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A&p II (heart, Blood & Blood Vessels)

115 Questions
Blood Quizzes & Trivia
Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Functions of the blood include all of the following, except
    • A. 

      Transport of nutrients and wastes

    • B. 

      Generation of body heat

    • C. 

      Restricting fluid loss

    • D. 

      Regulation of pH and electrolyte concentration of interstitial fluids

  • 2. 
    The combination of plasma and formed elements is called
    • A. 

      Serum

    • B. 

      Lymph

    • C. 

      Whole blood

    • D. 

      Extracellular fluid

    • E. 

      Packed blood

  • 3. 
    Fresh whole blood for testing in a laboratory is usually collected from
    • A. 

      The heart

    • B. 

      A superficial artery

    • C. 

      A superficial vein

    • D. 

      A capillary

    • E. 

      An arteriole

  • 4. 
    When checking the efficiency of gas exchange, it may be necessary to draw a blood sample from
    • A. 

      The heart

    • B. 

      The lungs

    • C. 

      An artery

    • D. 

      A vein

    • E. 

      Capillaries

  • 5. 
    Each of the following is a characteristic of whole blood, except a
    • A. 

      Temperature approximately 38 degrees Celsius

    • B. 

      Viscosity about the same as water

    • C. 

      PH of 7.4

    • D. 

      Bright red color if taken from an artery

    • E. 

      Dull red color if taken from a vein

  • 6. 
    The total volume of blood in the body of a 70-kg man is approximately _____ liters
    • A. 

      25–30

    • B. 

      10–15

    • C. 

      5–6

    • D. 

      2–4

    • E. 

      Less than 2

  • 7. 
    A person has a low blood volume is said to be
    • A. 

      Hypovolemic

    • B. 

      Hypervolemic

    • C. 

      Normovolemic

    • D. 

      Isovolemic

    • E. 

      Antivolemic

  • 8. 
    The chief difference between plasma and interstitial fluid involves the
    • A. 

      Amount of water

    • B. 

      Quantity of electrolytes

    • C. 

      Quantity of organic wastes

    • D. 

      Concentration of dissolved oxygen and proteins

    • E. 

      Concentration of glucose

  • 9. 
    Plasma proteins that are necessary for blood clotting are the
    • A. 

      Albumins

    • B. 

      Fibrinogens

    • C. 

      Immunoglobulins

    • D. 

      Metalloproteins

    • E. 

      Lipoproteins

  • 10. 
    Stem cells responsible for the production of most white blood cells originate in the
    • A. 

      Liver

    • B. 

      Thymus

    • C. 

      Spleen

    • D. 

      Red bone marrow

    • E. 

      Lymph tissue

  • 11. 
    Which of the following statements concerning red blood cells is false?
    • A. 

      Red cells are biconcave discs

    • B. 

      Red cells lack mitochondria

    • C. 

      Red cells have a large nucleus

    • D. 

      Red cells are specialized for carrying oxygen

    • E. 

      Red cells can form stacks called rouleaux

  • 12. 
    The average lifespan of a red blood cell is
    • A. 

      1 week

    • B. 

      1 month

    • C. 

      4 months

    • D. 

      6 months

    • E. 

      1 year

  • 13. 
    The function of red blood cells is to
    • A. 

      Remove carbon dioxide from active cells

    • B. 

      Remove nitrogenous wastes from active tissues

    • C. 

      Carry oxygen from the lungs to the body’s cells

    • D. 

      Carry nutrients from the digestive system to the body’s cells

    • E. 

      Defend the body against infectious organisms

  • 14. 
    More than 95 percent of the protein in a red blood cell is
    • A. 

      Albumin

    • B. 

      Porphyrin

    • C. 

      Hemoglobin

    • D. 

      Immunoglobulin

    • E. 

      Fibrinogen

  • 15. 
    _____ is a condition in which the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood is reduced
    • A. 

      Polycythemia

    • B. 

      Leukemia

    • C. 

      Anemia

    • D. 

      Leukopenia

    • E. 

      Thrombocytopenia

  • 16. 
    A condition in which the hematocrit is elevated and the blood volume is normal would be
    • A. 

      Polycythemia

    • B. 

      Leukocytosis

    • C. 

      Thrombocytosis

    • D. 

      Anemia

    • E. 

      Leukemia

  • 17. 
    A red blood cell that contains normal amounts of hemoglobin would be called
    • A. 

      Hyperchromic

    • B. 

      Normochromic

    • C. 

      Hypochromic

    • D. 

      Normocytic

    • E. 

      Macrocytic

  • 18. 
    The waste product bilirubin is produced from
    • A. 

      Globin chains of hemoglobin

    • B. 

      Portions of heme molecules that contain iron

    • C. 

      Portions of heme molecules that do not contain iron

    • D. 

      Iron found in hemoglobin molecules

    • E. 

      Abnormal proteins found in red blood cells

  • 19. 
    Most of the iron that is removed from degraded hemoglobin is
    • A. 

      Excreted by the kidneys

    • B. 

      Excreted by the liver

    • C. 

      Excreted by the intestines

    • D. 

      Recycled to the bone marrow

    • E. 

      Stored in yellow bone marrow

  • 20. 
    In adults, erythropoiesis primarily takes place in
    • A. 

      The liver

    • B. 

      Yellow bone marrow

    • C. 

      Myeloid tissue.(red bone marrow)

    • D. 

      The spleen

    • E. 

      The kidneys

  • 21. 
    The process of red blood cell production is called
    • A. 

      Erythrocytosis

    • B. 

      Erythropenia

    • C. 

      Hemocytosis

    • D. 

      Erythropoiesis

    • E. 

      Hematopenia

  • 22. 
    Erythrocytes are formed from stem cells called
    • A. 

      Hemocytoblasts

    • B. 

      Reticulocytes

    • C. 

      Band cells

    • D. 

      Myeloid cells

    • E. 

      Pronormoblasts

  • 23. 
    Erythropoiesis increases when
    • A. 

      Oxygen levels in the blood increase

    • B. 

      Oxygen levels in the blood decrease

    • C. 

      Carbon dioxide levels in the blood increase

    • D. 

      Carbon dioxide levels in the blood decrease

    • E. 

      Protein levels in the blood increase

  • 24. 
    The percentage of whole blood occupied by cellular elements is the
    • A. 

      Viscosity

    • B. 

      Specific gravity

    • C. 

      Packed volume

    • D. 

      Hematocrit

    • E. 

      Differential cell count

  • 25. 
    A normal adult hematocrit would be
    • A. 

      100

    • B. 

      75

    • C. 

      66

    • D. 

      45

    • E. 

      10

  • 26. 
    A person’s blood type is determined by the
    • A. 

      Size of the red blood cells

    • B. 

      Shape of the red blood cells

    • C. 

      Chemical character of the hemoglobin

    • D. 

      Presence or absence of specific molecules on the cell membrane

    • E. 

      Number of specific molecules on the cell membrane

  • 27. 
    All of the following are true of neutrophils, except that they are
    • A. 

      Granular leukocytes

    • B. 

      Phagocytic

    • C. 

      Also known as polymorphonuclear leukocytes

    • D. 

      Important in coagulation

    • E. 

      Active in fighting bacterial infections

  • 28. 
    The most numerous white blood cells in peripheral circulation are the
    • A. 

      Neutrophils

    • B. 

      Eosinophils

    • C. 

      Basophils

    • D. 

      Lymphocytes

    • E. 

      Monocytes

  • 29. 
    White blood cells that release histamine at the site of an injury are
    • A. 

      Neutrophils

    • B. 

      Eosinophils

    • C. 

      Basophils

    • D. 

      Lymphocytes

    • E. 

      Monocytes

  • 30. 
    _____ are large phagocytic white cells that spend most of their time outside the blood as fixed and free phagocytic cells
    • A. 

      Neutrophils

    • B. 

      Eosinophils

    • C. 

      Basophils

    • D. 

      Lymphocytes

    • E. 

      Monocytes

  • 31. 
    The white blood cells that are important in producing antibodies are the
    • A. 

      Neutrophils

    • B. 

      Eosinophils

    • C. 

      Basophils

    • D. 

      Lymphocytes

    • E. 

      Monocytes

  • 32. 
    • A. 

      Neutrophils

    • B. 

      Eosinophils

    • C. 

      Basophils

    • D. 

      Lymphocytes

    • E. 

      Monocytes

  • 33. 
    Platelets function in all of the following, except
    • A. 

      Dissolving a formed clot

    • B. 

      Forming temporary patches in injured areas

    • C. 

      Contraction after clot formation

    • D. 

      Initiating the clotting process

    • E. 

      Transporting chemicals important for clotting

  • 34. 
    Platelets are formed from cells in the bone marrow called
    • A. 

      Erythroblasts

    • B. 

      Normoblasts

    • C. 

      Megakaryocytes

    • D. 

      Myeloblasts

    • E. 

      Lymphoblasts

  • 35. 
    Platelets are
    • A. 

      Large cells that lack a nucleus

    • B. 

      Small cells that lack a nucleus

    • C. 

      Large cells with a prominent, indented nucleus

    • D. 

      Small cells with a many-shaped nucleus

    • E. 

      Fragments of large megakaryocyte cells

  • 36. 
    Od returning to the heart from the systemic circuit first enters the
    • A. 

      Right atrium

    • B. 

      Right ventricle

    • C. 

      Left atrium

    • D. 

      Left ventricle

    • E. 

      Conus arteriosus

  • 37. 
    Blood returning to the heart from the pulmonary circuit first enters the
    • A. 

      Right atrium

    • B. 

      Right ventricle

    • C. 

      Left atrium

    • D. 

      Left ventricle

    • E. 

      Conus arteriosus

  • 38. 
    The expandable extension of the atrium is the
    • A. 

      Ventricle

    • B. 

      Coronary sinus

    • C. 

      Coronary sulcus

    • D. 

      Auricle

    • E. 

      Interatrial septum

  • 39. 
    The coronary sulcus is a groove that
    • A. 

      Marks the border between the atria and ventricles

    • B. 

      Marks the boundary line between the right and left ventricles

    • C. 

      Marks the boundary line between the right and left atria

    • D. 

      Separates the atrioventricular valves from the atria

    • E. 

      Separates the coronary arteries from the coronary veins

  • 40. 
    Contractions of the papillary muscles
    • A. 

      Close the atrioventricular valves

    • B. 

      Close the semilunar valves

    • C. 

      Eject blood from the ventricles.

    • D. 

      Prevent the atrioventricular valves from reversing into the atria

    • E. 

      Eject blood from the atria into the ventricles

  • 41. 
    The visceral pericardium is the same as the
    • A. 

      Mediastinum

    • B. 

      Parietal pericardium

    • C. 

      Epicardium

    • D. 

      Myocardium

    • E. 

      Endocardium

  • 42. 
    The right ventricle pumps blood to the
    • A. 

      Lungs

    • B. 

      Left ventricle

    • C. 

      Systemic circuit

    • D. 

      Right atrium

  • 43. 
    The left ventricle pumps blood to the
    • A. 

      Lungs

    • B. 

      Right ventricle

    • C. 

      Right atrium

    • D. 

      Systemic circuit

    • E. 

      Pulmonary circuit

  • 44. 
    The atrioventricular valve on the side of the heart that receives the superior vena cava is the _____ valve
    • A. 

      Mitral

    • B. 

      Bicuspid

    • C. 

      Tricuspid

    • D. 

      Pulmonary semilunar

    • E. 

      Aortic semilunar

  • 45. 
    Blood leaving the right ventricle enters the
    • A. 

      Pulmonary veins

    • B. 

      Pulmonary trunk

    • C. 

      Aorta

    • D. 

      Inferior vena cava

    • E. 

      Superior vena cava

  • 46. 
    The pulmonary semilunar valve guards the entrance to the
    • A. 

      Aorta

    • B. 

      Pulmonary trunk

    • C. 

      Pulmonary veins

    • D. 

      Right ventricle

    • E. 

      Left ventricle

  • 47. 
    The entrance to the ascending aorta is guarded by the _____ valve
    • A. 

      Atrioventricular

    • B. 

      Semilunar

    • C. 

      Bicuspid

    • D. 

      Tricuspid

    • E. 

      Mitral

  • 48. 
    Compared to the right ventricle, the left ventricle has all the following characteristics, except that it
    • A. 

      Has a thicker wall

    • B. 

      Is round in cross section

    • C. 

      Relaxes more slowly

    • D. 

      Develops higher pressures when it contracts

    • E. 

      Produces 6 to 7 times more force when it contracts

  • 49. 
    The left and right pulmonary veins carry blood to the
    • A. 

      Heart

    • B. 

      Lungs

    • C. 

      Brain

    • D. 

      Intestines

    • E. 

      Liver

  • 50. 
    The heart wall is composed of _____ layers of tissue
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      4

    • D. 

      5

    • E. 

      6

  • 51. 
    The myocardium is primarily composed of _____ tissue
    • A. 

      Elastic

    • B. 

      Fibrous connective

    • C. 

      Epithelial

    • D. 

      Cardiac muscle

    • E. 

      Smooth muscle

  • 52. 
    The first blood vessels to branch from the aorta are the _____ arteries
    • A. 

      Pulmonary

    • B. 

      Coronary

    • C. 

      Circumflex

    • D. 

      Carotid

    • E. 

      Subclavian

  • 53. 
    The marginal branch and posterior interventricular branch are branches of the
    • A. 

      Right coronary artery.

    • B. 

      Left coronary artery

    • C. 

      Circumflex artery

    • D. 

      Coronary sinus

    • E. 

      Aorta

  • 54. 
    The circumflex branch and the anterior descending artery are branches of the
    • A. 

      Right coronary artery.

    • B. 

      Left coronary artery

    • C. 

      Interventricular artery

    • D. 

      Coronary sinus

    • E. 

      Aorta.

  • 55. 
    The great and middle cardiac veins drain blood into the
    • A. 

      Superior vena cava

    • B. 

      Inferior vena cava

    • C. 

      Coronary sinus

    • D. 

      Coronary sulcus

    • E. 

      Aorta

  • 56. 
    The heart is innervated by _____ nerves.
    • A. 

      Parasympathetic

    • B. 

      Sympathetic

    • C. 

      Both parasympathetic and sympathetic

    • D. 

      Neither parasympathetic nor sympathetic

  • 57. 
    The plateau phase of the cardiac muscle action potential is due to
    • A. 

      The movement of fewer sodium ions across the cell membrane

    • B. 

      The calcium channels remaining open longer than the sodium channels

    • C. 

      The increased membrane permeability to potassium ion

    • D. 

      A decrease in the amount of calcium diffusing across the membrane

    • E. 

      An increased membrane permeability to sodium ions

  • 58. 
    In cardiac muscle
    • A. 

      Calcium ions are not released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum

    • B. 

      Calcium ions do not bind to troponin molecules

    • C. 

      Calcium ions play no role in the process of contraction

    • D. 

      At least half of the calcium ion required for contraction comes from outside the cell

    • E. 

      Calcium ions play an important role in repolarizing the membrane after the depolarization phase

  • 59. 
    The pacemaker cells of the heart are located in the
    • A. 

      Purkinje fibers

    • B. 

      SA node

    • C. 

      AV node

    • D. 

      Wall of the left ventricle

    • E. 

      Both the left and right ventricles

  • 60. 
    The pace established by the SA node depends on all the following, except the
    • A. 

      Extracellular concentration of potassium ion

    • B. 

      Extracellular concentration of calcium ion

    • C. 

      Temperature of the body

    • D. 

      Type and amount of neurotransmitter present

    • E. 

      Frequency of sympathetic and parasympathetic action potentials

  • 61. 
    Depolarization of the ventricles is represented on an electrocardiogram by the
    • A. 

      P wave

    • B. 

      T wave

    • C. 

      S wave.

    • D. 

      QRS complex

    • E. 

      PR complex

  • 62. 
    The T wave on an ECG tracing represents
    • A. 

      Atrial depolarization

    • B. 

      Atrial repolarization

    • C. 

      Ventricular depolarization

    • D. 

      Ventricular repolarization

    • E. 

      Ventricular contraction

  • 63. 
    Analysis of the electrocardiogram can reveal all of the following, except the
    • A. 

      Position of the heart in the thoracic cavity

    • B. 

      Condition of the pulmonary trunk

    • C. 

      Condition of the conducting system

    • D. 

      Effects of altered ion concentrations

    • E. 

      Size of the ventricles

  • 64. 
    The first heart sound is heard when the
    • A. 

      AV valves open

    • B. 

      AV valves close

    • C. 

      Semilunar valves close

    • D. 

      Atria contract

    • E. 

      Blood enters the aorta

  • 65. 
    During the cardiac cycle, the
    • A. 

      P wave of the ECG occurs between the first and second heart sounds

    • B. 

      QRS complex of the ECG precedes the increase in ventricular pressure

    • C. 

      Third heart sound occurs during atrial systole

    • D. 

      Second heart sound coincides with the QRS complex of the ECG

    • E. 

      Both A and C

  • 66. 
    The volume of blood ejected from each ventricle during a contraction is called the
    • A. 

      End-diastolic volume

    • B. 

      End-systolic volume

    • C. 

      Stroke volume

    • D. 

      Cardiac output

    • E. 

      Cardiac reserve

  • 67. 
    Each of the following factors will increase cardiac output, except
    • A. 

      Increased venous return

    • B. 

      Increased parasympathetic stimulation

    • C. 

      Increased sympathetic stimulation

    • D. 

      Increased heart rate

    • E. 

      Both B and D

  • 68. 
    According to Starling’s “law of the heart,” the cardiac output is directly related to the
    • A. 

      Size of the ventricle

    • B. 

      Heart rate

    • C. 

      Venous return

    • D. 

      Thickness of the myocardium

    • E. 

      End-systolic volume

  • 69. 
    Each of the following conditions would increase heart rate, except
    • A. 

      Increased sympathetic stimulation of nodal fibers

    • B. 

      Increased parasympathetic stimulation of nodal fibers

    • C. 

      Increased levels of epinephrine in the interstitial fluid surrounding the myocardium

    • D. 

      Increased permeability of the myocardial membrane to sodium ion

    • E. 

      Activation of cAMP in heart muscle

  • 70. 
    Increased venous blood flow to the right atrium
    • A. 

      Causes cells of the SA node to depolarize faster

    • B. 

      Will result in increased heart rate

    • C. 

      Triggers the atrial (Bainbridge) reflex

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      B and C only

  • 71. 
    Drugs known as beta-blockers will
    • A. 

      Increase heart rate

    • B. 

      Decrease heart rate

    • C. 

      Increase stroke volume

    • D. 

      Increase cardiac output

    • E. 

      Decrease the end-systolic volume

  • 72. 
    Artery is to _____ as vein is to _____.
    • A. 

      Efferent; afferent

    • B. 

      Afferent; efferent

    • C. 

      Toward; away

    • D. 

      Afferent; away

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 73. 
    The heart beats approximately _____ times each day.
    • A. 

      1,000

    • B. 

      10,000

    • C. 

      100,000

    • D. 

      1,000,000

    • E. 

      1,000,000,000

  • 74. 
    The heart pumps approximately _____ liters of blood each day.
    • A. 

      8,000

    • B. 

      15,000

    • C. 

      20,000

    • D. 

      50,000

    • E. 

      100,000

  • 75. 
    The heart is roughly the size of _____.
    • A. 

      A thigh

    • B. 

      A man’s clenched fist

    • C. 

      The gallbladder

    • D. 

      The hand of a 10-year-old

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 76. 
    The muscular layer of a blood vessel is the
    • A. 

      Tunica intima

    • B. 

      Tunica externa

    • C. 

      Tunica media

    • D. 

      Tunica interna

    • E. 

      Tunica adventitia

  • 77. 
    Compared to arteries, veins
    • A. 

      Are more elastic

    • B. 

      Have more smooth muscle in their tunica media

    • C. 

      Have a pleated endothelium

    • D. 

      Have thinner walls

    • E. 

      Hold their shape better when cut

  • 78. 
    Capillaries that have a complete lining are called
    • A. 

      Continuous capillaries

    • B. 

      Fenestrated capillaries

    • C. 

      Sinusoidal capillaries

    • D. 

      Sinusoids

    • E. 

      Vasa vasorum

  • 79. 
    Capillaries with an incomplete lining are called
    • A. 

      Incomplete capillaries

    • B. 

      Continuous capillaries

    • C. 

      Fenestrated capillaries

    • D. 

      Sinuses

    • E. 

      Sinuses

    • F. 

      Vasa vasorum

  • 80. 
    The only blood vessels whose walls permit exchange between the blood and the surrounding interstitial fluids are the
    • A. 

      Arteries

    • B. 

      Arterioles

    • C. 

      Veins

    • D. 

      Venules

    • E. 

      Capillaries

  • 81. 
    Blood moves forward through veins by all of the following, except
    • A. 

      Because the pressure in the veins is lower than in the arteries

    • B. 

      Because of contraction–relaxation pumping of the smooth muscle in the wall of the vein

    • C. 

      With the aid of the thoracoabdominal pump

    • D. 

      Because valves in the veins prevent the backflow of blood

    • E. 

      With the aid of contractions of skeletal muscles

  • 82. 
    Blood flow through the circulatory system is affected by all of the following, except
    • A. 

      The presence or absence of collateral systems

    • B. 

      The viscosity of the blood

    • C. 

      The amount of friction in the blood vessels

    • D. 

      The length and diameter of the blood vessels

    • E. 

      Pressure differences

  • 83. 
    Vascular resistance is related to all of the following, except the
    • A. 

      Length of a blood vessel

    • B. 

      Osmolarity of interstitial fluids

    • C. 

      Nature of the blood flow

    • D. 

      Viscosity of the blood

    • E. 

      Diameter of a blood vessel

  • 84. 
    As blood travels from the aorta toward the capillaries, the
    • A. 

      Pressure increases

    • B. 

      Resistance increases

    • C. 

      Flow increases

    • D. 

      Viscosity increases

    • E. 

      Diameter of the blood vessels increases

  • 85. 
    Blood flow to a tissue will increase if the
    • A. 

      Level of oxygen at the tissue increases

    • B. 

      Level of carbon dioxide at the tissue increases

    • C. 

      PH rises

    • D. 

      Vessel constricts

    • E. 

      Both A and C

  • 86. 
    Blood pressure is determined by measuring the
    • A. 

      Size of the pulse

    • B. 

      Pressure in the left ventricle

    • C. 

      Force exerted by blood in a vessel against air in a closed cuff

    • D. 

      Degree of turbulence in a closed vessel

    • E. 

      Force of contraction of the right ventricle

  • 87. 
    Blood pressure is influenced by all of the following, except
    • A. 

      Age

    • B. 

      Sex

    • C. 

      Capillary density in the skin

    • D. 

      Time of day

    • E. 

      Body size

  • 88. 
    Blood pressure increases with all of the following, except increased
    • A. 

      Cardiac output

    • B. 

      Peripheral resistance

    • C. 

      Blood volume

    • D. 

      Parasympathetic innervation

    • E. 

      Force of cardiac contraction

  • 89. 
    The difference between the systolic and diastolic pressures is called the _____ pressure
    • A. 

      Critical closing

    • B. 

      Mean arterial

    • C. 

      Pulse

    • D. 

      Blood

    • E. 

      Circulatory

  • 90. 
    The blood osmotic pressure is most affected by changes in the
    • A. 

      Concentration of plasma sodium ions

    • B. 

      Concentration of plasma glucose

    • C. 

      Concentration of plasma waste products

    • D. 

      Concentration of plasma proteins

    • E. 

      Number of white blood cells

  • 91. 
    Which of the following statements is false concerning the movement of fluid between capillaries and interstitial space?
    • A. 

      Blood hydrostatic pressure forces fluid from the capillary to the interstitial space

    • B. 

      Blood osmotic pressure moves fluid from the interstitial space to the capillary

    • C. 

      The osmotic pressure of the interstitial fluid is less than the blood osmotic pressure

    • D. 

      The hydrostatic pressure of the interstitial fluid does not oppose the movement of fluid from the capillary

    • E. 

      The blood hydrostatic pressure and the blood osmotic pressure are equal in magnitude but opposite in direction

  • 92. 
    An important artery that supplies blood to the brain is the _____ artery
    • A. 

      External carotid

    • B. 

      Subclavian

    • C. 

      Vertebral

    • D. 

      Azygos

    • E. 

      Maxillary

  • 93. 
    Blood from the brain returns to the heart by way of the _____ vein
    • A. 

      Vertebral

    • B. 

      Azygos

    • C. 

      Innominate

    • D. 

      Internal jugular

    • E. 

      External jugular

  • 94. 
    The goal of cardiovascular regulation includes all of the following, except to ensure that
    • A. 

      Blood flow changes occur at the appropriate time

    • B. 

      Blood flow changes occur in the appropriate area

    • C. 

      Changes occur without drastically altering blood pressure

    • D. 

      Sufficient concentrations of blood cells are present to meet emergency situations

    • E. 

      Changes occur without drastically altering blood flow to a vital organ

  • 95. 
    Stimulation of the aortic baroreceptors results in
    • A. 

      Stimulation of the cardioaccelerator center in the brain

    • B. 

      Increased sympathetic stimulation of the heart

    • C. 

      Increased activity by the parasympathetic nervous system

    • D. 

      Stimulation of the vasomotor center

    • E. 

      Increased vasomotor tone

  • 96. 
    Anxiety can result in
    • A. 

      Increased stimulation of the cardioinhibitory center by higher brain centers

    • B. 

      Increased stimulation of the cardioaccelerator center by higher brain centers

    • C. 

      Decreased heart rate

    • D. 

      Decreased blood pressure

    • E. 

      Both C and D

  • 97. 
    During increased exercise
    • A. 

      Vasoconstriction occurs at the active skeletal muscles

    • B. 

      Venous return increases

    • C. 

      Both cardiac output and stroke volume decrease

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      A and C only

  • 98. 
    In response to hemorrhage, there is
    • A. 

      Decreased vasomotor tone and peripheral vasodilation

    • B. 

      Increased parasympathetic stimulation of the heart

    • C. 

      Mobilization of the venous reserve

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      Both A and C

  • 99. 
    Symptoms of shock include all of the following, except
    • A. 

      Hypotension

    • B. 

      Rapid, weak pulse

    • C. 

      Decreased urine formation

    • D. 

      Acidosis

    • E. 

      Profuse sweating

  • 100. 
    Homeostatic mechanisms can compensate for circulatory shock during the _____ stage
    • A. 

      Ischemic

    • B. 

      Progressive

    • C. 

      Compensated

    • D. 

      Reversible

    • E. 

      Irreversible

  • 101. 
    Branches off the aortic arch include the
    • A. 

      Right and left subclavian arteries

    • B. 

      Left subclavian artery

    • C. 

      Left common carotid and right axillary arteries

    • D. 

      Brachio and right axillary arteries

    • E. 

      Both A and C

  • 102. 
    Major branches of the subclavian artery include the _____ artery(ies).
    • A. 

      Radial

    • B. 

      Brachial

    • C. 

      Internal thoracic

    • D. 

      Digital

    • E. 

      Both B and C

  • 103. 
    After passing the first rib, the subclavian artery becomes the _____ artery.
    • A. 

      Radial

    • B. 

      Ulnar

    • C. 

      Brachial

    • D. 

      Axillary

    • E. 

      Digital

  • 104. 
    In the upper arm, the axillary artery becomes the _____ artery.
    • A. 

      Radial

    • B. 

      Ulnar

    • C. 

      Brachial

    • D. 

      Subclavian

    • E. 

      Digital

  • 105. 
    The brachial artery branches to form the radial and _____ arteries.
    • A. 

      Axillary

    • B. 

      Digital

    • C. 

      Ulnar

    • D. 

      Subclavian

    • E. 

      Brachiocephalic

  • 106. 
    The two vertebral arteries fuse to form a large artery, the
    • A. 

      Circle of Willis

    • B. 

      Common carotid artery

    • C. 

      External carotid artery

    • D. 

      Internal carotid artery

    • E. 

      Basilar artery

  • 107. 
    The internal carotids and the basilar artery are interconnected by an anastomosis called the
    • A. 

      Common carotid artery

    • B. 

      Cerebral ring

    • C. 

      Circle of Willis

    • D. 

      External carotid artery

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 108. 
    At the carotid sinus,
    • A. 

      The common carotid forms an internal and an external branch

    • B. 

      The internal carotids fuse with the vertebral arteries

    • C. 

      The external carotid forms the internal carotid

    • D. 

      Veins and arteries anastomose

    • E. 

      The aorta gives rise to the common carotids

  • 109. 
    The _____ divides the aorta into a superior thoracic aorta and an inferior abdominal aorta.
    • A. 

      Pericardium

    • B. 

      Mediastinum

    • C. 

      Diaphragm

    • D. 

      Peritoneum

    • E. 

      Pleura

  • 110. 
    Branches of the thoracic aorta include all of the following, except the _____ arteries.
    • A. 

      Gastric

    • B. 

      Superior phrenic

    • C. 

      Esophageal

    • D. 

      Bronchial

    • E. 

      Intercostal

  • 111. 
    Near the level of vertebra L4, the aorta branches to form the _____ arteries.
    • A. 

      Common carotid

    • B. 

      Common iliac

    • C. 

      Femoral

    • D. 

      Tibial

    • E. 

      Popliteal

  • 112. 
    The external iliac artery branches to form the _____ arteries.
    • A. 

      Radial and ulnar

    • B. 

      Femoral and popliteal

    • C. 

      Femoral and tibial

    • D. 

      Tibial and popliteal

    • E. 

      Femoral and deep femoral

  • 113. 
    In the lower leg, the femoral artery becomes the _____ artery.
    • A. 

      Iliac

    • B. 

      Deep femoral

    • C. 

      Popliteal

    • D. 

      Tibial

    • E. 

      Peroneal

  • 114. 
    Branches of the popliteal artery include the
    • A. 

      Femoral artery

    • B. 

      Peroneal artery

    • C. 

      Iliac artery

    • D. 

      Dorsalis pedis

    • E. 

      Plantar arch

  • 115. 
    The vessel that receives blood from the head, neck, chest, shoulders, and arms is the
    • A. 

      Internal jugular vein

    • B. 

      External jugular vein

    • C. 

      Superior vena cava

    • D. 

      Inferior vena cava

    • E. 

      Coronary sinus

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