AP Final Exam

143 Questions  I  By Emilyqsmith
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AP Quizzes & Trivia
Immune, Respiratory, Digestive, Fluids, Reproductive

  
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  • 1. 
    All of the following are considered innate body defenses EXCEPT:
    • A. 

      Complement

    • B. 

      Phagocytosis

    • C. 

      Antibodies

    • D. 

      Lysozyme

    • E. 

      Inflammation


  • 2. 
    The process by which neutrophils squeeze through capillary walls in response to inflammatory signals is called:
    • A. 

      Diapedesis

    • B. 

      Chemotaxis

    • C. 

      Margination

    • D. 

      Opsonization


  • 3. 
    Antibodies released by plasma cells are involved in:
    • A. 

      Humoral immunity

    • B. 

      Immediate hypersensitivity reactions

    • C. 

      Auto-immune disorders

    • D. 

      All of the above


  • 4. 
    Which of the following antibodies can fix complement?
    • A. 

      IgA

    • B. 

      IgD

    • C. 

      IgE

    • D. 

      IgM


  • 5. 
    Which antibody class is abundant in body secretions?
    • A. 

      IgA

    • B. 

      IgD

    • C. 

      IgG

    • D. 

      IgM


  • 6. 
    Small molecules that must combine with large proteins to become immunogenic are called:
    • A. 

      Complete antigens

    • B. 

      Kinins

    • C. 

      Antigenic determinants

    • D. 

      Haptens


  • 7. 
    Lymphocytes that develop immunocompetence in the bone marrow are:
    • A. 

      T Lymphocytes

    • B. 

      B Lymphocytes

    • C. 

      NK Cells

    • D. 

      B and T Lymphocytes


  • 8. 
    Cells that can directly attack target cells include all of the following EXCEPT:
    • A. 

      Macrophages

    • B. 

      Cytotoxic T cells

    • C. 

      Natural Killer cells

    • D. 

      Helper T Cells

    • E. 

      B cells


  • 9. 
    Which of the following is involved in activation of a B cell?
    • A. 

      Antigen

    • B. 

      Helper T cell

    • C. 

      Cytokine

    • D. 

      All of the above


  • 10. 
    The cell tyoe most often invaded by HIV is a(n):
    • A. 

      Eosinophil

    • B. 

      Cytotoxic T cell

    • C. 

      Natural killer cell

    • D. 

      Helper T cell

    • E. 

      B cell


  • 11. 
    Complement fixation promotes all of the following except:
    • A. 

      Cell lysis

    • B. 

      Inflammation

    • C. 

      Opsonization

    • D. 

      Interferon release

    • E. 

      Chemotaxis of neutrophils and other cells


  • 12. 
    Cutting the phrenic nerves will result in:
    • A. 

      Air entering the pleural cavity

    • B. 

      Paralysis of the diaphragm

    • C. 

      Stimulation of the diaphragmatic reflex

    • D. 

      Paralysis of the epiglottis


  • 13. 
    Which of the following laryngeal cartilages is/are not paired?
    • A. 

      Epiglottis

    • B. 

      Arytenoid

    • C. 

      Cricoid

    • D. 

      Cuneiforn

    • E. 

      Corniculate


  • 14. 
    Under ordinary circumstances, the inflation reflex is initiated by:
    • A. 

      Noxious chemicals

    • B. 

      The ventral respiratory group

    • C. 

      Over-inflation of the alveoli and bronchioles

    • D. 

      The pontine respiratory centers


  • 15. 
    The detergent-like substance that keeps the alveoli from collapsing between breaths because it reduces the surface tension of the water film in the alveoli is called:
    • A. 

      Lecithin

    • B. 

      Bile

    • C. 

      Surfactant

    • D. 

      Reluctant


  • 16. 
    Which of the following determines the direction of gas movement?
    • A. 

      Solubility in water

    • B. 

      Partial pressure gradient

    • C. 

      Temperature

    • D. 

      Molecular weight and size of the gas molecule


  • 17. 
    When the respiratory muscles contract,
    • A. 

      The size of the thoracic cavity is increased in diameter

    • B. 

      The size of the thoracic cavity is increased in length

    • C. 

      The volume of the thoracic cavity is decreased

    • D. 

      The size of the thoracic cavity is increased in both length and diameter


  • 18. 
    The nutrient blood supply of the lungs is provided by:
    • A. 

      The pulmonary arteries

    • B. 

      The aorta

    • C. 

      The pulmonary veins

    • D. 

      The bronchial arteries


  • 19. 
    Oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged in the lungs and through all cell membranes by:
    • A. 

      Active transport

    • B. 

      Diffusion

    • C. 

      Filtration

    • D. 

      Osmosis


  • 20. 
    Which of the following would normally NOT be treated by 100% oxygen therapy?
    • A. 

      Anoxia

    • B. 

      Carbon monoxide poisoning

    • C. 

      Respiratory crisis in an emphysema patient

    • D. 

      Eupnea


  • 21. 
    Most oxygen in the blood is:
    • A. 

      In solution in the plasma

    • B. 

      Combined with plasma proteins

    • C. 

      Chemically combined with the heme in red blood cells

    • D. 

      In solution in the red blood cells


  • 22. 
    Which of the following has the greatest stimulatory effect on respiratory centers in the brain?
    • A. 

      Oxygen

    • B. 

      Carbon dioxide

    • C. 

      Calcium

    • D. 

      Willpower


  • 23. 
    In mouth-to-mouth artificial respiration, the rescuer blows air from his or her own respiratory system into that of the victim.  Which of the following statements are correct?
    • A. 

      Expansion of the victim's lungs is brought about by blowing air in at higher than atmospheric pressure (positive-pressure breathing)

    • B. 

      During inflation of the lungs, the intra-pleural pressure increases

    • C. 

      This technique will not work if the victim has a hole in the chest wall, even if the lungs are intact

    • D. 

      Expiration during this procedure depends on the elasticity of the alveolar and thoracic walls


  • 24. 
    A baby holding its breath will:
    • A. 

      Have brain cells damaged because of low blood oxygen levels

    • B. 

      Automatically start to breathe again when the carbon dioxide levels in the blood reach a high enough value

    • C. 

      Suffer heart damage because of increased pressure in the carotid sinus and aortic arch areas

    • D. 

      Be called a "blue baby"


  • 25. 
    Under ordinary circumstances, which of the following blood componenets is of no physiological signifigance?
    • A. 

      Bicarbonate ions

    • B. 

      Carbaminohemaglobin

    • C. 

      Nitrogen

    • D. 

      Chloride


  • 26. 
    Damage to which of the following would most likely result in cessation of breathing?
    • A. 

      The pontine respiratory group

    • B. 

      The ventral respiratory group of the medulla

    • C. 

      The stretch receptors in the lungs

    • D. 

      The dorsal respiratory group of the medulla


  • 27. 
    The bulk of carbon dioxide is carried:
    • A. 

      Chemically combined with the amino acids of hemoglobin as carbaminohemoglobin in the red blood cells

    • B. 

      As the ion HCO3- in the plasma after first entering the red blood cell

    • C. 

      As carbonic acid in the plasma

    • D. 

      Chemically combined with the heme portion of Hb


  • 28. 
    The peritoneal cavity:
    • A. 

      Is the same thing as the abdominopelvic cavity

    • B. 

      Is filled with air

    • C. 

      Like the pleural and pericardial cavities is a potential space containing serous fluid

    • D. 

      Contains the pancreas and all of the duodenum


  • 29. 
    Obstruction of the hepatopancreatic sphincter impairs digestion by reducing the availability of:
    • A. 

      Bile and HCL

    • B. 

      HCL and intestinal juice

    • C. 

      Pancreatic juice and intestinal juice

    • D. 

      Pancreatic juice and bile


  • 30. 
    The action of an enzyme is influenced by:
    • A. 

      Its chemical surroundings

    • B. 

      Its specific substrate

    • C. 

      The presence of needed cofactors of coenzymes

    • D. 

      All of the above


  • 31. 
    Carbohydrates are acted on by:
    • A. 

      Peptidases, trypsin and chemotrypsin

    • B. 

      Amylase, maltase and sucrase

    • C. 

      Lipases

    • D. 

      Peptidases, lipases and galactase


  • 32. 
    The parasymphathetic nervous system influences digestion by:
    • A. 

      Relaxing smooth muscle

    • B. 

      Stimulating peristalsis and secretory activity

    • C. 

      Constricting sphincters

    • D. 

      None of these


  • 33. 
    The digestive juice product containing enzymes capable of digesting all four major foodstuff categories is:
    • A. 

      Pancreatic

    • B. 

      Gastric

    • C. 

      Salivary

    • D. 

      Biliary


  • 34. 
    The vitamin associated with calcium absorption is:
    • A. 

      A

    • B. 

      K

    • C. 

      C

    • D. 

      D


  • 35. 
    Someone has eaten a meal of buttered toast, cream and eggs.  Which of the following would you expect to happen?
    • A. 

      Compaired to the period shortly after the meal gastric motility and secretion of HCL decrease when the food reaches the duodenum

    • B. 

      Gastric motility increases even as the person is chewing food (before swallowing)

    • C. 

      Fat will be emulsified in the duodenum by the action of bile

    • D. 

      All of these


  • 36. 
    The site of production of VIP and cholecytokinin is:
    • A. 

      The stomach

    • B. 

      The small intestine

    • C. 

      The pancreas

    • D. 

      The large intestine


  • 37. 
    Which of the following is NOT characteristic of the colon?
    • A. 

      It is divided into ascending, transverse and descending portions

    • B. 

      It contains abundant bacteria, some of which synthesize certain vitamins

    • C. 

      It is the main absorptive site

    • D. 

      It absorbs much of the water and salts remaining in the wastes


  • 38. 
    The gallbladder:
    • A. 

      Produces bile

    • B. 

      Is attached to the pancreas

    • C. 

      Stores and concentrates bile

    • D. 

      Produces secretin


  • 39. 
    The sphincter between the stomach and the duodenum is:
    • A. 

      The pyloric sphincter

    • B. 

      The gastroesophogeal sphincter

    • C. 

      The hepatopancreatic sphincter

    • D. 

      The ileocecal sphincter


  • 40. 
    A molecule of protein will be digested by enzymes secreted by:
    • A. 

      The mouth, stomach and colon

    • B. 

      The stomach, liver and small intestine

    • C. 

      The small intestine, mouth and liver

    • D. 

      The pancreas and stomach


  • 41. 
    The protein molecule must be digested before it can be transported to and utilized by the cells because:
    • A. 

      Protein is only useful directly

    • B. 

      Protein has a low pH

    • C. 

      Proteins in the circulating blood produce an adverse osmotic pressure

    • D. 

      The protein is too large to be readily absorbed


  • 42. 
    The products of protein digestion enter the bloodstream largely through cells lining:
    • A. 

      The stomach

    • B. 

      The small intestine

    • C. 

      The large intestine

    • D. 

      The bile duct


  • 43. 
    Before the blood carrying the products of protein digestion reaches the heart, it first passes through capillary networks in:
    • A. 

      The spleen

    • B. 

      The lungs

    • C. 

      The liver

    • D. 

      The brain


  • 44. 
    Having passed through the regulatory organ selected above, the products of protein digestion are circulated throughout the body.  They will enter individual cells by:
    • A. 

      Active transport

    • B. 

      Diffusion

    • C. 

      Osmosis

    • D. 

      Phagocytosis


  • 45. 
    Which of the following reactions would liberate the most energy?
    • A. 

      Complete oxidation of a molecule of sucrose to CO2 and Water

    • B. 

      Conversion of a molecule of ADP to ATP

    • C. 

      Respiration of a molecule of glucose to lactic acid

    • D. 

      Conversion of a molecule of glucose to carbon dioxide and water


  • 46. 
    The formation of glucose from glycogen is:
    • A. 

      Gluconeogenesis

    • B. 

      Glycogenesis

    • C. 

      Glycogenolysis

    • D. 

      Glycolysis


  • 47. 
    The net gain of ATP from the complete metabolism (aerobic) of glucose is closest to:
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      32

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4


  • 48. 
    Which of the following best defines cellular respiration?
    • A. 

      Intake of carbon dioxide and output of oxygen by cells

    • B. 

      Excretion of waste products

    • C. 

      Inhalation of oxygen and exhalation of carbon dioxide

    • D. 

      Oxidation of substances by which energy is released in usable form to other cells


  • 49. 
    What is formed during aerobic respiration when electrons are passed down the electron transport chain?
    • A. 

      Oxygen

    • B. 

      Water

    • C. 

      Glucose

    • D. 

      NADH + H


  • 50. 
    Metabolic rate is relatively low in:
    • A. 

      Youth

    • B. 

      Physical exercise

    • C. 

      Old age

    • D. 

      Fever


  • 51. 
    In a temperate climate under ordinary conditions, the greatest loss of body heat occurs through:
    • A. 

      Radiation

    • B. 

      Conduction

    • C. 

      Evaporation

    • D. 

      None of these


  • 52. 
    Which of the following is NOT a function of the liver?
    • A. 

      Glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis

    • B. 

      Synthesis of cholesterol

    • C. 

      Detoxification of alcohol and drugs

    • D. 

      Synthesis of glucagon

    • E. 

      Deamination of amino acids


  • 53. 
    Amino acids are essential (and important) for the body for all of the following EXCEPT:
    • A. 

      Production of some hormones

    • B. 

      Production of antibodies

    • C. 

      Formation of most structural materials

    • D. 

      As a source of quick energy


  • 54. 
    A person has been on a hunger strike for seven days  Compared to normal, he has:
    • A. 

      Increased release of fatty acids from adipose tissue and ketosis

    • B. 

      Elevated glucose concentration in the blood

    • C. 

      Increased plasma insulin concentration

    • D. 

      Increased glycogen synthase (enzyme) activity in the liver


  • 55. 
    Transamination is a chemical process by which:
    • A. 

      Protein is synthesized

    • B. 

      An amine group is transferred from an amino acid to a keto acid

    • C. 

      An amine group is cleaved from the amino acid

    • D. 

      Amino acids are broken down for energy


  • 56. 
    Three days after removal of the pancreas from an animal, the researcher finds a persistant increase in:
    • A. 

      Aceotoacetic acid concentration in the blood

    • B. 

      Urine volume

    • C. 

      Blood glucose

    • D. 

      All of the above


  • 57. 
    Hunger, appetite, obesity and physical activity and interrelated.  Thus:
    • A. 

      Hunger sensations arise primarily from the stimulation of receptors in the stomach and intestinal tract in response to the absence of food in these organs

    • B. 

      Obesity, in most cases, is a result of abnormally high enzymatic activity of the fat synthesizing enzymes in adipose tissue

    • C. 

      In all cases of obesity, the energy content of the ingested food has exceeded the energy expenditure of the body

    • D. 

      In a normal individual, increasing blood glucose concentration increases hunger sensations


  • 58. 
    Body temperature regulation is:
    • A. 

      Influenced by temperature receptors in the skin

    • B. 

      Influenced by the temperature of the blood perfusing the heat regulation centers of the brain

    • C. 

      Subject to both neural and hormonal control

    • D. 

      All of the above


  • 59. 
    WHich of the following yields the greatest caloric value per gram?
    • A. 

      Fats

    • B. 

      Proteins

    • C. 

      Carbohydrates

    • D. 

      All are equal in caloric value


  • 60. 
    The lowest blood concentration of nitrogenous waste occurs in the:
    • A. 

      Hepatic vein

    • B. 

      Inferior vena cava

    • C. 

      Renal artery

    • D. 

      Renal vein


  • 61. 
    The glomerular capillaries differ from other capillary networks in the body because they:
    • A. 

      Have a larger area of anastomosis

    • B. 

      Are derived from and drain into arterioles

    • C. 

      Are not made of endothelium

    • D. 

      Are sites of filtrate formation


  • 62. 
    Damage to the renal medulla would interfere first with the functioning of the:
    • A. 

      Glomerular capsules

    • B. 

      Distal convoluted tubules

    • C. 

      Collecting ducts

    • D. 

      Proximal convoluted tubules


  • 63. 
    Which is reabsorbed by the proximal convoluted tubules?
    • A. 

      Na+

    • B. 

      K+

    • C. 

      Amino acids

    • D. 

      All of the above


  • 64. 
    Glucose is not normally found in the urine because it:
    • A. 

      Does not pass through the walls of the glomerulus

    • B. 

      Is kept in the blood by colloid osmotic pressure

    • C. 

      Is reabsorbed by the tubule cells

    • D. 

      Is removed by body cells before the blood reaches the kidney


  • 65. 
    Filtration at the glomerulus is inversely related to:
    • A. 

      Water absorption

    • B. 

      Capsular hydrostatic pressure

    • C. 

      Arterial blood pressure

    • D. 

      Acidity of the kidney


  • 66. 
    Tubular reabsorption:
    • A. 

      Of glucose and many other substances is a Tm- limited active transport process

    • B. 

      Of chloride is always linked to the passive transport of Na+

    • C. 

      Is the movement of substances from the blood into the nephron

    • D. 

      Of sodium occurs only in the proximal tubule


  • 67. 
    If a freshly voided urine sample contains excessive amounts of urochrome, it has:
    • A. 

      An ammonia-like odor

    • B. 

      A pH below normal

    • C. 

      A dark yellow color

    • D. 

      A pH above normal


  • 68. 
    Conditions such as diabetes mellitus and starvation are closely linked to:
    • A. 

      Ketonuria

    • B. 

      Pyuria

    • C. 

      Albuminuria

    • D. 

      Hematuria


  • 69. 
    Which of the following is/are true about ADH?
    • A. 

      It promotes obligatory water reabsorption

    • B. 

      It is secreted in response to an increase in extracellular fluid osmolality

    • C. 

      It causes insertion of aquaporins in the PCT

    • D. 

      It promotes Na+ reabsorption


  • 70. 
    Body water content is greatest in:
    • A. 

      Infants

    • B. 

      Young adults

    • C. 

      Elderly adults


  • 71. 
    Potassium, magnesium and phosphate ions are the predominant electrolytes in:
    • A. 

      Plasma

    • B. 

      Interstitial fluid

    • C. 

      Intracellular fluid


  • 72. 
    Sodium balance is regulated primarily by control of amount(s):
    • A. 

      Ingested

    • B. 

      Excreted in urine

    • C. 

      Lost in perspiration

    • D. 

      Lost in feces


  • 73. 
    Water balance is regulated by control of amount(s):
    • A. 

      Ingested

    • B. 

      Excreted in urine

    • C. 

      Lost in perspiration

    • D. 

      Lost in feces


  • 74. 
    Which three substances are regulated (at least in part) by the influence of aldosterone on the kidney tubules?
    • A. 

      Ammonium ions

    • B. 

      Bicarbonate

    • C. 

      Calcium

    • D. 

      Chloride

    • E. 

      Hydrogen ions

    • F. 

      Magnesium

    • G. 

      Phosphate

    • H. 

      Potassium

    • I. 

      Sodium

    • J. 

      Water


  • 75. 
    Which two substances are regulated by parathyroid hormone?
    • A. 

      Ammonium ions

    • B. 

      Bicarbonate

    • C. 

      Calcium

    • D. 

      Chloride

    • E. 

      Hydrogen ions

    • F. 

      Magnesium

    • G. 

      Phosphate

    • H. 

      Potassium

    • I. 

      Sodium

    • J. 

      Water


  • 76. 
    Which two substances are secreted into the proximal convoluted tubules in exchange for sodium ions?
    • A. 

      Ammonium ions

    • B. 

      Bicarbonate

    • C. 

      Calcium

    • D. 

      Chloride

    • E. 

      Hydrogen ions

    • F. 

      Magnesium

    • G. 

      Phosphate

    • H. 

      Potassium

    • I. 

      Sodium

    • J. 

      Water


  • 77. 
    Which substance is part of an important chemical buffer system in plasma?
    • A. 

      Ammonium ions

    • B. 

      Bicarbonate

    • C. 

      Calcium

    • D. 

      Chloride

    • E. 

      Hydrogen ions


  • 78. 
    Which two ions are produced during catabolism of glutamine?
    • A. 

      Ammonium ions

    • B. 

      Bicarbonate

    • C. 

      Calcium

    • D. 

      Chloride

    • E. 

      Hydrogen


  • 79. 
    Which substance is regulated by ADH's effects on the renal tubules?
    • A. 

      Magnesium

    • B. 

      Phosphate

    • C. 

      Potassium

    • D. 

      Sodium

    • E. 

      Water


  • 80. 
    Which of the following factors will enhance ADH release?
    • A. 

      Increase in ECF volume

    • B. 

      Decrease in ECF volume

    • C. 

      Decrease in ECF osmolality

    • D. 

      Increase in ECF osmolality


  • 81. 
    The pH of the blood varies directly with:
    • A. 

      HCO3-

    • B. 

      PCO2

    • C. 

      H+

    • D. 

      None of the above


  • 82. 
    In an individual with metabolic acidosis, a clue that the respiratory system is compensating is provided by:
    • A. 

      High blood bicarbonate levels

    • B. 

      Low blood bicarbonate levels

    • C. 

      Rapid, deep breathing

    • D. 

      Slow, shallow breathing


  • 83. 
    The structures that draw an ovulated oocyte into the female duct system are:
    • A. 

      Cilia

    • B. 

      Fimbriae

    • C. 

      Microvilli

    • D. 

      Stereocilia


  • 84. 
    The usual site of embryo implantation is:
    • A. 

      The uterine tube

    • B. 

      The peritoneal cavity

    • C. 

      The vagina

    • D. 

      The uterus


  • 85. 
    The male homologue of the female clitoris is:
    • A. 

      The penis

    • B. 

      The scrotum

    • C. 

      The penile urethra

    • D. 

      The testis


  • 86. 
    Which of the following is correct relative to female anatomy?
    • A. 

      The vaginal orifice is the most dorsal of the three openings in the perineum

    • B. 

      The urethra is between the vaginal orifice and the anus

    • C. 

      The anus is between the vaginal orifice and the urethra

    • D. 

      The urethra is the more ventral of the two orifices in the vulva


  • 87. 
    Secondary sex characteristics are:
    • A. 

      Present in the embryo

    • B. 

      A result of male or female sex hormones increasing in amount at puberty

    • C. 

      The testis in the male and the ovary in the female

    • D. 

      Not subject to withdrawal once established


  • 88. 
    Which of the following produces the male sex hormones?
    • A. 

      Seminal vesicles

    • B. 

      Corpus luteum

    • C. 

      Developing follices of the tests

    • D. 

      Interstitial cells


  • 89. 
    Which will occur as a result of nondescent of the testes?
    • A. 

      Male sex hormones will not be circulated in the body

    • B. 

      Sperm will have no means of exit from the body

    • C. 

      Inadequate blood supply will retard development of the testes

    • D. 

      Viable sperm will not be produced


  • 90. 
    The normal diploid number of human chrosomes is:
    • A. 

      48

    • B. 

      47

    • C. 

      46

    • D. 

      23

    • E. 

      24


  • 91. 
    Relative to differences between mitosis and meiosis, choose the statements that apply ONLY to events of meiosis.
    • A. 

      Tetrads present

    • B. 

      Produces 2 daughter cells

    • C. 

      Produces 4 daughter cells

    • D. 

      Occurs throughout life

    • E. 

      Reduces the chromosomal number by half

    • F. 

      Synapsis and crossover of homologues occur


  • 92. 
    Which hormones directly regulate the ovarian cycle?
    • A. 

      Androgen-binding hormone

    • B. 

      Estrogens

    • C. 

      Follicle stimulating hormone

    • D. 

      Gonadotropin releasing hormone

    • E. 

      Inhibin

    • F. 

      Luetinizing hormone

    • G. 

      Progesterone

    • H. 

      Testosterone


  • 93. 
    Which chemicals in males inhibit the pituitary-testicular axis?
    • A. 

      Androgen-binding protein

    • B. 

      Estrogens

    • C. 

      FSH

    • D. 

      GnRH

    • E. 

      Inhibin

    • F. 

      LH

    • G. 

      Progesterone

    • H. 

      Testosterone


  • 94. 
    Which hormone makes the cervical mucous viscous?
    • A. 

      Androgen-binding protein

    • B. 

      FSH

    • C. 

      Inhibin

    • D. 

      Progesterone


  • 95. 
    Which hormone potentiates the activity of testosterone on spermatogenic cells?
    • A. 

      Androgen-binding protein

    • B. 

      Testosterone

    • C. 

      GnRH

    • D. 

      Inhibin


  • 96. 
    In females, which hormones exert feedback inhibition on the hypothalamus and anterior pituitary?
    • A. 

      Androgen-binding protein

    • B. 

      FSH

    • C. 

      Inhibin

    • D. 

      Progesterone

    • E. 

      Estrogens

    • F. 

      GnRH

    • G. 

      LH

    • H. 

      Testosterone


  • 97. 
    Which hormone stimulates the secretion of testosterone?
    • A. 

      Estrogens

    • B. 

      GnRH

    • C. 

      LH

    • D. 

      Androgen-binding protein


  • 98. 
    The menstrual cycle can be divided into three continuous phases.  Starting from the first day of the cycle, their consecutive order is:
    • A. 

      Menstrual, proliferative, secretory

    • B. 

      Menstrual, secretory, proliferative

    • C. 

      Secretory, menstrual, proliferative

    • D. 

      Proliferative, menstrual, secretory

    • E. 

      Secretory, proliferative, menstrual


  • 99. 
    Spermatozoa are to seminferous tubules as oocytes are to:
    • A. 

      Fimbriae

    • B. 

      Corpus albicans

    • C. 

      Ovarian follicles

    • D. 

      Corpora lutea


  • 100. 
    Which of the following does NOT add a secretion that makes a major contribution to semen?
    • A. 

      Prostate

    • B. 

      Bulbourethral glands

    • C. 

      Testes

    • D. 

      Vas deferns


  • 101. 
    The corpus luteum is formed at the site of:
    • A. 

      Fertilization

    • B. 

      Ovulation

    • C. 

      Menstruation

    • D. 

      Implantation


  • 102. 
    The sex of a child is determined by:
    • A. 

      The sex chromosome contained in the sperm

    • B. 

      Sex chromosome contained in the oocyte

    • C. 

      Number of sperm fertilizing the oocyte

    • D. 

      The position of fetus in the uterus


  • 103. 
    FSH is to estrogen as estrogen is to:
    • A. 

      Progesterone

    • B. 

      LH

    • C. 

      FSH

    • D. 

      Testosterone


  • 104. 
    A drug that "reminds" the pituitary to produce gonadotropins might be useful as:
    • A. 

      A contraceptive

    • B. 

      A diuretic

    • C. 

      A fertility drug

    • D. 

      An abortion stimulant


  • 105. 
    "The period during which a morula forms" is describing ...
    • A. 

      Cleavage

    • B. 

      Gastrulation


  • 106. 
    "The period when t amounts of vast amounts of cell migration occur" is describing ...
    • A. 

      Cleavage

    • B. 

      Gastrulation


  • 107. 
    "The period when the three embryonic germ layers appear" is describing ...
    • A. 

      Cleavage

    • B. 

      Gastrulation


  • 108. 
    "The period during which the blastocyst is formed" is describing ...
    • A. 

      Cleavage

    • B. 

      Gastrulation


  • 109. 
    Most systems are operational in the fetus by four to six months.  Which system is the exception to this generalization, affecting premature infants?
    • A. 

      The circulatory system

    • B. 

      The respiratory system

    • C. 

      The urinary system

    • D. 

      The digestive system


  • 110. 
    The zygote contains chromsomes from:
    • A. 

      The mother only

    • B. 

      The father only

    • C. 

      Both the mother and the father, but half from each

    • D. 

      Each parent and synthesizes others


  • 111. 
    The outer layer of the blastocyst, which later attaches to the uterus, is the:
    • A. 

      Decidua

    • B. 

      Trophoblast

    • C. 

      Amnion

    • D. 

      Inner cell mass


  • 112. 
    The fetal membrane that forms the basis of the umbilical cord is the:
    • A. 

      Allantois

    • B. 

      Amnion

    • C. 

      Chorion

    • D. 

      Yolk sac


  • 113. 
    Which of the following changes occur in the baby's cardiovascular system after birth?
    • A. 

      Blood clots in the umbilical vein

    • B. 

      The pulmonary vessels dilate as the lungs expand

    • C. 

      The ductus venosus becomes obliterated, as does the ductus ateriosus

    • D. 

      All of these


  • 114. 
    Following delivery of the infant, the delivery of the afterbirth includes the:
    • A. 

      Placenta only

    • B. 

      Placenta and decidua

    • C. 

      Placenta and attached (torn) fetal membranes

    • D. 

      Chorionic villi


  • 115. 
    The umbilical vein carries:
    • A. 

      Waste products to the placenta

    • B. 

      Oxygen and food to the fetus

    • C. 

      Oxygen and food to the placenta

    • D. 

      Oxygen and waste products to the fetus


  • 116. 
    The germ layer from which the skeletal muscles, heart and skeleton are derived is the:
    • A. 

      Ectoderm

    • B. 

      Endoderm

    • C. 

      Mesoderm


  • 117. 
    Which of the following cannot pass through placental barriers?
    • A. 

      Blood cells

    • B. 

      Glucose

    • C. 

      Amino acids

    • D. 

      Gases

    • E. 

      Antibodies


  • 118. 
    The most important hormone in initiating and maintaining lactation after birth is:
    • A. 

      Estrogen

    • B. 

      FSH

    • C. 

      Prolactin

    • D. 

      Oxytocin


  • 119. 
    The initial stage of labor, during which the neck of the uterus is stretched, is the:
    • A. 

      Dilation stage

    • B. 

      Expulsion stage

    • C. 

      Placental stage


  • 120. 
    Which adult structure is derived from the notochord?
    • A. 

      Visceral serosa

    • B. 

      Brain

    • C. 

      Nucleus pulposus

    • D. 

      Parietal serosa


  • 121. 
    Which adult structure is derived from the ectoderm (not neural tube)?
    • A. 

      Kidney

    • B. 

      Pancreas

    • C. 

      Parietal serosa and dermis

    • D. 

      Hair and epidermis


  • 122. 
    Which adult structure is derived from the intermediate mesoderm?
    • A. 

      Kidney

    • B. 

      Pancreas

    • C. 

      Liver

    • D. 

      Peritoneal cavity


  • 123. 
    Which adult structure is derived from the sphlanchnic mesoderm?
    • A. 

      Parietal serosa

    • B. 

      Peritoneal cavity

    • C. 

      Visceral serosa

    • D. 

      Nucleus pulposus


  • 124. 
    Which adult structure is derived from the sclerotome?
    • A. 

      Kidney

    • B. 

      Brain

    • C. 

      Ribs

    • D. 

      Peritoneal cavity


  • 125. 
    Which adult structure is derived from the coelom?
    • A. 

      Peritoneal cavity

    • B. 

      Pancreas and liver

    • C. 

      Hair and epidermis

    • D. 

      Visceral serosa


  • 126. 
    Which adult structure is derived from the neural tube?
    • A. 

      Nucleus pulposus

    • B. 

      Brain

    • C. 

      Parietal serosa and dermis

    • D. 

      Ribs


  • 127. 
    Which adult structure is derived from the somatic mesoderm?
    • A. 

      Visceral serosa

    • B. 

      Hair and epidermis

    • C. 

      Brain

    • D. 

      Parietal serosa and dermis


  • 128. 
    Which adult structure is derived from the endoderm?
    • A. 

      Pancreas and liver

    • B. 

      Hair and epidermis

    • C. 

      Peritoneal cavity

    • D. 

      Visceral serosa


  • 129. 
    Genetic makeup is the:
    • A. 

      Allele

    • B. 

      Autosome

    • C. 

      Genotype


  • 130. 
    How genetic makeup is expressed is the:
    • A. 

      Phenotype

    • B. 

      Dominant allele

    • C. 

      Genotype


  • 131. 
    Chromosomes that dictate most body characteristics are:
    • A. 

      Alleles

    • B. 

      Sex chromosomes

    • C. 

      Autosomes


  • 132. 
    Alternate forms of the same gene are:
    • A. 

      Autosomes

    • B. 

      Alleles

    • C. 

      Heterozygotes


  • 133. 
    An individual bearing two alleles that are the same for a particular trait is a:
    • A. 

      Autosome

    • B. 

      Phenotype

    • C. 

      Homozygote


  • 134. 
    An allele that is expressed whether in single or double dose is:
    • A. 

      Dominant

    • B. 

      Recessive

    • C. 

      Sex chromsome


  • 135. 
    An individual bearing two alleles that differ for a particular trait is a:
    • A. 

      Heterozygote

    • B. 

      Homozygote

    • C. 

      Phenotype


  • 136. 
    An allele that must be present in double dose to be expressed is:
    • A. 

      Dominant

    • B. 

      Recessive

    • C. 

      Autosome


  • 137. 
    A trait shown only by sons is:
    • A. 

      Polygenic

    • B. 

      Sex-linked

    • C. 

      Extranuclear


  • 138. 
    A gene which produces the same phenotype in both homozygotes and heterozygotes is:
    • A. 

      Dominant

    • B. 

      Incomplete dominant

    • C. 

      Polygenic


  • 139. 
    Heterozygotes may exhibit a phenotype intermediate between those of the homozygotes due to:
    • A. 

      Multiple alleles

    • B. 

      Sex-linked genes

    • C. 

      Incomplete dominance


  • 140. 
    A phenotype of the offspring which is more varied than those of the parents is a result of:
    • A. 

      Polygene

    • B. 

      Incomplete dominance

    • C. 

      Multiple alleles


  • 141. 
    Inheritance of ABO blood types is considered:
    • A. 

      Extranuclear

    • B. 

      Sex-linked

    • C. 

      Multiple allele


  • 142. 
    Inheritance of stature is:
    • A. 

      Sex-linked

    • B. 

      Extranuclear

    • C. 

      Ploygene


  • 143. 
    The activity of mitochondrial DNA is:
    • A. 

      Sex-linked

    • B. 

      Extranuclear

    • C. 

      Incomplete dominance


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