      An experimental; a control

    • B. 

      A control; a control

    • C. 

      A control; an experimental

    • D. 

      An experimental; an experimental

  • 21. 
    A researcher has children watch 30 minutes of violent television, and then counts the number of times they hit each other afterward in a one-hour play period as a measure of aggression. The researcher concludes that television violence influences aggression. However, this conclusion is invalid because
    • A. 

      There was no control group

    • B. 

      The study is strictly correlational

    • C. 

      Aggression wasn't operationally defined

    • D. 

      It is unethical to force children to watch violent television

  • 22. 
    A variable, other than the independent variable, that appears to have influenced the dependent variable in a study is referred to as
    • A. 

      An extraneous variable

    • B. 

      A covariate

    • C. 

      A redundant variable

    • D. 

      An inverse bias

  • 23. 
    When two variables are linked an their individual effects cannot be separated out, we speak of the variables as being
    • A. 

      Confounded variables

    • B. 

      Independent variables

    • C. 

      Dependent variables

    • D. 

      Codependent variables

  • 24. 
    Diaz conducts a decision-making experiment to determine if people reason more logically when they have more time to decide. All the participants who are under 40 are allowed 15 minutes to reach a decision about a problem; all the participants who are over 40 are allowed 20 minutes to reach a decision about the same problem. Diaz has a problem with his experimental design because
    • A. 

      The age of the participants is confounded with the independent variable

    • B. 

      There are two control groups and no experimental group

    • C. 

      The length of time allowed for the decision is confounded with the independent variable

    • D. 

      There is no dependent variable in the experiment

  • 25. 
    Random assignment of subjects occurs when
    • A. 

      All subjects have an equal chance of being assigned to any of the groups or conditions

    • B. 

      Subjects are allowed to choose which group or condition they would like to be in

    • C. 

      A different method is used to assign each subject to a group or condition

    • D. 

      All topics have an equal chance of being assigned to a particular experimenter

  • 26. 
    Dr. Kalmagura plans on introducing a new exam review procedure in his chemistry classes. To check the effectiveness of the new procedure he is going to have half of his students try the new technique for one semester, while the remaining students review in the way they have always done in the past. He asks each student to decide which of the techniques they would like to use, the new technique or the standard technique. In this example, Dr. Kalmagura's procedure illustrates
    • A. 

      The use of non-random assignment

    • B. 

      A correlational research design

    • C. 

      A double-blind research design

    • D. 

      What is meant by informed consent in research

  • 27. 
    The main advantage associated with the experimental method is
    • A. 

      Its precise control

    • B. 

      Its ability to duplicate real life in the laboratory

    • C. 

      That it can be used to explore just about everything

    • D. 

      Participants usually enjoy taking part in the study

  • 28. 
    The ability to infer a cause-and-effect relationship is associated only with the
    • A. 

      Experimental research method

    • B. 

      Correlational research method

    • C. 

      Case history research method

    • D. 

      Empirical research method

  • 29. 
    One of the disadvantages of the experimental method is
    • A. 

      The fact that experiments often can't be done for practical or ethical reasons

    • B. 

      The inability to generate cause-and-effect conclusions

    • C. 

      The length of time necessary to complete the study

    • D. 

      The fact that only one variable can be studied at a time

  • 30. 
    Which of the following is NOT a disadvantage of the experimental method of conducting research?
    • A. 

      It is virtually impossible to conduct a true experiment with human beings.

    • B. 

      It cannot be used to study certain issues.

    • C. 

      It produces artificial situations that may not be applicable to real life.

    • D. 

      It is impossible to manipulate certain variables.

  • 31. 
    In descriptive/correlational research, the investigator
    • A. 

      Systematically observes two variables to see whether there is an association between them

    • B. 

      Manipulates a variable under carefully controlled conditions and observes whether there are changed in a second variable as a result

    • C. 

      Exposes subjects to two closely related treatment conditions

    • D. 

      Simultaneously manipulates two or more independent variables

  • 32. 
    Naturalistic observation, case studies, and surveys all have in common that
    • A. 

      They do not manipulate the variables under study

    • B. 

      They do not directly observe behavior

    • C. 

      They can show casual relationships

    • D. 

      The results obtained cannot be analyzed statistically

  • 33. 
    Going to a playground for an hour each day for two weeks and recording boy-girl exchanges would be an example of
    • A. 

      A naturalistic observation

    • B. 

      A case study

    • C. 

      A survey

    • D. 

      An experiment

  • 34. 
    You are sitting on a park bench in a major metropolitan area from 7 a.m. to 7 p.m. and you note the number of people who walk by, whether or not they litter, and their gender. You are engaging in
    • A. 

      Naturalistic observation

    • B. 

      Casual observation

    • C. 

      Case study research

    • D. 

      Experimental research

  • 35. 
    An advantage of naturalistic observation is that it
    • A. 

      Allows behavior to be studied in realistic settings

    • B. 

      Approximates the experimental method

    • C. 

      Allows for cause-and-effect conclusions to be drawn

    • D. 

      Involves random assignment

  • 36. 
    Which of the following techniques is most likely to prove useful in determining why a PARTICULAR child is afraid to go to school?
    • A. 

      Case study

    • B. 

      Experiment

    • C. 

      Descriptive study

    • D. 

      Naturalistic observation

  • 37. 
    Maria plans to study the relationship between self-esteem and being raise in a single-parent or a two-parent family. She decides she must use correlational research, rather than experimental research, to investigate this problem because correlational studies
    • A. 

      Can be used to investigate factors that would be impossible to manipulate in an experimental study

    • B. 

      Tend to be more accurate than experiments

    • C. 

      Have higher internal validity than experiments when there are two dependent variables

    • D. 

      Can be used to study either positive or negative relationships, whereas experiments can only be used to study postive relationships

  • 38. 
    The two basic types of statistics are
    • A. 

      Descriptive and inferential

    • B. 

      Central tendency and variability

    • C. 

      Sampling and correlative

    • D. 

      Parametric and nonparametric

  • 39. 
    Statistics that are used to summarize and organize data are called
    • A. 

      Descriptive statistics

    • B. 

      Numerical statistics

    • C. 

      Inferential statistics

    • D. 

      Computational statistics

  • 40. 
    The score that falls exactly in the center of a distribution of scores that half the scores fall below that score and half the scores fall above it is the
    • A. 

      Median

    • B. 

      Mean

    • C. 

      Standard deviation

    • D. 

      Range

  • 41. 
    The median is
    • A. 

      The score that falls exactly in the center of a distribution

    • B. 

      The arithmetic average of the scores in a distribution

    • C. 

      The score that occurs most frequently in a distribution

    • D. 

      The difference between the largest and the smallest scores in a distribution

  • 42. 
    Your grade point average is an example of which measure of central tendency?
    • A. 

      Mean

    • B. 

      Median

    • C. 

      Mode

    • D. 

      Midpoint

  • 43. 
    The mode in a group of scores describes the ______ for that group of scores.
    • A. 

      Central tendency

    • B. 

      Association with another group of scores

    • C. 

      Halfway point

    • D. 

      Variability

  • 44. 
    When variability in a data set is large, the standard deviation will be ________; when variability is small, the standard deviation will be _________.
    • A. 

      Large; small

    • B. 

      Large; large

    • C. 

      Small; large

    • D. 

      Small; small

  • 45. 
    The correlational coefficient is a measure of
    • A. 

      The degree of relationship between two variables

    • B. 

      Central tendency

    • C. 

      The amount of variability in a data set

    • D. 

      The difference between the largest and smallest scores in a data set

  • 46. 
    Suppose a researcher discovered a +.87 correlation between the length of a person's toes and the number of shoes the person owns. In general, people who own the fewest number of shoes would have
    • A. 

      Small toes

    • B. 

      Large toes

    • C. 

      Medium-sized toes

    • D. 

      Either very small or very large toes

  • 47. 
    The FDA found that people who used a particular diet drug combination that more heart valve defects than people who had not taken the die drug combination. This suggests that the use of the diet drug combination and heart valve defects are
    • A. 

      Positively correlated

    • B. 

      Negatively correlated

    • C. 

      Independent variables

    • D. 

      Interactive variables

  • 48. 
    Imagine that the personality traits of openness and extroversion are positively correlated. If Andrea's score in openness is extremely low
    • A. 

      She would be most likely to score at the low end of the extroversion scale

    • B. 

      It is impossible to predict how she is likely to score on the extroversion scale without more information

    • C. 

      She would most likely score at the high end of the extroversion scale

    • D. 

      She would probably score close to the median on the extroversion scale

  • 49. 
    Suppose a researcher discovered a strong negative correlation between the length of people's hair and the amount of money they paid for their automobile. In general, people who paid the least amount of money for their automobile also had
    • A. 

      The longest hair

    • B. 

      Mid-length hair

    • C. 

      The shortest hair

    • D. 

      Either extremely long or extremely short hair

  • 50. 
    As the numbers of bystanders increases, people are less likely to help someone who is in distress. This suggests that the size of a crowd and helping behavior are
    • A. 

      Negatively correlated

    • B. 

      Uncorrelated

    • C. 

      Positively correlated

    • D. 

      Dependent variables

  • 51. 
    Of the following correlation coefficients, the one that would yield the LEAST accurate predictions of one variable based on the other variable would be
    • A. 

      0.00

    • B. 

      +0.99

    • C. 

      +0.17

    • D. 

      -0.49

  • 52. 
    Of the following, the correlation coefficient that indicates the weakest relationship between the two variables being measured is
    • A. 

      +0.01

    • B. 

      +0.95

    • C. 

      -0.69

    • D. 

      -4.50

  • 53. 
    Inferential statistics help us determine whether __________ played a role in an experiment.
    • A. 

      Chance

    • B. 

      A dependent variable

    • C. 

      A normal distribution

    • D. 

      Genetics

  • 54. 
    "Statistically significant" means that the results of an experiment most likely
    • A. 

      Were not due to chance

    • B. 

      Resulted from chance variations

    • C. 

      Had practical significance

    • D. 

      Were found using inferential statistics

  • 55. 
    By definition, a sample
    • A. 

      Is a subset of the population who actually participate in a research study

    • B. 

      Is that group of people to whom the conclusion of the study will apply

    • C. 

      Contains less than 50 people or animals

    • D. 

      Must only include volunteers who express interest in the study

  • 56. 
    To determine whether students would like more courses scheduled in the late afternoon and evening hours, the Student Services department sends questionnaires to 50 students selected at random from the 5,000 who are registered at the campus. In this instance, the 5,000 students who are registered at the campus would be
    • A. 

      A population

    • B. 

      A representative sample

    • C. 

      A biased sample

    • D. 

      The independent variable

  • 57. 
    To discover whether residents of a city are in favor of building a new sports stadium, the team's owner randomly selected and interviewed 500 of the city's 500,000 residents. In this instance, the 500 people that the owner interviewed would be
    • A. 

      A representative sample

    • B. 

      A biased sample

    • C. 

      A population

    • D. 

      The dependent variable

  • 58. 
    The subjects who participate in an experiment should
    • A. 

      Be carefully chosen so that they are a representative sample of the population

    • B. 

      All be chosen from the same geographical area and socioeconomic class

    • C. 

      Be allowed to choose which group they would like to be in

    • D. 

      Come from a wide range of different age groups

  • 59. 
    A sample is representative if
    • A. 

      Its composition is similar to the composition of the population

    • B. 

      Only volunteer subjects are used

    • C. 

      It is as different from the population as possible

    • D. 

      All subjects are chosen from a single, unusual segment of the population

  • 60. 
    Sampling bias is a problem because it
    • A. 

      Limits the generality of the findings

    • B. 

      Makes it impossible to use inferential statistics

    • C. 

      Makes it difficult to avoid a confounding of variables

    • D. 

      Makes the effect of the independent variable appear to be bigger than it really is

  • 61. 
    Placebo effects occur when
    • A. 

      Due to their expectations, subjects experience some change from a nonexistent or ineffective treatment

    • B. 

      The sample is not representative of the population

    • C. 

      Two variables are confounded

    • D. 

      Subjects are influenced by the social desirability bias

  • 62. 
    Dr. Limmex is trying to win FDA approval for a new drug to treat anxiety. Dr. Limmex claims that 14% of the people who took this new drug reported reduced anxiety, however other researchers claim that 14% of patients who received no treatment also report reductions in their anxiety levels. It appears that the patients who improved after Dr. Limmex's drug
    • A. 

      May have been experiencing placebo effects

    • B. 

      Had a self-report bias

    • C. 

      Were a non-representative sample

    • D. 

      Should have been placed in the control group, rather than the experimental group

  • 63. 
    In an investigation of the effects of caffeine on concentration, half the participants were given regular colas which contained caffeine and half were given decaffeinated colas. In this study, the decaffeinated colas are being used as
    • A. 

      A placebo

    • B. 

      A confounding variable

    • C. 

      A random factor

    • D. 

      The dependent variable

  • 64. 
    The social desirability bias is a tendency to answer questions about oneself
    • A. 

      In a socially approved manner

    • B. 

      By agreeing with nearly every statement

    • C. 

      By disagreeing with nearly every statement

    • D. 

      In a socially disapproved manner

  • 65. 
    The fact that many times researchers unintentionally influence the outcome of their studies implies the existence of
    • A. 

      Experimenter bias

    • B. 

      A placebo effect

    • C. 

      Sampling bias

    • D. 

      Social desirability

  • 66. 
    Experimenter bias occurs when
    • A. 

      Experimenters' beliefs in their own hypotheses affect either the subjects' behavior or their observations of the subjects

    • B. 

      Experimenters explicitly instruct the subjects to behave in a way that will be consistent with the hypothesis

    • C. 

      Experimenters desire to make a favorable impression on their subjects

    • D. 

      Experimenters conduct their studies in a completely objective manner

  • 67. 
    One method to control for experimenter bias effects in research is to use
    • A. 

      A double-blind procedure

    • B. 

      A socially desirable procedure

    • C. 

      Reverse control groups

    • D. 

      A non-representative sample

  • 68. 
    The experimental procedure in which both the experimenter and subject are unaware of who is in the experimental and control group is referred to as the
    • A. 

      Double-blind procedure

    • B. 

      Placebo control procedure

    • C. 

      Stereotaxic procedure

    • D. 

      Single-blind procedure

  • 69. 
    Scarlett is a graduate student who is observing children playing together after watching a film. She knows that some children saw a film that contained graphic scenes of violence and some children saw a non-violent film, but she doesn't know which film each child she is observing watched. In this case, Scarlett is recording data for
    • A. 

      A double-blind research study

    • B. 

      A study with two independent variables

    • C. 

      An unethical research study

    • D. 

      A correlational study with confounded variables

  • 70. 
    Which of the following statements is TRUE?
    • A. 

      Deception has been fairly common in psychological research since the 1960s.

    • B. 

      Deception has never been used in psychological research.

    • C. 

      Although deception has been used in the past, it has recently been banned by the American Psychological Association.

    • D. 

      In recent years, there has been a steady increase in the use of deception in psychological research.

  • 71. 
    The cells that provide structural support and insulation for neurons are called
    • A. 

      Glia

    • B. 

      Somata

    • C. 

      Neuromodulators

    • D. 

      Dendrites

  • 72. 
    Glia cells
    • A. 

      Provide structural support for neurons

    • B. 

      Release neuromodulators

    • C. 

      Release neurotransmitters

    • D. 

      Form the primary components of the spinal cord

  • 73. 
    The cells of the nervous system that do the work of receiving, integrating, and transmitting information are the
    • A. 

      Neurons

    • B. 

      Glia

    • C. 

      Neuroblasts

    • D. 

      Neurilemma

  • 74. 
    Which of the following is NOT one of the main functions of neurons?
    • A. 

      Generating information

    • B. 

      Transmitting information

    • C. 

      Receiving information

    • D. 

      Integrating information

  • 75. 
    The basic parts of a neuron are
    • A. 

      Cell body, axon, dendrites

    • B. 

      Vesicles, terminal buttons, synapse

    • C. 

      Myelin, nodes, axon terminals

    • D. 

      Hindbrain, midbrain, forebrain

  • 76. 
    ______ receive information from other neurons; ______ transmit information to other neurons.
    • A. 

      Dendrites; axons

    • B. 

      Axons; synapses

    • C. 

      Synapses; dendrites

    • D. 

      Axons; dendrites

  • 77. 
    Exchange of information between neurons takes place at the
    • A. 

      Synapse

    • B. 

      Axon

    • C. 

      Cell body

    • D. 

      Myelin sheath

  • 78. 
    The insulating material that encases some axons is referred to as
    • A. 

      Myelin sheath

    • B. 

      Soma

    • C. 

      Corpus callosum

    • D. 

      Dendritic tree

  • 79. 
    Faster neural impulses occur in
    • A. 

      Insulated or myelinated axons

    • B. 

      Uninsulated or unmyelinated axons

    • C. 

      Shorter axons

    • D. 

      Neurons with extensive dendrites

  • 80. 
    Which of the following is the correct sequence of structures through which information flows in a neuron?
    • A. 

      Dendrites to cell body to axon

    • B. 

      Axon to cell body to dendrites

    • C. 

      Glia to dendrites to axon

    • D. 

      Dendrites to axon to glia

  • 81. 
    The ______ is the junction between two neurons.
    • A. 

      Synapse

    • B. 

      Terminal button

    • C. 

      Postsynaptic membrane

    • D. 

      Myelin sheath

  • 82. 
    Neurotransmitters are secreted from the
    • A. 

      Terminal buttons

    • B. 

      Myelin sheath

    • C. 

      Neuromodulators

    • D. 

      Dendrites

  • 83. 
    A neural impulse is initiated when a neuron's charge
    • A. 

      Momentarily becomes less negative, or even positive

    • B. 

      Momentarily changes from positive to negative

    • C. 

      Momentarily changes from positive to negative

    • D. 

      Suddenly becomes even more negative than it was during the resting state

  • 84. 
    The minimum length of time between action potentials is determined by
    • A. 

      The absolute refractory period

    • B. 

      Transduction capacity

    • C. 

      Transduction incapacity

    • D. 

      The relative threshold period

  • 85. 
    A chemical that transfers information from one neuron to another is referred to as a(n)
    • A. 

      Neurotransmitter

    • B. 

      Synaptic vesicle

    • C. 

      Enzyme

    • D. 

      Neural impulse

  • 86. 
    Neurotransmitters are stored in
    • A. 

      Synaptic vesicles

    • B. 

      Mitochondria

    • C. 

      Dendrites

    • D. 

      Nacelles

  • 87. 
    Synaptic vesicles are structures that
    • A. 

      Store neurotransmitters

    • B. 

      Control the speed with which a neuron fires

    • C. 

      Manufacture myelin

    • D. 

      Provide energy for a neuron's activity

  • 88. 
    An electric potential that increases the likelihood that the postsynaptic neuron will fire is called an
    • A. 

      Excitatory postsynaptic potential

    • B. 

      All-or-none potential

    • C. 

      Inhibitory postsynaptic potential

    • D. 

      Excitatory presynaptic potential

  • 89. 
    Which of the following is the correct sequence of steps through which neurotransmitters progress during synaptic transmission?
    • A. 

      Synthesis, release, binding, inactivation, reuptake

    • B. 

      Release, synthesis, binding, reuptake, inactivation

    • C. 

      Binding, synthesis, release, inactivation, reuptake

    • D. 

      Synthesis, binding, release, reuptake, inactivation

  • 90. 
    Which of the following neurotransmitters is primarily involved in the activation of motor neurons controlling skeletal muscles?
    • A. 

      Acetylcholine

    • B. 

      GABA

    • C. 

      Dopamine

    • D. 

      Serotonin

  • 91. 
    An agonist
    • A. 

      Mimics the action of a neurotransmitter

    • B. 

      Blocks the action of neurotransmitters

    • C. 

      Prevents reuptake of neurotransmitters

    • D. 

      Extends the absolute refractory period of neural transmission

  • 92. 
    When curare blocks the action of acetylcholine by occupying its receptor sites, it is acting as
    • A. 

      An antagonist

    • B. 

      An agonist

    • C. 

      An agonist

    • D. 

      A placebo

  • 93. 
    Parkinson's disease appears to be a function of
    • A. 

      Degeneration of neurons that use dopamine as a neurotransmitter

    • B. 

      Damage to glia cells

    • C. 

      Agonistic chemical action on the receptor sites of the cerebrum

    • D. 

      Enzymatic deficiency that does not allow for the proper cleanup of waste products in the nervous system

  • 94. 
    The regulation of the sleep-wake cycle has been linked to
    • A. 

      Serotonin

    • B. 

      Amino acid release cycles

    • C. 

      Gamma-aminobutyric acid

    • D. 

      Phenylaline hydroxylase

  • 95. 
    Which of the following has been implicated in pain alleviation?
    • A. 

      Endorphins

    • B. 

      Dopamine

    • C. 

      Acetylcholine

    • D. 

      Norepinephrine

  • 96. 
    A family of chemicals produced in the body that resemble the opiates are the
    • A. 

      Endorphins

    • B. 

      Dopamines

    • C. 

      Biogenic amines

    • D. 

      Acetylcholines

  • 97. 
    The two most basic divisions of the nervous system are
    • A. 

      The central nervous system and the peripheral nervous system

    • B. 

      The sympathetic division and the parasympathetic division

    • C. 

      The somatic nervous system and the autonomic nervous system

    • D. 

      The brain and the spinal cord

  • 98. 
    Nerves outside the skull and spine comprise the
    • A. 

      Peripheral nervous system

    • B. 

      Vagus nervous system

    • C. 

      Skeletal nervous system

    • D. 

      Vascular nervous system

  • 99. 
    The somatic nervous system and the autonomic nervous system comprise the
    • A. 

      Peripheral nervous system

    • B. 

      Central nervous system

    • C. 

      Skeletal nervous system

    • D. 

      Afferent nervous system

  • 100. 
    ________ nerves receive information, while ________ nerves carry out instructions.
    • A. 

      Afferent; efferent

    • B. 

      Motor; sensory

    • C. 

      Somatic; autonomic

    • D. 

      Autonomic; skeletal

  • 101. 
    The movement of voluntary skeletal muscles involved in doing calisthenics is under the control of the
    • A. 

      Somatic nervous system

    • B. 

      Parasympathetic nervous system

    • C. 

      Sympathetic nervous system

    • D. 

      Autonomic nervous system

  • 102. 
    When you are walking, the brain sends messages to the skeletal muscles in the legs by way of
    • A. 

      Efferent fibers

    • B. 

      Sensory fibers

    • C. 

      Afferent fibers

    • D. 

      Central fibers

  • 103. 
    Internal functions such as heartbeat, breathing, and stomach contractions are controlled by the _______ nervous system.
    • A. 

      Autonomic

    • B. 

      Central

    • C. 

      Somatic

    • D. 

      Endocrine

  • 104. 
    The part of the nervous system that controls digestion and flow of blood is the
    • A. 

      Autonomic nervous system

    • B. 

      Somatic nervous system

    • C. 

      Motor nervous system

    • D. 

      Sensory nervous system

  • 105. 
    The conservation of body resources, including blood pressure reduction and the promotion of digestion, is handled by the
    • A. 

      Parasympathetic division

    • B. 

      Somatic division

    • C. 

      Sympathetic division

    • D. 

      Unsympathetic division

  • 106. 
    The _______ is most likely to be in control of bodily processes during periods of rest and recovery for the body.
    • A. 

      Parasympathetic nervous system

    • B. 

      Somatic nervous system

    • C. 

      Sympathetic nervous system

    • D. 

      Hypothalamus

  • 107. 
    The _______ nervous system mobilizes the body when one needs to exert tremendous energy (such as fleeing from an attacker).
    • A. 

      Sympathetic

    • B. 

      Somatic

    • C. 

      Central

    • D. 

      Parasympathetic

  • 108. 
    The blood-brain barrier is a semipermeable membrane-like mechanism that
    • A. 

      Stops some chemicals from passing the bloodstream to the brain

    • B. 

      Keeps neurotransmitters from entering the bloodstream

    • C. 

      Prevents ions in the blood from entering the brain

    • D. 

      Regulates the flow of blood to the brain and spinal cord

  • 109. 
    Which of the following devices monitors the electrical activity of the brain?
    • A. 

      An electroencephalograph

    • B. 

      A stereotaxic recorder

    • C. 

      An electrocardiograph

    • D. 

      Any of these can be used

  • 110. 
    Destroying a piece of the brain tissue to observe its effect on behavior is referred to as which of the following?
    • A. 

      Lesioning

    • B. 

      ESB

    • C. 

      Tumor ligation

    • D. 

      Stereotaxic inversion

  • 111. 
    Electrical stimulation of its lateral hypothalamus causes an animal to overeat and become obese. Therefore, we would expect that lesioning the lateral hypothalamus would produce
    • A. 

      Undereating and weight loss

    • B. 

      Overeating and obesity

    • C. 

      No effect on eating or body weight

    • D. 

      Alternating periods of overeating and undereating

  • 112. 
    Which of the following brain-imaging techniques is the MOST widely used?
    • A. 

      CT scanning

    • B. 

      PET scanning

    • C. 

      MRI scanning

    • D. 

      EEG recording

  • 113. 
    The technique in which radioactively tagged chemicals are introduced into the brain and then equipment monitors where the chemicals appear in the brain is
    • A. 

      Positron emission tomography

    • B. 

      Computerized tomography

    • C. 

      Magnetic resonance imaging

    • D. 

      Electrographic tomography

  • 114. 
    Which of the following techniques can be used with the functioning, working brain?
    • A. 

      EEG, PET, or MRI can all be used

    • B. 

      EEG only

    • C. 

      PET only

    • D. 

      MRI only

  • 115. 
    Which of the following structures in NOT part of the hindbrain
    • A. 

      Thalamus

    • B. 

      Cerebellum

    • C. 

      Medulla

    • D. 

      Pons

  • 116. 
    The brain structure that controls unconscious but essential functions such as breathing and circulation is the
    • A. 

      Medulla

    • B. 

      Pons

    • C. 

      Cerebellum

    • D. 

      Corpus callosum

  • 117. 
    Shot in the head, the victim died instantly because the bullet entered the ________, that portion of the hindbrain that regulates breathing.
    • A. 

      Medulla

    • B. 

      Cerebellum

    • C. 

      Thalamus

    • D. 

      Pons

  • 118. 
    The primary function of the cerebellum is to
    • A. 

      Coordinate body movement

    • B. 

      Process visual information

    • C. 

      Control blood pressure

    • D. 

      Store semantic memory

  • 119. 
    The hindbrain structure involved with sleep and arousal is the
    • A. 

      Pons

    • B. 

      Hypothalamus

    • C. 

      Cerebrum

    • D. 

      Thalamus

  • 120. 
    A person might end up in a coma if the following area of the brain is damaged
    • A. 

      Reticular formation

    • B. 

      Medulla

    • C. 

      Hypothalamus

    • D. 

      Pons

  • 121. 
    Which brain structure appears to play an active role in integrating sensory information?
    • A. 

      Thalamus

    • B. 

      Hypothalamus

    • C. 

      Limbic system

    • D. 

      Cerebrum

  • 122. 
    The function of the hypothalamus is to regulate
    • A. 

      Hunger, thirst, and body temperature

    • B. 

      Hunger

    • C. 

      Thirst

    • D. 

      Body temperature

  • 123. 
    If a key part of the ______ is destroyed, an animal will lose all interest in food and may well starve to death.
    • A. 

      Hypothalamus

    • B. 

      Medulla

    • C. 

      Cerebellum

    • D. 

      Thalamus

  • 124. 
    Pleasure centers in the brain appear to be concentrated most heavily in the
    • A. 

      Limbic system

    • B. 

      Endocrine system

    • C. 

      Corpus callosum

    • D. 

      Brainstem

  • 125. 
    Which of the following brain structures is most closely associated with the regulation of emotion?
    • A. 

      Limbic system

    • B. 

      Cerebellum

    • C. 

      Reticular formation

    • D. 

      Brainstem

  • 126. 
    The ______ is the largest and most complex part of the human brain.
    • A. 

      Cerebrum

    • B. 

      Medulla

    • C. 

      Cerebellum

    • D. 

      Limbic system

  • 127. 
    Which of the following is responsible for the human ability to engage in higher mental activity such as thinking and philosophizing?
    • A. 

      The cerebrum

    • B. 

      The corpus callosum

    • C. 

      The cerebellum

    • D. 

      The hypothalamus

  • 128. 
    The structure that connects the two cerebral hemispheres is the
    • A. 

      Corpus callosum

    • B. 

      Pineal gland

    • C. 

      Thalamus

    • D. 

      Parietal lobe

  • 129. 
    Which of the following is NOT considered a lobe of the cerebral cortex?
    • A. 

      Cranial

    • B. 

      Temporal

    • C. 

      Parietal

    • D. 

      Occipital

  • 130. 
    The lobe of the brain with the primary responsibility for processing bodily sensations is the
    • A. 

      Parietal lobe

    • B. 

      Occipital lobe

    • C. 

      Frontal lobe

    • D. 

      Thalamic lobe

  • 131. 
    The primary processing for auditory sensations is in the _________ lobe of the cerebrum.
    • A. 

      Temporal

    • B. 

      Parietal

    • C. 

      Frontal

    • D. 

      Occipital

  • 132. 
    If you have damaged your temporal lobe, you can expect to have problems with which of the following?
    • A. 

      Hearing

    • B. 

      Tasting

    • C. 

      Thinking

    • D. 

      Seeing

  • 133. 
    When this lobe of the brain is electrically stimulated, people report physical sensations, as if they had been touched, for example, on the arm.
    • A. 

      Parietal

    • B. 

      Frontal

    • C. 

      Temporal

    • D. 

      Occipital

  • 134. 
    • A. 

      The diversity of movements of the body area

    • B. 

      The size of the body area

    • C. 

      The location of the body area

    • D. 

      None of these factors

  • 135. 
    People who suffer damage to the _______ often show deficits in attention, planning, and getting organized.
    • A. 

      Prefrontal cortex

    • B. 

      Corpus callosum

    • C. 

      Hindbrain

    • D. 

      Medial forebrain bundle

  • 136. 
    The area of the frontal lobe that plays an important role in the production of speech is called
    • A. 

      Broca's area

    • B. 

      Wernicke's area

    • C. 

      Cannon's area

    • D. 

      Sperry's area

  • 137. 
    The brain structure that controls your ability to understand speech is
    • A. 

      Wernicke's area

    • B. 

      The thalamus

    • C. 

      The occipital lobe of the cerebral cortex

    • D. 

      Broca's area

  • 138. 
    The production of language for most persons resides in the
    • A. 

      Left cerebral hemisphere

    • B. 

      Posterior cerebral hemisphere

    • C. 

      Central cerebral hemisphere

    • D. 

      Right cerebral hemisphere

  • 139. 
    A split-brain person has a severed
    • A. 

      Corpus callosum

    • B. 

      Cerebral cortex

    • C. 

      Cerebellum

    • D. 

      Medulla

  • 140. 
    If the left hemisphere of the brain is damaged, which part of the body would be most directly affected?
    • A. 

      The right half

    • B. 

      The left half

    • C. 

      The upper portion

    • D. 

      The entire body

  • 141. 
    For MOST persons the _______ cerebral hemisphere controls _______.
    • A. 

      Left; language production

    • B. 

      Left; the right cerebral hemisphere

    • C. 

      Right; the left cerebral hemisphere

    • D. 

      Right; motivation for sexual behavior

  • 142. 
    The system of glands that secret hormones directly into the bloodstream is known as the
    • A. 

      Endocrine system

    • B. 

      Atopic system

    • C. 

      Exocrine system

    • D. 

      Blood-brain system

  • 143. 
    The endocrine system
    • A. 

      Secretes hormones

    • B. 

      Connects the two cerebral hemispheres of the brain

    • C. 

      Manufactures myelin

    • D. 

      Forms the basis of reflexive behaviors

  • 144. 
    A hormone is
    • A. 

      A chemical secreted into the blood by a gland

    • B. 

      A brain structure below the hypothalamus

    • C. 

      A location in the brain where a specific memory is stored

    • D. 

      None of these

  • 145. 
    The master gland of the endocrine system is the
    • A. 

      Pituitary gland

    • B. 

      Thyroid gland

    • C. 

      Adrenal gland

    • D. 

      Pancreas

  • 146. 
    When a dominant gene is paired with a recessive gene, the gene pair is said to be
    • A. 

      Heterozygous

    • B. 

      Homozygous

    • C. 

      Phenotypic

    • D. 

      Polygenic

  • 147. 
    The specific pattern of genes inherited at conception defines an individual's
    • A. 

      Genotype

    • B. 

      Phenotype

    • C. 

      Polygenic inheritance

    • D. 

      Stereotype

  • 148. 
    We wold expect the greatest degree of phenotypic similarity among
    • A. 

      Identical twins

    • B. 

      Fraternal twins

    • C. 

      Siblings

    • D. 

      Parents and their children

  • 149. 
    Technically, your absolute threshold is the point which you can detect
    • A. 

      A stimulus 50 percent of the time

    • B. 

      A stimulus 75 percent of the time

    • C. 

      Any stimulus set point

    • D. 

      Any stimulus that registers on sensory memory

  • 150. 
    Sensory adaptation refers to
    • A. 

      A decline in sensitivity after prolonged stimulation

    • B. 

      A weakening of a neurotransmitter substance

    • C. 

      A perceptual inversion principle

    • D. 

      An increase in sensitivity after prolonged stimulation

  • 151. 
    The wavelength of light mainly affects our perception of
    • A. 

      Color

    • B. 

      Brightness

    • C. 

      Saturation

    • D. 

      Light purity

  • 152. 
    The lens in the eye
    • A. 

      Bends entering light rays and focuses them onto the retina

    • B. 

      Converts light energy into neural energy

    • C. 

      Controls the amount of light entering the eye

    • D. 

      Is the part of the eye that gives it its color

  • 153. 
    The structure that controls the size of the pupil is the
    • A. 

      Iris

    • B. 

      Lens

    • C. 

      Ciliary muscle

    • D. 

      Vitreous humor

  • 154. 
    The amount of light entering the eye is regulated by changes in the size of the
    • A. 

      Pupil

    • B. 

      Lens

    • C. 

      Cornea

    • D. 

      Retina

  • 155. 
    The optic disk is
    • A. 

      Where the optic nerve exits the retina

    • B. 

      The brain structure responsible for the merging of visual fields from both eyes

    • C. 

      Where light enters the eye

    • D. 

      Another term for the lens

  • 156. 
    The blind spot in the eye is
    • A. 

      Where the optic nerve exits the back of the eye

    • B. 

      Where photoreceptor cells do not "bleach"

    • C. 

      The point at which ganglion cells synapse with bipolar cells

    • D. 

      What leads to color blindness

  • 157. 
    The primary visual cortex is located in the
    • A. 

      Occipital lobes

    • B. 

      Temporal lobes

    • C. 

      Parietal lobes

    • D. 

      Frontal lobes

  • 158. 
    Hering's opponent-process theory suggests that receptors are linked antagonistically in pairs. His opposed pairs were
    • A. 

      Red-green; yellow-blue; black-white

    • B. 

      Red-yellow; blue-green; black-white

    • C. 

      Red-black; yellow-white; green-blue

    • D. 

      Yellow-green; red-blue; black-white

  • 159. 
    The ability to rapidly process words in reading depends most on
    • A. 

      Top-down processing

    • B. 

      Bottom-up processing

    • C. 

      Bottom-to-top processing

    • D. 

      Lateral processing

  • 160. 
    The successive blinking on and off of the lights on the neon sign gave the impression of beer filling a glass. This illusion of motion is the
    • A. 

      Phi phenomenon

    • B. 

      Constancy principle

    • C. 

      Common-fate principle

    • D. 

      Motion parallax effect

  • 161. 
    Natalie sat on her porch looking out at the field of soybeans. The fact that Natalie perceived the soybean plants as being grouped into a series of separate rows is consistent with the Gestalt principle of
    • A. 

      Proximity

    • B. 

      Closure

    • C. 

      Simplicity

    • D. 

      Similarity

  • 162. 
    We often perceive a series of dots on a printed form as a "solid" line because of the Gestalt principle of
    • A. 

      Closure

    • B. 

      Constancy

    • C. 

      Similarity

    • D. 

      Symmetry

  • 163. 
    If you are looking at an object such as a book, the object itself can be referred to as
    • A. 

      A distal stimulus

    • B. 

      A proximal stimulus

    • C. 

      An approximate stimulus

    • D. 

      A distilled stimulus

  • 164. 
    Sydney had an operate on his right eye and has to wear an eye patch for three weeks. While he is wearing the eye patch, Sydney will lose his ability to
    • A. 

      Utilize binocular depth cues

    • B. 

      Perceive colors accurately

    • C. 

      Utilize any depth cues

    • D. 

      Perceive motion parallax

  • 165. 
    The retina is to the eye as the
    • A. 

      Cochlea is to the ear

    • B. 

      Eardrum is to the ear

    • C. 

      Ossicles are to the ear

    • D. 

      Pinna is to the ear

  • 166. 
    According to place theory, the ability to hear pitch corresponds to
    • A. 

      Vibrations occurring at specific locations down the length of the basilar membrane

    • B. 

      Specific hair cells being stimulated along the length of the semicircular canals

    • C. 

      The entire cochlea vibrating at a speed equivalent to the wavelengths the ear is being stimulated with

    • D. 

      Differential movement of specific ossicles

  • 167. 
    The volley principle suggests that
    • A. 

      Groups of auditory neurons are able to fire neural impulses in rapid succession, sending signals that exceed the firing rate of any single neuron

    • B. 

      Spreading effects from one semicircular canal to another interact to produce pitch perception for frequencies higher that 5,000 Hz

    • C. 

      Ossicles of the middle ear "echo" or "volley" auditory transmission back and forth to stimulate hair cells

    • D. 

      Sound localization is an interpreation of time discrepancies between the time when the same sound reaches each ear

  • 168. 
    Pitch perception can best be explained by _______ for very low-pitched sounds, ________ for very high-pitched sounds, and ________ for pitches in middle range.
    • A. 

      Frequency theory; place theory; both theories

    • B. 

      Place theory; frequency theory; place theory

    • C. 

      Frequency theory; both theories; place theory

    • D. 

      Place theory; both theories; frequency theory

  • 169. 
    The sense associated with the perception of taste is referred to as the
    • A. 

      Gustatory system

    • B. 

      Olfactory system

    • C. 

      Vagus system

    • D. 

      Vestibular system

  • 170. 
    Generally, the four basic tastes are considered to be
    • A. 

      Salty, sweet, sour, and bitter

    • B. 

      Salty, spicy, bland, and sour

    • C. 

      Sour, bitter, bland, and hot

    • D. 

      Sweet, sour, spicy, and smooth

  • 171. 
    Of the following, the only sensory system that does not project upward to the cerebral cortex through the thalamus is
    • A. 

      Olfaction

    • B. 

      Vision

    • C. 

      Hearing

    • D. 

      Gustation

  • 172. 
    The kinesthetic system relates to
    • A. 

      Maintaining the relative position of body parts

    • B. 

      The location of the body in space

    • C. 

      The sense of forward acceleration

    • D. 

      Sensing body movement, as in a car

  • 173. 
    Which of the following parts of the ear has a role in maintaining balance?
    • A. 

      The semicircular canals

    • B. 

      The cochlea

    • C. 

      The basilar membrane

    • D. 

      The ossicles

  • 174. 
    The door-in-the-face technique involves
    • A. 

      Making a very large request that is likely to be turned down to increase the chances that people will agree to a smaller request later

    • B. 

      Making a very small request that is likely to be accepted to increase the chances that people will agree to a large request later

    • C. 

      Concealing some of the costs associated with a request until after the request has been accepted

    • D. 

      Adding incentives to a request that has been turned down until people finally agree to go along with the initial request

  • 175. 
    Light is converted into neural energy that travels to the brain to produce visual experience by the
    • A. 

      Retina

    • B. 

      Pupil

    • C. 

      Lens

    • D. 

      Optic disk

  • 176. 
    Night and peripheral vision depend mainly on _____, while daylight and acute vision depend mainly on _____.
    • A. 

      Rod cells; cone cells

    • B. 

      Cone cells; rod cells

    • C. 

      Rod cells; bipolar cells

    • D. 

      Bipolar cells; cone cells

  • 177. 
    Which of the following can cause disruption of your vestibular system?
    • A. 

      Riding on an amusement park thrill ride that spins you around

    • B. 

      Having an upset stomach

    • C. 

      Having a cold that temporarily robs you of your sense of taste

    • D. 

      Temporarily losing sensation in your arm because you slept on it

  • 178. 
    Imagine that biologists have discovered an animal that has eyes very similar to human eyes, but that the only receptor cells in the retina are rods; there are no cones. Based on what is known about human vision, you might expect that this animal would
    • A. 

      Have no color vision

    • B. 

      Have poor vision in low illumination

    • C. 

      Have poor peripheral vision

    • D. 

      Be able to detect extremely fine details

  • 179. 
    "Parallel processing" in the visual pathways suggests that separate neural channels
    • A. 

      Extract different information from visual inputs

    • B. 

      Do the same things at different locations

    • C. 

      Send the same information to many different places

    • D. 

      Provide safety backups for each other

  • 180. 
    Cells in the visual cortex that respond selectively to specific features of complex stimuli are called
    • A. 

      Feature detectors

    • B. 

      Ganglion cells

    • C. 

      Selective detectors

    • D. 

      Hypocomplex cells

  • 181. 
    Television sets are able to recreate the entire visible spectrum by additively mixing three primary colors. This process is similar to the view of human color vision called
    • A. 

      Trichromatic theory

    • B. 

      Opponent-process theory

    • C. 

      Saturation theory

    • D. 

      Complementary color theory

  • 182. 
    According to one theory of color vision, colors are signaled in pairs by neurons that fire faster to one color and slower to another color. This theory is known as the
    • A. 

      Opponent process theory

    • B. 

      Trichromatic theory

    • C. 

      Signal-detection theory

    • D. 

      Feature-detection theory

  • 183. 
    A perceptual set implies
    • A. 

      People often see what they expect to see

    • B. 

      Visual perception is based on a bottom-up processing strategy

    • C. 

      Feature analysis is a "hard-wired" process

    • D. 

      The focused-attention stage of processing is often overridden by preattentive processes

  • 184. 
    The Gestalt principle of proximity refers to the idea that
    • A. 

      Objects nearer to each other are seen as forming a unit

    • B. 

      People tend to gravitate toward a common interaction distance

    • C. 

      Center-surround cells are closer fire more often

    • D. 

      Perception occurs in discrete time frames

  • 185. 
    The perception associated with the amplitude of a sound wave is
    • A. 

      Loudness

    • B. 

      Timbre

    • C. 

      Tonal quality

    • D. 

      Richness

  • 186. 
    The structure of the ear that transduces sound vibrations into nerve impulses is the
    • A. 

      Cochlea

    • B. 

      Oval window

    • C. 

      Temporal lobe

    • D. 

      Stirrup

  • 187. 
    The visual cortex is to the auditory cortex as the occipital lobe is to the
    • A. 

      Temporal lobe

    • B. 

      Occipital lobe

    • C. 

      Frontal lobe

    • D. 

      Parietal lobe

  • 188. 
    Which theory of color vision best explains why the color of an afterimage is the complement of the original color?
    • A. 

      The opponent process theory

    • B. 

      The trichromatic theory

    • C. 

      Both theories explain this phenomenon equally well

    • D. 

      Neither theory adequately explains this phenomenon

  • 189. 
    Consciousness includes awareness of
    • A. 

      External events, internal sensations, and self

    • B. 

      External events only

    • C. 

      Internal sensations only

    • D. 

      Self only

  • 190. 
    An electroencephalograph is a device that measures
    • A. 

      Electrical activity of the brain

    • B. 

      Glucose metabolism in the brain

    • C. 

      Muscle tension in the body

    • D. 

      Respiration rates as an index of arousal

  • 191. 
    An EEG would indicate primarily _____ activity in a person who is meditating with eyes closed.
    • A. 

      Alpha

    • B. 

      Beta

    • C. 

      Delta

    • D. 

      Theta

  • 192. 
    The EEG pattern associated with normal, waking, alert states is
    • A. 

      Beta

    • B. 

      Gamma

    • C. 

      Alpha

    • D. 

      Delta

  • 193. 
    The delta wave EEG pattern is associated with
    • A. 

      Deep sleep

    • B. 

      Dreaming

    • C. 

      A waking state

    • D. 

      None of these states

  • 194. 
    A circadian rhythm involves a biological cycle that fluctuates
    • A. 

      Daily

    • B. 

      Every 8 hours

    • C. 

      Monthly

    • D. 

      Yearly

  • 195. 
    Stage 1 sleep is represented by EEG brain-wave patterns referred to as
    • A. 

      Alpha waves

    • B. 

      REM waves

    • C. 

      Synchronistic waves

    • D. 

      Zeta waves

  • 196. 
    Sleep spindles, which appear against a background of mixed, mostly lower frequency EEG activity, are characteristic of
    • A. 

      Stage 2 sleep

    • B. 

      Stage 1 sleep

    • C. 

      Stage 4 sleep

    • D. 

      REM sleep

  • 197. 
    Which of the following is (are) characteristic of REM sleep?
    • A. 

      Dreams, rapid eye movements, and relaxed muscle tone

    • B. 

      Dreams

    • C. 

      Rapid eye movements

    • D. 

      Relaxed muscle tone

  • 198. 
    A rapid EEG (beta), dreaming, rapid eye movements, and profound muscle relaxation go with
    • A. 

      REM sleep

    • B. 

      Stage 1 sleep

    • C. 

      Stage 2 sleep

    • D. 

      Relaxed wakefulness

  • 199. 
    Dreaming typically goes with which sleep stage?
    • A. 

      REM

    • B. 

      Stage 1

    • C. 

      Stage 2

    • D. 

      Stage 4

  • 200. 
    REM sleep is also known as paradoxical sleep because
    • A. 

      Brain activity during REM sleep is similar to that observed in wide-awake subjects

    • B. 

      Subjects in REM sleep are deeply asleep, but are extremely easy to awaken

    • C. 

      Muscular tension during REM sleep is similar to that observed in wide-awake subjects

    • D. 

      The eyes are open even though the person is sleeping

  • 201. 
    Voluntary muscle activity
    • A. 

      Is at its lowest during REM sleep

    • B. 

      Is at its highest during REM sleep

    • C. 

      Does not occur in NREM sleep

    • D. 

      Does not occur during either REM or NREM sleep

  • 202. 
    Which of the following is NOT associated with REM sleep?
    • A. 

      Heightened muscle tension

    • B. 

      Dreaming

    • C. 

      Irregular breathing

    • D. 

      Irregular pulse rate

  • 203. 
    The brain structure that appears to be the MOST important to sleep and wakefulness is the
    • A. 

      Reticular formation

    • B. 

      Hippocampus

    • C. 

      Cerebellum

    • D. 

      Corpus callosum

  • 204. 
    When a person has chronic problems not getting adequate sleep, he or she is said to suffer from which of the following?
    • A. 

      Insomnia

    • B. 

      Hypersomnia

    • C. 

      Somnambulism

    • D. 

      Any of these could be the problem

  • 205. 
    A disease characterized by sudden and irresistible onsets of sleep during normal waking periods is
    • A. 

      Narcolepsy

    • B. 

      Epilepsy

    • C. 

      Hypersomnia

    • D. 

      Sleep agnosia

  • 206. 
    Sleep apnea is characterized by
    • A. 

      A reflexive gasping of air during sleep

    • B. 

      A sudden, irresistible urge to sleep during normal waking hours

    • C. 

      An extremely low rate of REM

    • D. 

      "night terrors"

  • 207. 
    Which of the following usually occurs in REM sleep?
    • A. 

      Nightmares

    • B. 

      Night terrors

    • C. 

      Sleepwalking

    • D. 

      Enuresis

  • 208. 
    The idea that dreams are times when people can think creatively about what is going on in their lives and then use that information later when awake is consistent with the _____ view of dreams.
    • A. 

      Problem-solving

    • B. 

      Wish fulfillment

    • C. 

      Synergistic

    • D. 

      James-Verduin

  • 209. 
    The idea that dreams are the cortex's attempt to make sense out of bursts of general firing from lower brain centers is the core of _____ theory of dreaming.
    • A. 

      The activation-synthesis

    • B. 

      The wish fulfillment

    • C. 

      The problem-solving

    • D. 

      No current

  • 210. 
    Which of the following is NOT a common effect of hypnosis?
    • A. 

      Total loss of personal control

    • B. 

      Auditory and visual hallucinations

    • C. 

      The reduction of inhibitions

    • D. 

      Some resistance to pain

  • 211. 
    Which of the following statements regarding the EEG patterns of a hypnotized person is MOST accurate?
    • A. 

      The patterns are similar to those of an awake person.

    • B. 

      The patterns are similar to those of someone in REM sleep.

    • C. 

      The patterns are similar to those of someone who has been diagnosed with a multiple personality.

    • D. 

      The patterns are similar to those of someone who has been diagnosed with a multiple personality.

  • 212. 
    Dissociation refers to
    • A. 

      The splitting of mental processes into two separate, simultaneous streams of awareness

    • B. 

      A loss of inhibition by hypnotized subjects

    • C. 

      A hypnotized subject's willingness to act out the hypnotist's suggestions

    • D. 

      Role playing by hypnotized subjects in response to situational cues

  • 213. 
    Research has shown that meditation can produce a physiological state similar to
    • A. 

      Relaxation

    • B. 

      The REM stage of sleep

    • C. 

      That produced by hypnosis

    • D. 

      A drug-induced trance

  • 214. 
    Robert has just taken a drug that has made him feel euphoric. He has probably taken
    • A. 

      A narcotic, a hallucinogen, or a sedative

    • B. 

      A narcotic

    • C. 

      A hallucinogen

    • D. 

      A sedative

  • 215. 
    Which of the following does NOT belong with the others?
    • A. 

      Cocaine

    • B. 

      LSD

    • C. 

      Psilocybin

    • D. 

      Mescaline

  • 216. 
    Caffeine is to alcohol as
    • A. 

      Stimulant is to depressant

    • B. 

      Opiate is to stimulant

    • C. 

      Stimulant is to opiate

    • D. 

      Opiate is to sedative

  • 217. 
    The MOST widely used recreational drug in the United States is
    • A. 

      Alcohol

    • B. 

      Cocaine

    • C. 

      Marijuana

    • D. 

      The barbiturates

  • 218. 
    Depressant drugs have been found to
    • A. 

      Facilitate falling asleep, disrupt the normal sleep cycle, and reduce REM sleep

    • B. 

      Facilitate falling asleep

    • C. 

      Disrupt the normal sleep cycle

    • D. 

      Reduce REM sleep

  • 219. 
    Which of the following is generally associated with non-REM sleep?
    • A. 

      Night terrors

    • B. 

      Rapid eye movements

    • C. 

      Dreams

    • D. 

      Nightmares

  • 220. 
    Which brain wave is probably operating while you are taking this quiz?
    • A. 

      Beta

    • B. 

      Alpha

    • C. 

      Theta

    • D. 

      Delta

  • 221. 
    The circadian rhythm operates around a
    • A. 

      24-hour cycle

    • B. 

      1-year cycle

    • C. 

      28-day cycle

    • D. 

      90-minute cycle

  • 222. 
    The most vivid dreams generally occur
    • A. 

      During REM sleep

    • B. 

      During NREM sleep

    • C. 

      During the early hours of sleep

    • D. 

      When alpha brain waves are present

  • 223. 
    Severing the ascending reticular activating system in cats caused them to
    • A. 

      Remain in continuous sleep

    • B. 

      Become very aggressive

    • C. 

      Become very fearful

    • D. 

      Remain in continuous wakefulness

  • 224. 
    When a neutral stimulus acquires the capacity to evoke a response that was originally evoke by another stimulus, the process is
    • A. 

      Classical conditioning

    • B. 

      Operant conditioning

    • C. 

      Instrumental conditioning

    • D. 

      Skinnerian conditioning

  • 225. 
    In Pavlov's original experiment on classical conditioning, the unconditioned response (UCR) was
    • A. 

      Salivation elicited by meat powder

    • B. 

      The sound of a tone

    • C. 

      Salivation elicited by a tone

    • D. 

      The presentation of meat powder following a tone

  • 226. 
    In classical conditioning, the stimulus that naturally evokes an unlearned response is the
    • A. 

      Unconditioned stimulus

    • B. 

      Conditioned stimulus

    • C. 

      Unconditioned reinforcer

    • D. 

      Conditioned reinforcer

  • 227. 
    In classical conditioning, the stimulus that is originally neutral in regard to the response to be learned is the
    • A. 

      Conditioned stimulus

    • B. 

      Unconditioned stimulus

    • C. 

      Unconditioned response

    • D. 

      Conditioned response

  • 228. 
    A conditioned stimulus is
    • A. 

      A previously neutral stimulus that has, through conditioning, acquired the capacity to elicit a conditioned response

    • B. 

      A stimulus that elicits an unconditioned response without previous conditioning

    • C. 

      An unlearned reaction that occurs without previous conditioning

    • D. 

      A learned reaction that occurs because of previous conditioning

  • 229. 
    Darrel was dancing with his new girlfriend at an Elvis tribute. When the band started playing "Can't Help Falling in Love with You" his girlfriend gave him a long, passionate kiss, which Darrel found very enjoyable. Now Darrel finds that every time he hears "Can't Stop Falling in Love with You" on the radio, he becomes mildly excited. In this example, the long, passionate kiss is
    • A. 

      An unconditioned stimulus

    • B. 

      A conditioned stimulus

    • C. 

      An unconditioned response

    • D. 

      A conditioned response

  • 230. 
    Charity used to really enjoy potato salad and at a family reunion she ate a large helping. Unfortunately the potato sald had not been kept cold, and Charity became quite ill after eating it. Now she finds that even the sight of potatoes in the grocery store can make her feel sick to her stomach. In this example, the sick feeling Charity experiences when she sees potatoes in the grocery store is
    • A. 

      A conditioned response

    • B. 

      An unconditioned response

    • C. 

      An unconditioned stimulus

    • D. 

      A conditioned stimulus

  • 231. 
    Classical conditioning could account for how a child learns to
    • A. 

      Love the smell of her father's aftershave

    • B. 

      Talk

    • C. 

      Play baseball

    • D. 

      Walk

  • 232. 
    Mary woke up one night with a spider dangling in front of her face. She screamed, and from that point on she could not stand to be near spiders. Mary's fear of spiders is based on
    • A. 

      Classical conditioning

    • B. 

      A response-outcome association

    • C. 

      Observational learning

    • D. 

      Operant conditioning

  • 233. 
    Eduardo's mother always wore Chantille perfum and when she would hug him or hold him close he could smell that scent. Today, whenever he catches a whiff of Chantille perfum, it makes him feel calm and relaxed. The learning process that could best account for Eduardo's response to the scent of Chantille perfume is
    • A. 

      Classical conditioning

    • B. 

      Operant conditioning

    • C. 

      Observational learning

    • D. 

      Delayed reinforcement

  • 234. 
    Frederick cringes every time he hears a dentist's drill, even when he is sitting in the waiting room of his dentist's office. In this example, the pain of dental drilling is
    • A. 

      An unconditioned stimulus

    • B. 

      A conditioned response

    • C. 

      An unconditioned response

    • D. 

      A conditioned stimulus

  • 235. 
    The initial stage of learning a response is called
    • A. 

      Acquisition

    • B. 

      Extinction

    • C. 

      Contiguity

    • D. 

      Conditioning

  • 236. 
    The best temporal arrangement for establishing a new conditioned response is
    • A. 

      Short-delayed conditioning

    • B. 

      Simultaneous conditioning

    • C. 

      Trace conditioning

    • D. 

      Backward conditioning

  • 237. 
    The continued presentation of the CS without the UCS will result in the gradual disappearance of the CR. This phenomenon is known as
    • A. 

      Extinction

    • B. 

      Inhibition

    • C. 

      Suppression

    • D. 

      Conditioned forgetting

  • 238. 
    In order to weaken or eliminate a conditioned response you would
    • A. 

      Present the CS alone several times

    • B. 

      Present the UCS before the CS several times

    • C. 

      Present the UCS alone several times

    • D. 

      Present extra pairings of the CS and UCS

  • 239. 
    The reappearance of a conditioned response after extinction and a period of rest is called
    • A. 

      Spontaneous recovery

    • B. 

      Disinhibition

    • C. 

      Reconditioning

    • D. 

      Stimulus generalization

  • 240. 
    When a conditioned response shows spontaneous recovery, the rejuvenated response typically
    • A. 

      Is weaker than the previously conditioned response

    • B. 

      Is stronger than the previously conditioned response

    • C. 

      Occurs before the conditioned stimulus

    • D. 

      Changes to an unconditioned stimulus

  • 241. 
    Stimulus generalization occurs when
    • A. 

      An organism responds to new stimuli that are similar to the original conditioned stimulus

    • B. 

      There is a temporal association between two stimuli

    • C. 

      An organism fails to respond to stimuli that are similar to the original stimulus used in conditioning

    • D. 

      An unconditioned stimulus fails to elicit the unconditioned response

  • 242. 
    When Diana was three years old she became terrified when the neighbor's budgie bird kept flying near her head. Today she is afraid of all birds, including robins, pidgeons, and blue jays. Diana's fear illustrates the classical conditioning process of
    • A. 

      Stimulus generalization

    • B. 

      Instinctive drift

    • C. 

      Stimulus discrimination

    • D. 

      Negative avoidance

  • 243. 
    In the Little Albert experiment on conditioned emotional responses, the unconditioned stimulus was
    • A. 

      The loud noise

    • B. 

      The rabbit

    • C. 

      The rat

    • D. 

      The fear reaction

  • 244. 
    Operant conditioning is a type of learning in which
    • A. 

      Responses come to be controlled by their consequences

    • B. 

      An organism's responding is influenced by the observation of other's behavior

    • C. 

      Involuntary responses are slowly replaced by voluntary responses

    • D. 

      A neutral stimulus acquires the ability to elicit a response that was originally elicited by another stimulus

  • 245. 
    According to Skinner, a stimulus is a reinforcer if it
    • A. 

      Increases the probability of the response that produced it

    • B. 

      Reduces a biological need

    • C. 

      Induces a biological need

    • D. 

      Decreases the probability of the response that produced it

  • 246. 
    The process of selectively reinforcing responses that are closer and closer approximations of some desired response is called
    • A. 

      Shaping

    • B. 

      Stimulus discrimination

    • C. 

      Selection

    • D. 

      Step-wise conditioning

  • 247. 
    The technique used to teach animal complex tricks, such as teaching pidgeons to play ping-pong, is
    • A. 

      Shaping

    • B. 

      Respondent conditioning

    • C. 

      Continuous reinforcement

    • D. 

      Programming

  • 248. 
    In general, the longer the delay between a response and reinforcement,
    • A. 

      The more slowly conditioning proceeds

    • B. 

      The faster conditioning proceeds

    • C. 

      The more effective the reinforcer becomes

    • D. 

      The more likely it is that stimulus generalization will occur

  • 249. 
    Food is an example of ______; praise is an example of ______.
    • A. 

      A primary reinforcer; a secondary reinforcer

    • B. 

      A primary reinforcer; a primary reinforcer

    • C. 

      A secondary reinforcer; a secondary reinforcer

    • D. 

      A secondary reinforcer; a primary reinforcer

  • 250. 
    Primary reinforcers ______, while secondary reinforcers ______.
    • A. 

      Satisfy biological needs; depend on learning

    • B. 

      Depend on learning; satisfy biological needs

    • C. 

      Are associated with classical conditioning; are associated with operant conditioning

    • D. 

      Are associated with operant conditioning; are associated with classical conditioning

  • 251. 
    Assuming the reinforcer is the sound of the rattle, a baby's response of shaking a rattle is reinforced according to which type of schedule?
    • A. 

      Continuous reinforcement

    • B. 

      Fixed-interval

    • C. 

      Variable-interval

    • D. 

      Variable-ratio

  • 252. 
    Katrina is trying to put a dollar bill into a vending machine in her office. Sometimes the machine will take a dollar bill on the first try, other times it can take up to five or six tries before the dollar bill is finally accepted. In this example, inserting a dollar bill into the vending machine is reinforced on
    • A. 

      An intermittent reinforcement schedule

    • B. 

      A continuous reinforcement schedule

    • C. 

      A noncontingent reinforcement schedule

    • D. 

      A short-delay reinforcement schedule

  • 253. 
    The behavior that would be most difficult to extinguish would be one that was
    • A. 

      Reinforced intermittently

    • B. 

      Reinforced every time it occurred

    • C. 

      Shaped

    • D. 

      Reinforced by your parents

  • 254. 
    Marie works in a dress factory where she earns $10 for every three dresses she hems. Marie is paid on a
    • A. 

      Fixed-ratio schedule

    • B. 

      Variable-ratio schedule

    • C. 

      Fixed-interval schedule

    • D. 

      Variable-interval schedule

  • 255. 
    In a variable-ratio schedule, the reinforcer is given
    • A. 

      After a variable number of nonreinforced responses

    • B. 

      After a fixed number or nonreinforced responses

    • C. 

      For the first response that occurs after a fixed amount of time has elapsed

    • D. 

      For the first response that occurs after a variable amount of time has elapsed

  • 256. 
    Shaquille is a professional basketball player. He never knows for sure which of his shots will result in a basket, but the more shots he takes the more baskets he makes. In this example, Shaquille's shooting is being reinforced on
    • A. 

      A variable-ratio schedule

    • B. 

      A fixed-ratio schedule

    • C. 

      A fixed-interval schedule

    • D. 

      A variable-interval schedule

  • 257. 
    • A. 

      A fixed-interval schedule

    • B. 

      A fixed-ratio schedule

    • C. 

      A variable-ratio schedule

    • D. 

      A variable-interval schedule

  • 258. 
    Josiah checks his electronic mail several times throughout the day. Some days there is mail each time he checks; sometimes several days go by with no new messages arriving. In this example, Josiah's behavior of checking his electronic mail is being reinforced on
    • A. 

      A variable-interval schedule

    • B. 

      A fixed-ratio schedule

    • C. 

      A fixed-interval schedule

    • D. 

      A variable-ratio schedule

  • 259. 
    Positive reinforcement involves
    • A. 

      The presentation of a pleasant stimulus

    • B. 

      The presentation of an unpleasant stimulus

    • C. 

      The removal of a pleasant stimulus

    • D. 

      The removal of an unpleasant stimulus

  • 260. 
    Negative reinforcement involves
    • A. 

      The removal of an unpleasant stimulus

    • B. 

      The presentation of a pleasant stimulus

    • C. 

      The presentation of an unpleasant stimulus

    • D. 

      The removal of a pleasant stimulus

  • 261. 
    Your teenaged daughter has not cleaned her room in a month. You go in and begin yelling at her to clean her room. She begins to clean up, and you stop yelling. Your daughter's cleaning behavior can be viewed as responding to
    • A. 

      Negative reinforcement

    • B. 

      Classical conditioning

    • C. 

      Positive reinforcement

    • D. 

      Punishers

  • 262. 
    Which of the following is an example of negative reinforcement?
    • A. 

      Stopping nagging a child when he finally cleans his room

    • B. 

      Giving a child a sweet dessert as a reward for finishing his dinner

    • C. 

      Paying a child $1 for each "A" received on her report card

    • D. 

      Cutting a child's TV time by 30 minutes each time she "talks back"

  • 263. 
    A student who studies in order to earn high grades is working for ______; a student who studies in order to avoid low grades is working for _______.
    • A. 

      Positive reinforcement; negative reinforcement

    • B. 

      Negative reinforcement; positive reinforcement

    • C. 

      Negative reinforcement; negative reinforcement

    • D. 

      Positive reinforcement; positive reinforcement

  • 264. 
    Negative reinforcement ______ the rate of a response; punishment _______ the rate of a response.
    • A. 

      Increases; decreases

    • B. 

      Decreases; increases

    • C. 

      Increases; increases

    • D. 

      Decreases; decreases

  • 265. 
    The difference between punishment and negative reinforcement is that
    • A. 

      Punishment weakens behavior while negative reinforcement strengthens behavior

    • B. 

      Punishment strengthens negative behavior while negative reinforcement weakens negative behavior

    • C. 

      Punishment weakens negative behavior while negative reinforcement strengthens negative behavior

    • D. 

      There is no difference between punishment and negative reinforcement in their effects on behavior

  • 266. 
    Which of the following statements about punishment is NOT correct?
    • A. 

      Punishment occurs whenever a response terminates an aversive condition.

    • B. 

      Punishment may take the form of removal of a rewarding stimulus.

    • C. 

      Punishment may take the form of giving aversive stimulation after a response.

    • D. 

      Punishment, by definition, weakens preceding behavior.

  • 267. 
    The three basic processes in memory are
    • A. 

      Encoding, storage, and retrieval

    • B. 

      Acoustic, semantic, and eidetic

    • C. 

      Recall, recognition, and relearning

    • D. 

      Sensation, perception, and cognition

  • 268. 
    In order for a memory to be stored, it must first be
    • A. 

      Encoded

    • B. 

      Ablated

    • C. 

      Modeled

    • D. 

      Retrieved

  • 269. 
    If you were attempt to recall a memory, the memory process you would be using is
    • A. 

      Retrieval

    • B. 

      Encoding

    • C. 

      Storage

    • D. 

      Acquisition

  • 270. 
    The order of the basic memory processes in which information enters our memory system and is used later is
    • A. 

      Encoding > storage > retrieval

    • B. 

      Encoding > retrieval > storage

    • C. 

      Storage > retrieval > encoding

    • D. 

      Acquisition > encoding > storage

  • 271. 
    "Early-selection" theories of attention propose that
    • A. 

      Stimuli are screened out before the brain processes the meaning of sensory input

    • B. 

      Stimuli are screened out after the brain processes the meaning of sensory input

    • C. 

      Attention is distributed equally among all stimulus inputs that are above threshold

    • D. 

      Stimuli are screened out before they reach the sense organs

  • 272. 
    A memory code that emphasizes the physical structure of the stimulus is called a(n) _____ code.
    • A. 

      Structural

    • B. 

      Phonemic

    • C. 

      Semantic

    • D. 

      Episodic

  • 273. 
    ________ code is a memory code that emphasizes the meaning of verbal input.
    • A. 

      A semantic

    • B. 

      A structural

    • C. 

      A phonemic

    • D. 

      An episodic

  • 274. 
    Which of the following sequences represents progressively deeper levels of processing?
    • A. 

      Structural, phonemic, semantic

    • B. 

      Phonemic, semantic, structural

    • C. 

      Structural, semantic, phonemic

    • D. 

      Semantic, phonemic, structural

  • 275. 
    Which level of processing results in longer-lasting memory codes?
    • A. 

      Semantic encoding

    • B. 

      Structural encoding

    • C. 

      Mnemonic encoding

    • D. 

      Phonemic encoding

  • 276. 
    The dual-coding theory argues that memory is
    • A. 

      Enhanced by forming either semantic or visual codes

    • B. 

      Composed of declarative and procedural elements

    • C. 

      Composed of episodic and semantic codes

    • D. 

      Composed of schematic and nonschematic elements

  • 277. 
    With _______, personally relevant information is recalled better in the future relative to other forms of encoding.
    • A. 

      Self-referent encoding

    • B. 

      Structural encoding

    • C. 

      Mnemonics

    • D. 

      Semantics

  • 278. 
    The type of memory where information is stored for the shortest period of time is
    • A. 

      Sensory memory

    • B. 

      Short-term memory

    • C. 

      Long-term memory

    • D. 

      Working memory

  • 279. 
    Which of the following statements regarding short-term memory (STM) is NOT accurate?
    • A. 

      The capacity of STM is limited to about 30 items of information.

    • B. 

      STM can maintain unrehearsed information for about 20 seconds.

    • C. 

      STM is the second component of the memory system.

    • D. 

      Through rehearsal, information in STM can be stored indefinitely.

  • 280. 
    Information can be maintained indefinitely in short-term memory through the process of
    • A. 

      Rehearsal

    • B. 

      Retrieval

    • C. 

      Encoding

    • D. 

      Chunking

  • 281. 
    The "magic number seven" describes the
    • A. 

      Capacity of STM

    • B. 

      Duration of STM

    • C. 

      Number of units that may be encoded in LTM at one time

    • D. 

      Most frequently occuring number on a set of dice

  • 282. 
    Which of the following lists of letters would be easier for a person to maintain in short-term memory?
    • A. 

      ABC CIA IRS XYZ FCC

    • B. 

      CVX JLA DQS KRO GWN

    • C. 

      FL IJN A MKQR DW XGUH

    • D. 

      All of these could be kept in short-term memory with equal ease.

  • 283. 
    The memory system that has an almost unlimited storage capacity is
    • A. 

      Long-term memory

    • B. 

      Time-based memory

    • C. 

      Working memory

    • D. 

      Auditory sensory memory

  • 284. 
    Flashbulb memories are
    • A. 

      Unusually vivid and detailed recollections of momentous events

    • B. 

      Memories for information

    • C. 

      Memories for actions, skills, and operations

    • D. 

      Chronological recollections of personal experiences

  • 285. 
    A schema is
    • A. 

      An organized general knowledge structure

    • B. 

      A specific type of representative heuristic

    • C. 

      A specific type of availability heuristic

    • D. 

      A peculiar form of amnesia

  • 286. 
    Scripts are
    • A. 

      Schemata about procedures we use in daily life

    • B. 

      Storage locations for memories

    • C. 

      The associations we have with the denotative meaning of a word

    • D. 

      Long-term sequences of actions that result from effective decision making

  • 287. 
    The "tip of the tongue" phenomenon refers to
    • A. 

      Feeling like you know something but are unable to recall it

    • B. 

      Saying something before you've had a chance to think about it

    • C. 

      Dreamlike material that you recall during alpha-wave presleep

    • D. 

      A mnemonic device to help you store information in long-term memory

  • 288. 
    Pseudoforgetting is viewed as a function of
    • A. 

      Lack of attention

    • B. 

      Interference effects

    • C. 

      Hippocampal damage

    • D. 

      Insufficient retrieval cues

  • 289. 
    Decay theory suggests that forgetting is due to
    • A. 

      Impermanent storage

    • B. 

      Ineffective encoding

    • C. 

      Retrieval failure

    • D. 

      Interference effects

  • 290. 
    ______ occurs when new information impairs the retention of previously learned information.
    • A. 

      Retroactive interference

    • B. 

      Proactive interference

    • C. 

      Retrograde amnesia

    • D. 

      Anterograde amnesia

  • 291. 
    Proactive interference occurs when
    • A. 

      Previously learned information interferes with the retention of new information

    • B. 

      New information impairs the retention of previously learned information

    • C. 

      A person loses memories of events that occurred prior to a head injury

    • D. 

      A person loses memories of events that occur after a head injury

  • 292. 
    Which of the following terms is synonymous with "motivated forgetting"?
    • A. 

      Repression

    • B. 

      Regression

    • C. 

      Sublimation

    • D. 

      Rationalization

  • 293. 
    You move to a new house and memorize your new phone number. Now you can't remember your old phone number. This is an example of
    • A. 

      Retroactive interference

    • B. 

      Proactive interference

    • C. 

      Retrograde amnesia

    • D. 

      Motivated forgetting

  • 294. 
    Retrograde amnesia refers to an inability to
    • A. 

      Recall old memories

    • B. 

      Form or recall new memories

    • C. 

      Recall events about oneself

    • D. 

      Do all of these things

  • 295. 
    Dave is thrown from his motorcycle and suffers a severe blow to the head, resulting in a loss of memory for events that occurred before the accident. This is an example of
    • A. 

      Retrograde amnesia

    • B. 

      Anterograde amnesia

    • C. 

      Motivated forgetting

    • D. 

      Retroactive interference

  • 296. 
    Damage to which of the following is most likely to cause deficits in long-term memory?
    • A. 

      Hippocampal region

    • B. 

      Limbic system

    • C. 

      Sympathetic nervous system

    • D. 

      Broca's area

  • 297. 
    Memory of "chronological" and "dated" personal experiences is referred to as
    • A. 

      Episodic memory

    • B. 

      Semantic memory

    • C. 

      Declarative memory

    • D. 

      Implicit memory

  • 298. 
    General knowledge that is NOT tied to the time when the information was learned is contained in ______ memory.
    • A. 

      Semantic

    • B. 

      Episodic

    • C. 

      Implicit

    • D. 

      Procedural

  • 299. 
    The _______ effect occurs when subjects show better recall for items at the beginning and end of a list than for items in the middle.
    • A. 

      Serial-position

    • B. 

      Clustering

    • C. 

      Elaboration

    • D. 

      Consolidation

  • 300. 
    According to the serial-position effect, subjects tend to show better recall for items ______ of a list than for items ______.
    • A. 

      At the beginning and end; in the middle.

    • B. 

      In the middle; at the beginning and end.

    • C. 

      At the end; at the beginning.

    • D. 

      In the middle; at the beginning.

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