Anatomy II Test 2 Part 1

150 Questions  I  By Caitlinnorthcutt
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Anatomy Quizzes & Trivia
Anatomy. Two. Test. Two. Part one.

  
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  • 1. 
    The muscular layer of a blood vessel is the
    • A. 

      Tunica media

    • B. 

      Tunica adventitia

    • C. 

      Tunica intima

    • D. 

      Tunica externa

    • E. 

      Tunica interna


  • 2. 
    Compared to arteries, veins
    • A. 

      Have a pleated endothelium

    • B. 

      Are more elastic

    • C. 

      Have thinner walls

    • D. 

      Hold their shape when cut

    • E. 

      Have more smooth muscle in their tunica media


  • 3. 
    Capillaries with a perforated lining are called
    • A. 

      Vasa vasorum

    • B. 

      Sinuses

    • C. 

      Discontinuous capillaries

    • D. 

      Fenestrated capillaries

    • E. 

      Perforated capillaries


  • 4. 
    Materials can move across capillary walls by
    • A. 

      Reabsorbtion

    • B. 

      Filtraton

    • C. 

      Diffusion

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      A and b only


  • 5. 
    Metabolites exchange by diffusion with tissue cells in which of the following locations?
    • A. 

      Venule

    • B. 

      Artery

    • C. 

      Vein

    • D. 

      Arteriole

    • E. 

      Capillary


  • 6. 
    Total peripheral resistance is related to all of the following except the
    • A. 

      Osmolarity of interstital fluids

    • B. 

      Blood vessel diameter

    • C. 

      Flow characteristics

    • D. 

      Blood viscosity

    • E. 

      Length of a blood vessel


  • 7. 
    As blood travels from arteries to veins
    • A. 

      Pressure builds

    • B. 

      Pressure drops

    • C. 

      Diameter of the blood vessels gets progressively smaller

    • D. 

      Flow becomes turbulent

    • E. 

      Viscosity increases


  • 8. 
    Blood flow to a tissue will increase if the
    • A. 

      Veins constrict

    • B. 

      Level of oxygen at the tissue increases

    • C. 

      Arterioles dilate

    • D. 

      Level of carbon dioxide at the tissue decreases

    • E. 

      Both c and d


  • 9. 
    Blood pressure is highest here.
    • A. 

      Artery

    • B. 

      Vein

    • C. 

      Capillary

    • D. 

      Venule

    • E. 

      Areriole


  • 10. 
    The difference between the systolic and diastolic pressures is called the ______ pressure.
    • A. 

      Critical closing

    • B. 

      Circulatory

    • C. 

      Mean arterial

    • D. 

      Pulse

    • E. 

      Blood


  • 11. 
    The blood colloid osmotic pressure mostly depends on the
    • A. 

      Concentration of plasma waste products

    • B. 

      Number of red blood cells

    • C. 

      Concentration of plasma proteins

    • D. 

      Concentration of plasma glucose

    • E. 

      Concentration of plasma sodium ions


  • 12. 
    When renin is released from the kidney
    • A. 

      Blood pressure goes down

    • B. 

      Angiotensiongen is converted into angiotensis I

    • C. 

      Angiotensin I is converted to angiotensin II

    • D. 

      Blood flow to the kidney decreases

    • E. 

      Angiotensin I increases salt reabsorbtion at the kidneys


  • 13. 
    Each of the following will lead to a decrease in blood pressure except
    • A. 

      Decrease in blood volume

    • B. 

      Increased levels of ANP

    • C. 

      Decreased peripheral resistance

    • D. 

      Release of renin

    • E. 

      Increased levels of aldosterone


  • 14. 
    Pulmonary arteries carry blood to the
    • A. 

      Lungs

    • B. 

      Aorta

    • C. 

      Left atrium

    • D. 

      Systemic circuit

    • E. 

      Right atrium


  • 15. 
    Pulmonary Veins carry blood to the
    • A. 

      Aorta

    • B. 

      Right atrium

    • C. 

      Lungs

    • D. 

      Pulmonary circuit

    • E. 

      Left atrium


  • 16. 
    An important artery that supplies blood to the brain is the ____ artery
    • A. 

      Azygos

    • B. 

      Mental

    • C. 

      External carotid

    • D. 

      Internal carotid

    • E. 

      Maxillary


  • 17. 
    Blood from the brain returns to the heart through the _____ vein
    • A. 

      Azygos

    • B. 

      External jugular

    • C. 

      Internal jugular

    • D. 

      Vertebral

    • E. 

      Innominate


  • 18. 
    Stimulation of the aortic baroreceptors reflexy results in
    • A. 

      Increased heart rate

    • B. 

      Stimulation of the cardioaccelerator center in the brain

    • C. 

      Increased sympathetic stimulation of the heart

    • D. 

      Stimulation of the vascconstrictive center

    • E. 

      Increased activity by parasympathetic nervous system


  • 19. 
    In response to hemorrhage there is
    • A. 

      Peripheral vasoconstriction

    • B. 

      Increased parasympathetic stimulation of the heart

    • C. 

      Mobilzation of the venous reserve

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      A and c only


  • 20. 
    Branches off the aortic arch include the
    • A. 

      Left subclavin artery

    • B. 

      Brachiocephalic trunk

    • C. 

      Left comman carotid artery

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      B and c only


  • 21. 
    After passing the first rib, the sub clavin artery becomes the ____ artery.
    • A. 

      Ulnar

    • B. 

      Digital

    • C. 

      Brachial

    • D. 

      Axillary

    • E. 

      Radial


  • 22. 
    After entering the arm, the axillary artery becomes the ____ artery.
    • A. 

      Ulnar

    • B. 

      Brachial

    • C. 

      Radial

    • D. 

      Digital

    • E. 

      Subclavin


  • 23. 
    The brachial artery branches to form the radical and _____ arteries.
    • A. 

      Digital

    • B. 

      Brachiocephalic

    • C. 

      Ulnar

    • D. 

      Axillary

    • E. 

      Subclavin


  • 24. 
    The inernal carotids and the basilar artery are interconnected by an anastomosis called the
    • A. 

      Common carotid artery

    • B. 

      Basal ring

    • C. 

      Arterial bypass

    • D. 

      External carotid artery

    • E. 

      Cerebral arterial circle


  • 25. 
    The _____ divides the aorta into the thoracic aorta and the abdominal aorta
    • A. 

      Diaphragm

    • B. 

      Peritoneum

    • C. 

      Mediastinum

    • D. 

      Pleura

    • E. 

      Pericardium


  • 26. 
    The vessel that recievs blood from the head, neck, chest, shoulders, and arms is the
    • A. 

      Coronary sinus

    • B. 

      External juglar vein

    • C. 

      Internal jugular vein

    • D. 

      Superior vena cava

    • E. 

      Inferior vena cava


  • 27. 
    The radical and ulnar veins fuse to form the _____ vein.
    • A. 

      Hemiazygos

    • B. 

      Azygos

    • C. 

      Axillary

    • D. 

      Basilic

    • E. 

      Barchial


  • 28. 
    When the popliteal vein reaches the femur, it becomes the ______ vein.
    • A. 

      Deep formal

    • B. 

      Femoral

    • C. 

      Interal iliac

    • D. 

      Lumbar

    • E. 

      External iliac


  • 29. 
    The two comman iliac veins form the
    • A. 

      Inferior vena cava

    • B. 

      Femoral vein

    • C. 

      Innominate vein

    • D. 

      Greater saphenous vein

    • E. 

      Hepatic portal vein


  • 30. 
    Elderly individuals usually have
    • A. 

      Stiff inelastic arteries

    • B. 

      Increased blood pressure

    • C. 

      Reduced hematocrits

    • D. 

      Decreased cardiac reserve

    • E. 

      All of the above


  • 31. 
    The large vessels that return blood to the heart are called
    • A. 

      Arterioles

    • B. 

      Capillaries

    • C. 

      Venules

    • D. 

      Arteries

    • E. 

      Veins


  • 32. 
    In large arteries the thick layer of elastic fibers is called the
    • A. 

      Tunia media

    • B. 

      Tunica externa

    • C. 

      Internal elastic membrane

    • D. 

      External elastic membrane

    • E. 

      Tunica intima


  • 33. 
    Which of the following is most likely to result from an aneurysm in a brain artery?
    • A. 

      Quadriplegia

    • B. 

      Stroke

    • C. 

      Pulmonary embolism

    • D. 

      Myocardial infarction

    • E. 

      Hypotension


  • 34. 
    These vessels hold the largest percentage of the blood supply
    • A. 

      Vein

    • B. 

      Artery

    • C. 

      Capillary

    • D. 

      Venule

    • E. 

      Arteriole


  • 35. 
    A vein that measures 5 mm would be considered
    • A. 

      A venous valve

    • B. 

      A medium vein

    • C. 

      An arteriovenule

    • D. 

      A venule

    • E. 

      A large vein


  • 36. 
    Clinically the term blood pressure usually refers to
    • A. 

      Arteriovenous pressure

    • B. 

      Peripheral pressure

    • C. 

      Capillary hydrostatic pressure

    • D. 

      Pulse pressure

    • E. 

      Arterial pressure


  • 37. 
    Venous valces are responsible for
    • A. 

      Preventing anterograde flow

    • B. 

      Channeling blood toward the heart

    • C. 

      Channeling blood away from the heart

    • D. 

      Both a and b

    • E. 

      Both a and c


  • 38. 
    ADH and aldosterone secreation are part of the bodys long term compensation for
    • A. 

      A heavy meal

    • B. 

      Prolonged exercise

    • C. 

      A serious hemmorage

    • D. 

      Hypertension

    • E. 

      A heart attack


  • 39. 
    Factors that increase the rish of artherosclerosis include which of the following?
    • A. 

      Smoking

    • B. 

      Lack of exercies

    • C. 

      Obesity

    • D. 

      High cholesterol

    • E. 

      All of the above


  • 40. 
    Turbulent blood flow occurs
    • A. 

      A high flow rates

    • B. 

      When there are irregularities in the vessel wall

    • C. 

      When there are sudden changes in vessel diameter

    • D. 

      A and c only

    • E. 

      A b and c


  • 41. 
    Edema is favored when
    • A. 

      Endothelial permeabiltiy goes up

    • B. 

      Capillary hydrostatic pressure is elevated

    • C. 

      The plasma concentration of protein is reduced

    • D. 

      A and c only

    • E. 

      A b and c


  • 42. 
    When a person rises quickly from a sitting position
    • A. 

      Reflex vasoconstriction of peropheral blood vessels occurs

    • B. 

      Heart rate is reflexy elevated

    • C. 

      The carotid baroreceptors become less active

    • D. 

      Venous return is decreased

    • E. 

      All of the above


  • 43. 
    After losing 25 percent of blood volume in a motorcycle accident which of the following compensatory responses would occur?
    • A. 

      Vasoconstricion of the body wall

    • B. 

      Increase of contractility

    • C. 

      Venoconstriction of skin vessels

    • D. 

      Increased heart rate

    • E. 

      All of the above


  • 44. 
    Identify the artery labeled 16
    • A. 

      Axiallary

    • B. 

      Splenic

    • C. 

      Celiac

    • D. 

      Superior mesenteric

    • E. 

      Inferior mesenteric


  • 45. 
    Identify the artery labeled 12
    • A. 

      Axiallary

    • B. 

      Inferior mesenteric

    • C. 

      Celiac trunk

    • D. 

      Splenic

    • E. 

      Superior mesenteric


  • 46. 
    Identify the artery labeled 1
    • A. 

      Brachiocephalic

    • B. 

      Common carotid

    • C. 

      Aorta

    • D. 

      Brachial

    • E. 

      Axiallary


  • 47. 
    Identify the arteries labeled 9
    • A. 

      Aorta

    • B. 

      Brachial

    • C. 

      Brachiocephalic

    • D. 

      Common carotid

    • E. 

      Axiallary


  • 48. 
    Identify the arteries labeled 6
    • A. 

      Femoral

    • B. 

      Interal iliac

    • C. 

      Abdominal aorta

    • D. 

      External iliac

    • E. 

      Comman iliac


  • 49. 
    Identify the vein labeled 9
    • A. 

      Brachial

    • B. 

      Median cubital

    • C. 

      Axillary

    • D. 

      Basilic

    • E. 

      Cephalic


  • 50. 
    Identify the vein labeled 15
    • A. 

      Ulnar

    • B. 

      Axiallary

    • C. 

      Brachial

    • D. 

      Radial

    • E. 

      Basilic


  • 51. 
    Identify the vein labeled 10
    • A. 

      Super vena cava

    • B. 

      Aorta

    • C. 

      Inferior vena cava

    • D. 

      Thoracic

    • E. 

      Pulmonary


  • 52. 
    Identify the vein labeled 8
    • A. 

      External jugular

    • B. 

      Superior vena cava

    • C. 

      Subclavian

    • D. 

      Brachiocephalic

    • E. 

      Axiallary


  • 53. 
    Identify the vein labeled 6
    • A. 

      Comman iliac

    • B. 

      Internal iliac

    • C. 

      Inferior vena cava

    • D. 

      External iliac

    • E. 

      Femoral


  • 54. 
    The lymphiod system is composed of all of the following except
    • A. 

      Lymph

    • B. 

      The venae cavae

    • C. 

      Lymphatic vessels

    • D. 

      Lyph nodes

    • E. 

      The spleen


  • 55. 
    Most of the lymph returns to the venous circulation by way of the
    • A. 

      Dural sinus

    • B. 

      Thoraic duct

    • C. 

      Right lyphatic duct

    • D. 

      Cisterna chyli

    • E. 

      Hepatic portal vein


  • 56. 
    In general, lyphocytes
    • A. 

      Spend most of their time in lymphoid tissue

    • B. 

      Have relatively long life spans

    • C. 

      Have two nuceli

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      A and b only


  • 57. 
    The term lymphadenopathy refers to
    • A. 

      The lack of lymphocytes in the perpheral circulation

    • B. 

      A chronic or excessice enlargement of lyph nodes

    • C. 

      A congenital lack of lyph nodes

    • D. 

      Accumulations of lyph in the tissue space

    • E. 

      Increases numbers of circulating lyphocytes


  • 58. 
    The largest single colletion of lyphoid tissue in the adult body is located in the
    • A. 

      Spleen

    • B. 

      Thymus

    • C. 

      Liver

    • D. 

      Lyph nodes

    • E. 

      Tonsils


  • 59. 
    An inflammatory response is triggered when
    • A. 

      Red blood cells release pyrogens

    • B. 

      T cells release interferon

    • C. 

      Neutrophils phagocytize bacteria

    • D. 

      Blood flow to an area increases

    • E. 

      Mast cells release histamine and heparin


  • 60. 
    Defense of the body against a particular pathogen is provided by
    • A. 

      Immunological surveillance

    • B. 

      Fever

    • C. 

      Nonspecific immunity

    • D. 

      Specific immunity

    • E. 

      Skin defenses


  • 61. 
    The classic pathway of complement activation begins when the protein C1 binds to
    • A. 

      A cell surface antigen

    • B. 

      The plasma membrane of bacteria

    • C. 

      The cell wall of bacteria

    • D. 

      An antibody attached to an antigen

    • E. 

      A plasma protein


  • 62. 
    Immunity that results from antibodies that pass that placenta from mother to fetus is called _________ immunity
    • A. 

      Naturally acquired passive

    • B. 

      Auto

    • C. 

      Passive

    • D. 

      Innate

    • E. 

      Active


  • 63. 
    The cells responsible for humoral immunity are the _____ cells
    • A. 

      Helper T

    • B. 

      B

    • C. 

      Suppressor T

    • D. 

      NK

    • E. 

      Cytotoxic t


  • 64. 
    Lymphocytes that destroy foreign cells or virus infected cells are __________ cells
    • A. 

      Cytotoxic T

    • B. 

      B

    • C. 

      Helper T

    • D. 

      Suppressor T

    • E. 

      Plasma


  • 65. 
    The cells that perform immunological surveillance are the
    • A. 

      NK

    • B. 

      B

    • C. 

      Suppressor T

    • D. 

      Helper T

    • E. 

      Plasma


  • 66. 
    Immunoglobulins that are most abundant and are responsible for resistance against many viruses bacteria and bacterial toxins are
    • A. 

      IgE

    • B. 

      IgA

    • C. 

      IgM

    • D. 

      IgD

    • E. 

      IgG


  • 67. 
    Immunoglobulins forred of five subunits that are the first antibodies to be produced in response to infection are
    • A. 

      IgA

    • B. 

      IgG

    • C. 

      IgM

    • D. 

      IgD

    • E. 

      IgE


  • 68. 
    The binding of antigen to antibody can result in
    • A. 

      Complement activation and opsonization

    • B. 

      Neutruliazation of the antigen

    • C. 

      Agglutination of precipitation

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      A and b only


  • 69. 
    When an antigen is bound to a class I MHC molecule it can stimulate a _____________ cell
    • A. 

      Helper T

    • B. 

      Nk

    • C. 

      B

    • D. 

      Cyotoxic T

    • E. 

      Plasma


  • 70. 
    B cells are primarily activated by the activities of
    • A. 

      Antibodies

    • B. 

      Antigens

    • C. 

      Macrophages

    • D. 

      Plasma cells

    • E. 

      Helper t cells


  • 71. 
    During a primary humoral response to antigens all of the following occur except
    • A. 

      Neutrophils invade the surround areas releasing chemotatic substances

    • B. 

      B cells may differentiate into plasma cells immediatley

    • C. 

      B cells may undergo several rounds of mitosis before producing plamsa cells and memory cells

    • D. 

      The first immunoglobulins to appear in circulation are of the IgM type

    • E. 

      Antibody levels to not peak until 1 to 2 weeks after the intial exposure


  • 72. 
    Hormones of the immune system include all of the following except
    • A. 

      Thymosins

    • B. 

      Interleukins

    • C. 

      Natriuretic factor

    • D. 

      Interferons

    • E. 

      Tumor necrosis factor


  • 73. 
    Newborns gain their immunity initially from
    • A. 

      Early immunizations

    • B. 

      Contact with siblings

    • C. 

      Antibodies passed across the placenta from the mother

    • D. 

      Contact with virus and bacteria

    • E. 

      Breast milk


  • 74. 
    Autoantibodies
    • A. 

      Are produced by activated T cells

    • B. 

      Are directed against the bodys own antigens

    • C. 

      Are the first step in immunological competence

    • D. 

      Are produced during an allergic reaction

    • E. 

      Are important in tissue rejection reactions


  • 75. 
    Stress can affect the immune response in all the follwing ways except by
    • A. 

      Inhibiting glucorticoid release

    • B. 

      Inhibiting interleukin secreation

    • C. 

      Increasing the level of glucocorticoids

    • D. 

      Depressing the inflammatory response

    • E. 

      Reducing the number of phagocytes


  • 76. 
    Lymphocytes are produced and stored in all of the following, except
    • A. 

      Lymphoid nodules.

    • B. 

      The spleen.

    • C. 

      The brain.

    • D. 

      The thymus

    • E. 

      Lymph node organs.


  • 77. 
    Lymphocyte production involves
    • A. 

      Bone marrow.

    • B. 

      Peripheral lymphoid tissues.

    • C. 

      Thymus tissue.

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      A and B only


  • 78. 
    Lymphatic vessels are located in almost all portions of the body, except
    • A. 

      Groin.

    • B. 

      Throat.

    • C. 

      Periphery.

    • D. 

      Renal arteries.

    • E. 

      CNS.


  • 79. 
    Nonspecific defenses include
    • A. 

      Inflammation.

    • B. 

      Interferons.

    • C. 

      Phagocytic cells.

    • D. 

      Physical barriers.

    • E. 

      All of the above.


  • 80. 
    Plasma contains _______ special complement proteins that form the complement system.
    • A. 

      11

    • B. 

      5

    • C. 

      9

    • D. 

      7

    • E. 

      3


  • 81. 
    In IgG, the antigen binding site is formed by
    • A. 

      The variable segment of the heavy chain

    • B. 

      The variable segement of the light chain

    • C. 

      The constant segement of the heavy chain

    • D. 

      A+B

    • E. 

      A+C


  • 82. 
    Stem cells that can form all types of lymphocytes are concentracted in the
    • A. 

      Red marrow.

    • B. 

      Circulation.

    • C. 

      Yellow marrow.

    • D. 

      Spleen.

    • E. 

      Thymus.


  • 83. 
    Lymphoid tissue is found in the greatest quantity in
    • A. 

      The adult tissue.

    • B. 

      Bone marrow.

    • C. 

      The tonsils.

    • D. 

      The adult thymus.

    • E. 

      Peyer patches.


  • 84. 
    Class II MHC proteins are present in the plasma membrane only
    • A. 

      In antigen-presenting cells and lymphocytes.

    • B. 

      When cytotoxic T cells are inhibited.

    • C. 

      During infections.

    • D. 

      When NK cells are activated.

    • E. 

      When plasma cells are releasing antibodies.


  • 85. 
    In an experimental situation, a rabbit is exposed to a viral antigen to which it makes antibodies. These antibodies are then purified and injected into a human with the same viral disease. This is an example of
    • A. 

      Innate immunity.

    • B. 

      Alloimmunity.

    • C. 

      Passive immunization.

    • D. 

      Natural immunity.

    • E. 

      Active immunization.


  • 86. 
    The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) that causes the disease known as AIDS selectively infects _____ cells.
    • A. 

      Plasma.

    • B. 

      B

    • C. 

      Suppressor T

    • D. 

      Cytotoxic T

    • E. 

      Helper T


  • 87. 
    Cytotoxic T cells can attack target cells with which of these chemical weapons?
    • A. 

      Secrete free radicals.

    • B. 

      Secrete a cytokine that triggers apoptosis.

    • C. 

      Secrete mutant proteins.

    • D. 

      Secrete organtic solvent.

    • E. 

      Secrete strong acid.


  • 88. 
    A sample of Johns blood shows a high level of pyrogens. This would indicate that John
    • A. 

      Is running a fever.

    • B. 

      Has a sore throat.

    • C. 

      Has a swollen lymph nodes.

    • D. 

      Is producing T lymphocytes.

    • E. 

      Is feeling achy.


  • 89. 
    Figure 22-1Identify the dominant cell type in the area labled "6"
    • A. 

      Erythrocytes

    • B. 

      T cells

    • C. 

      B cells

    • D. 

      Platelets

    • E. 

      All of the above


  • 90. 
    Identify the dominant cell type in the area labled "4"
    • A. 

      T cells

    • B. 

      Platelets

    • C. 

      Erythrocytes

    • D. 

      B cells

    • E. 

      All of the above


  • 91. 
    Identify the structure labled "1"
    • A. 

      Arteriole

    • B. 

      Lymphatic nodule

    • C. 

      Venule

    • D. 

      Afferent lymphatic vessal

    • E. 

      Efferent lymphatic vessal


  • 92. 
    Identify the structure labled "3"
    • A. 

      Trabeculae

    • B. 

      Subcapsular space

    • C. 

      Cortex

    • D. 

      Capsule

    • E. 

      Outer cortex


  • 93. 
    Identify the structure labled "6"
    • A. 

      Trabeculae

    • B. 

      Inner cortex

    • C. 

      Cortical sinus

    • D. 

      Medulla

    • E. 

      Outer cortex


  • 94. 
    Which of the following organs is not part of tghe lower respiratory system?
    • A. 

      Bronchi

    • B. 

      Alveoli

    • C. 

      Trachea

    • D. 

      Larynx

    • E. 

      Oropharynx


  • 95. 
    Air entering the body is filtered, warmed, and humidified by the
    • A. 

      Upper respiratory tract.

    • B. 

      Lower respiratory tract.

    • C. 

      Alveoli.

    • D. 

      Bronchioles.

    • E. 

      Lungs.


  • 96. 
    Large airbone particles are filtered by
    • A. 

      The soft palate.

    • B. 

      Hairs in the nasal vestibule.

    • C. 

      The nasal sinuses.

    • D. 

      The nasopharynx.

    • E. 

      Choanae.


  • 97. 
    The conchae
    • A. 

      Provide a surface for the sense of smell.

    • B. 

      Divide the nasal cavity into a right and a left side.

    • C. 

      Provide an opneing inot the pharynx.

    • D. 

      Create turbulence in the air to trap particulate matter in mucus.

    • E. 

      Provide an opneing to paranasal sinuses.


  • 98. 
    The opening to the nostrils are the
    • A. 

      Nasal apertures.

    • B. 

      External nares.

    • C. 

      Vestibules.

    • D. 

      Internal nares

    • E. 

      Conchae.


  • 99. 
    The portion of the pharynx that receives both air and foods is the
    • A. 

      Aeropharynx.

    • B. 

      Oropharynx.

    • C. 

      Laryngopharynx.

    • D. 

      Nasopharynx.

    • E. 

      Internal pharynx.


  • 100. 
    The auditory tubes open into the
    • A. 

      Nasopharynx.

    • B. 

      Larynx.

    • C. 

      Laryngopharynx.

    • D. 

      Nasl cavity.

    • E. 

      Oropharynx.


  • 101. 
    The palatine tonsils lie in the walls of the
    • A. 

      Larynogopharynx

    • B. 

      Nasal cavity

    • C. 

      Larynx

    • D. 

      Oropharynx

    • E. 

      Nasopharynx


  • 102. 
    The larynx contains____cartilages.
    • A. 

      Three

    • B. 

      Six

    • C. 

      A total of nine.

    • D. 

      A,B,and C

    • E. 

      A varible number of


  • 103. 
    The glottis is
    • A. 

      the opening to the pharynx.

    • B. 

      Part of the hard palate.

    • C. 

      A flap of elastic cartilage.

    • D. 

      The soft tissue that hangs off the end of the soft plalate.

    • E. 

      The opening to the larynx.


  • 104. 
    The vocal folds are located within the
    • A. 

      Nasopharynx.

    • B. 

      Trachea.

    • C. 

      Oropharynx.

    • D. 

      Larynx.

    • E. 

      Bronchi.


  • 105. 
    The elastic cartilage that covers the opening to the larynx during swallowing is the
    • A. 

      Thyroid cartilage.

    • B. 

      Corniculate cartilage.

    • C. 

      Cricoid cartilage.

    • D. 

      Cuneiform cartilage.

    • E. 

      Epiglottis.


  • 106. 
    The ring-shaped cartialge just inferior to the thyroid cartilage is the _____cartilage.
    • A. 

      Cuneiform.

    • B. 

      Epiglottis.

    • C. 

      Arytenoid.

    • D. 

      Cricoid.

    • E. 

      Corniculate.


  • 107. 
    A common site to place a tracheostomy tube is through the ligament that connects the cricoid cartilage to the____cartilage.
    • A. 

      Epiglottic

    • B. 

      Cuneiform

    • C. 

      Vestibular

    • D. 

      Thyroid

    • E. 

      Corniculate


  • 108. 
    The placement of a tube directly into the trachea to bypass the larynx is termed a(n)
    • A. 

      Tracheostomy

    • B. 

      Intubation

    • C. 

      Cathetrization

    • D. 

      Tunnelization

    • E. 

      Trachectomy


  • 109. 
    The nasal cavity is separarted from the oral cavity by the
    • A. 

      Pharyngeal septum.

    • B. 

      Hard palate.

    • C. 

      Soft palate.

    • D. 

      Cribriform plate.

    • E. 

      Interanl nares.


  • 110. 
    The airway that connects the larynx to the brochial tree is the
    • A. 

      Alveolar duct.

    • B. 

      Bronchus.

    • C. 

      Bronchiole.

    • D. 

      Laryngopharynx.

    • E. 

      Trachea.


  • 111. 
    Secondary bronchi supply air to the
    • A. 

      Alveolar duct.

    • B. 

      Alveolar.

    • C. 

      Lobules of the lungs.

    • D. 

      Lobes of the lungs.

    • E. 

      Lungs.


  • 112. 
    They branch from te traches at the carina.
    • A. 

      Terminal bronchioles.

    • B. 

      Primary bronchi.

    • C. 

      Secondary bronchi.

    • D. 

      Tertiary bronchi.

    • E. 

      Alveolar ducts.


  • 113. 
    The actual sites of gas exchange within the lungs are
    • A. 

      Terminal bronchioles.

    • B. 

      Alveoli.

    • C. 

      Pleural spaces.

    • D. 

      Bronchioloes.

    • E. 

      Interlobular septa.


  • 114. 
    Boyles law states that gas volume is
    • A. 

      Directly proportional to pressure

    • B. 

      Inversely proportional to pressure.

    • C. 

      Inversely proportional to temp.

    • D. 

      Directly proportional to temp.

    • E. 

      Both A and B


  • 115. 
    Which of the following muscles might be recruited ti increase inspired volume?
    • A. 

      Sternocleidomastoid

    • B. 

      Serratus anterior

    • C. 

      Scalenes

    • D. 

      Pectoralis minor

    • E. 

      All of the above


  • 116. 
    Pulmonary ventilation refers to the
    • A. 

      Movemnet of dissolved gases from the interstitial

    • B. 

      Movement of dissovled gases from the blood

    • C. 

      Utilization of oxygen.

    • D. 

      Movemnet of dissolved gases from the alveoli to the blood.

    • E. 

      Movemnet of air into and out the lungs.


  • 117. 
    Alveolar ventilation refers to the
    • A. 

      Movemnet of air into and out the alveoli.

    • B. 

      Movemnet of dissolved gases from the blood.

    • C. 

      Movemnet of dissolved gases from the alveoli.

    • D. 

      Movemnet of air into and out the lungs.

    • E. 

      Utilization of oxygen


  • 118. 
    At a PO2 of 70mm Hg and normal temperature and pH, hemoglobin is______percent.
    • A. 

      75

    • B. 

      50

    • C. 

      10

    • D. 

      25

    • E. 

      More than 90


  • 119. 
    Most of the carbon dioxide in the blood is transported as
    • A. 

      Carbaminonohemoglobin.

    • B. 

      Solute dissovled in the cytoplasm of the red blood cells.

    • C. 

      Bicarbonate ions.

    • D. 

      Solute dissolved in plasma.

    • E. 

      Carbonic acid.


  • 120. 
    The most important chemical regulator of respiration is
    • A. 

      Oxygen

    • B. 

      Carbon dioxide.

    • C. 

      Bicarbonate ion.

    • D. 

      Hemoglobin.

    • E. 

      Sodium ion.


  • 121. 
    The term hypercapnia refers to
    • A. 

      The cessation of breathing.

    • B. 

      Elevated P02

    • C. 

      Labored breathing.

    • D. 

      All of the above.

    • E. 

      A and B only.


  • 122. 
    Which of the following systems is (are) responsible for elimination of CO2 as waste?
    • A. 

      Respiratory

    • B. 

      Urinary

    • C. 

      Digestive

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      A and B only.


  • 123. 
    Tuberculosis results from an infection by bacterium
    • A. 

      Vancomycin-resistant streptococcus.

    • B. 

      Clostridium difficile.

    • C. 

      Straphyloccus aureus.

    • D. 

      Mycobacterium tuberculosis.

    • E. 

      Both A and C.


  • 124. 
    ______is the most common lethal inherited disease affecting individuals of Northern European descent.
    • A. 

      Cystic fibrosis.

    • B. 

      MRSA.

    • C. 

      Myasthenia ravis.

    • D. 

      Parkinsons disease.

    • E. 

      Congestive heart failure.


  • 125. 
    Each of the following is a component of the digestive tract, except the
    • A. 

      Colon.

    • B. 

      Stomach.

    • C. 

      Pharyxn.

    • D. 

      Esophagus.

    • E. 

      Bladder.


  • 126. 
    Which of the following is an accessory organ of digestion?
    • A. 

      Appendix.

    • B. 

      Spleen.

    • C. 

      Colon.

    • D. 

      Esophagus.

    • E. 

      Pancreas.


  • 127. 
    Digestion refers to the
    • A. 

      Chemical breakdown of food.

    • B. 

      Progressive dehydration of indigestible residue.

    • C. 

      Mechanical breakdown of food.

    • D. 

      B and C only.

    • E. 

      A.B.and C.


  • 128. 
    The lamina propria and mucous epithelium are components of the
    • A. 

      Serosa.

    • B. 

      Submucosa.

    • C. 

      Mucosa.

    • D. 

      Muscularis mucosa.

    • E. 

      Adevntitia.


  • 129. 
    The _____are double sheets of peritoneal membrane that suspend the visceral organs and arry nerves, lymphatics, and blood vessels.
    • A. 

      Adventitia.

    • B. 

      Mesenteries

    • C. 

      Fibrosa

    • D. 

      Serosa

    • E. 

      Lamina propria


  • 130. 
    The layer of losse cinncetive tissue that directly supports the digestive epithelium is the
    • A. 

      Lamina propria.

    • B. 

      Myentric plexua.

    • C. 

      Submucosal plexus.

    • D. 

      Muscularis mucosae.

    • E. 

      Submucosa.


  • 131. 
    A stratified squamous epithelial lining can be found in all of the following, except in the
    • A. 

      Esohagus.

    • B. 

      Oropharynx.

    • C. 

      Anal canal.

    • D. 

      Stomach.

    • E. 

      Oral cavity.


  • 132. 
    Waves of muscular contractions that propel the contents if the digestive tract are called
    • A. 

      Peristalsis.

    • B. 

      Pendular movenets.

    • C. 

      Mastication.

    • D. 

      Segmentation.

    • E. 

      Churning movements.


  • 133. 
    The funtsions of the oral cavity include all of the following, except
    • A. 

      Analysis of material

    • B. 

      Digestion of carbonhydrates

    • C. 

      Absorption of monosaccharides

    • D. 

      Mechanical processing of foos

    • E. 

      Lubrication


  • 134. 
    _______pair(s) of salivary glands secrete into the oral cavity.
    • A. 

      Six to ten

    • B. 

      Two

    • C. 

      Three

    • D. 

      Four

    • E. 

      One


  • 135. 
    A structure that helps prevent food from entering thet pharynx prematurely is the
    • A. 

      Uvula

    • B. 

      Epiglottis

    • C. 

      Palatoglossal

    • D. 

      Palatopharyngeal

    • E. 

      Pharyngeal arch


  • 136. 
    The bulk of each tooth consists of a mineralized martix similar to that of bone called
    • A. 

      Enamel.

    • B. 

      Pulp.

    • C. 

      Cementum.

    • D. 

      Dentin.

    • E. 

      Periodontium.


  • 137. 
    The crown of the tooth is covered by
    • A. 

      Pulp

    • B. 

      Dentin

    • C. 

      Periodontium

    • D. 

      Cementum

    • E. 

      Enamel


  • 138. 
    The root of the tooth is covered by
    • A. 

      Cementum

    • B. 

      Pulp

    • C. 

      Debtin

    • D. 

      The root canal

    • E. 

      Enamel


  • 139. 
    The roof of the oral cavity if formed by the
    • A. 

      Vestibule.

    • B. 

      Hard palate.

    • C. 

      Soft palate.

    • D. 

      A,B,and C

    • E. 

      B and C only


  • 140. 
    _____are blade-shaped teeth that function in cutting or clipping.
    • A. 

      Canines

    • B. 

      Cuspids

    • C. 

      Molars

    • D. 

      Bicuspids

    • E. 

      Incisors


  • 141. 
    ____are pointed teeth taht are adapted for tearing and slashing.
    • A. 

      Molars

    • B. 

      Bicuspids

    • C. 

      Premolars

    • D. 

      Cuspids

    • E. 

      Incisors


  • 142. 
    ____are teeth with flattened crowns and prominent ridges that are adapted for crushing and grinding.
    • A. 

      Dentins.

    • B. 

      Canines.

    • C. 

      Molars.

    • D. 

      Eye teeth.

    • E. 

      Cuspids.


  • 143. 
    Which region of the stomach does the esophagus connet to?
    • A. 

      Antrum

    • B. 

      Body

    • C. 

      Pylorus

    • D. 

      Cardia

    • E. 

      Fundus


  • 144. 
    The portion of the stomach that is superior to the junction between the stomach and the esophagus is the
    • A. 

      Fundus

    • B. 

      Pulorus

    • C. 

      Antrum

    • D. 

      Body

    • E. 

      Cardia


  • 145. 
    The region of the stomach that empties into the duodenum is the
    • A. 

      Body

    • B. 

      Cardia

    • C. 

      Pylorus

    • D. 

      Antrum

    • E. 

      Fundus


  • 146. 
    The enzyme pepsin digests
    • A. 

      Vitamins.

    • B. 

      Carbohydrates.

    • C. 

      Nucleic acids.

    • D. 

      Proteins.

    • E. 

      Lipids.


  • 147. 
    The villi are most developed in the
    • A. 

      Jejunum.

    • B. 

      Duodenum.

    • C. 

      Gall bladder.

    • D. 

      Cecum.

    • E. 

      Stomach.


  • 148. 
    The pylorus empties into the
    • A. 

      Jejunum.

    • B. 

      Cecum.

    • C. 

      Duodenum.

    • D. 

      Colon.

    • E. 

      Ileum.


  • 149. 
    The middle segment of the samll intestine is the
    • A. 

      Duodenum.

    • B. 

      Jejunum.

    • C. 

      Ileum.

    • D. 

      Pylorus.

    • E. 

      Cecum.


  • 150. 
    The portion of the samll intestine that attaches to the cecum is the
    • A. 

      Haustrum.

    • B. 

      Duodenum.

    • C. 

      Jejunum.

    • D. 

      Appendix.

    • E. 

      Ileum.


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