Anatomy And Physiology Final Exam 1

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  • 1. 
    In anatomic position, the dorsum of the hand is
    • A. 

      Anterior

    • B. 

      Posterior

    • C. 

      Superior

    • D. 

      Inferior


  • 2. 
    While the testis would be considered an organ of the reproductive system, the interstitial cells of Leydig produce testosterone, and so would belong to the
    • A. 

      Cardiovascular system

    • B. 

      Digestive system

    • C. 

      Urinary system

    • D. 

      Musculoskeletal system

    • E. 

      Endocrine system


  • 3. 
    The interpubic j (the joint anteriorly between the two pubic bones) is what type of articulation?
    • A. 

      Synostosis

    • B. 

      Syndesmosis

    • C. 

      Synchondrosis [proper]

    • D. 

      Symphysis

    • E. 

      Synovial


  • 4. 
    If a cell is in a solution which would cause the cell to shrink, the concentration of the solution is __________ the concentration inside the cell.
    • A. 

      Greater than

    • B. 

      Less than

    • C. 

      Equal to


  • 5. 
    Acids are
    • A. 

      Proton acceptors

    • B. 

      Catalysts

    • C. 

      Hydrogen ions

    • D. 

      Proton donors


  • 6. 
    A replacement of a cartilaginous "model" of a bone is seen in
    • A. 

      Periosteal ossification

    • B. 

      Articular ossification

    • C. 

      Intramembranous ossification

    • D. 

      Endochondral ossification


  • 7. 
    The cartilaginous plates between the diaphysis and epiphysis are the
    • A. 

      Nuchal lines

    • B. 

      Epiphyseal growth plates

    • C. 

      Periostea

    • D. 

      Medullary spaces


  • 8. 
    If the concentration of sodium ions is 142 mEq outside the cell and 10 mEq inside, the diffusional gradient (chemical gradient) would favor the movement of sodium
    • A. 

      From outside to inside

    • B. 

      From inside to outside

    • C. 

      In neither direction


  • 9. 
    Calcium ions bind to the __________ molecule in skeletal muscle cells.
    • A. 

      Actin

    • B. 

      Tropomyosin

    • C. 

      Troponin

    • D. 

      Myosin


  • 10. 
    A sacromere is
    • A. 

      Nonfunctional unit of smooth muscle.

    • B. 

      Area between two Z lines (or Z discs)

    • C. 

      Area between two intercalated discs

    • D. 

      Cross-striation seen under the light microscope


  • 11. 
    The major function of the sarcoplasmic reticulum during muscle contraction is to
    • A. 

      Make and store phosphocreatine

    • B. 

      Synthesize actin and myosin myofilaments

    • C. 

      Provide a source of myosin for the contraction process

    • D. 

      Regulate intracellular calcium concentration


  • 12. 
    Athletes sometimes complain of oxygen debt, a condition that results when insufficient oxygen is available to break down pyruvic acid completely. As a result, the pyruvic acid is converted to
    • A. 

      A strong base

    • B. 

      Stearic acid

    • C. 

      Hydrochloric acid

    • D. 

      Lactic acid


  • 13. 
    A muscle that provides the major force for producing a specific movement is called a(n
    • A. 

      Synergist

    • B. 

      Agonist

    • C. 

      Antagonist

    • D. 

      Fixator


  • 14. 
    The elaborate network of membranes in skeletal and cardiac muscle that functions in calcium storage is the
    • A. 

      Sarcoplasmic reticulum

    • B. 

      Mitochondrion

    • C. 

      Intermediate filament network

    • D. 

      Myofibrilar network


  • 15. 
    After nerve stimulation of the muscle fiber has ceased, the calcium
    • A. 

      Is destroyed by cholinesterase

    • B. 

      Is chemically bound to the filaments

    • C. 

      Levels in the sarcoplasm drop

    • D. 

      Is actively pumped into the extracellular fluid for storage until the next contraction


  • 16. 
    Fast oxidative fibers contain
    • A. 

      Very little myoglobin

    • B. 

      More mitochondria than fast glycolytic fibers

    • C. 

      Enough ATP to sustain rapid contractions for five minutes


  • 17. 
    A large motor unit
    • A. 

      Has multiple axons

    • B. 

      Exhibits very delicate muscle control

    • C. 

      Is found in the quadriceps m of the thigh


  • 18. 
    Rigor mortis occurs because
    • A. 

      The sarcoplasmic reticulum pumps the ATP out of the sarcoplasm

    • B. 

      Sodium ions leak out of the myofibril

    • C. 

      ATP is required to release the cross-bridge assembly

    • D. 

      Proteins are beginning to break down (decay), thus preventing a flow of calcium ions


  • 19. 
    The T-tubules
    • A. 

      Stabilize G- and F-actin

    • B. 

      Transmit sarcolemmal depolarization to the interior of the fiber

    • C. 

      Hold cross-bridges in place in a resting muscle

    • D. 

      Synthesize ATP to provide energy for muscle contraction


  • 20. 
    In muscle contraction, calcium ions
    • A. 

      Act as tertiary messengers

    • B. 

      Reestablish glycogen stores

    • C. 

      Bind to regulatory sites on troponin, changing the molecule’s configuration

    • D. 

      Initiate the conversion of carbon dioxide to oxygen for storage


  • 21. 
    In a concentric (isotonic) contraction, the muscle
    • A. 

      Changes in length and moves the "load"

    • B. 

      Does not change in length but increases tension

    • C. 

      Never converts pyruvate to lactate

    • D. 

      Rapidly resynthesizes creatine phosphate and ATP


  • 22. 
    ATPase activity is found where?
    • A. 

      Troponin

    • B. 

      Myosin head

    • C. 

      G-actin binding site

    • D. 

      Tropomyosin


  • 23. 
    The connective tissue investment about each fascicle of a gross muscle is the
    • A. 

      Endomysium

    • B. 

      Perimysium

    • C. 

      Epimysium


  • 24. 
    The thin filaments are attached to the
    • A. 

      H zone

    • B. 

      Thick filaments via their troponin molecules

    • C. 

      Z-line


  • 25. 
    What is the commonest neurotransmitter used to excite the muscle fiber?
    • A. 

      Dopamine

    • B. 

      GABA

    • C. 

      Acetylcholine

    • D. 

      Norepinephrine


  • 26. 
    Where does the nerve innervating the skeletal muscle fiber have its terminus?
    • A. 

      Closest to the origin of the muscle

    • B. 

      In the middle of the fiber

    • C. 

      Closest to the insertion of the muscle

    • D. 

      Wherever seemed best at the time


  • 27. 
    Direct-acting neurotransmitters
    • A. 

      Require cAMP

    • B. 

      Mediate very slow responses

    • C. 

      Open ion channels to provoke rapid responses

    • D. 

      Act through second messengers


  • 28. 
    The role of acetylcholinesterase is to
    • A. 

      Act as a transmitting agent

    • B. 

      Amplify or enhance the effect of ACh

    • C. 

      Destroy ACh a brief period of time after its release by the axonal endings

    • D. 

      Stimulate the production of serotonin


  • 29. 
    The substance released at axonal endings to propagate a nervous impulse is
    • A. 

      An ion

    • B. 

      A neurotransmitter

    • C. 

      Cholinesterase

    • D. 

      An abiogenic amine


  • 30. 
    A neuron that has as its primary function the job of connecting other neurons is
    • A. 

      An afferent neuron

    • B. 

      An efferent neuron

    • C. 

      An association neuron

    • D. 

      A glial cell


  • 31. 
    The sodium-potassium pump pumps __________  sodium ions __________ the cell and __________  potassium ions __________.
    • A. 

      Three | outside | two | inside

    • B. 

      Two | outside | three | inside

    • C. 

      Three | inside | two | outside

    • D. 

      Two | inside | three | outside


  • 32. 
    An action potential
    • A. 

      Is essential for impulse propagation

    • B. 

      Involves the influx of negative ions to depolarize the membrane

    • C. 

      Is initiated by potassium ion movement

    • D. 

      Involves impulse propagation dependent on chemically gated ion channels


  • 33. 
    Select the correct statement about synapses.
    • A. 

      Cells with interconnected cytoplasm are chemically coupled

    • B. 

      The release of neurotransmitter molecules gives cells the property of being electrically coupled

    • C. 

      Neurotransmitter receptors are located on the axons of cells

    • D. 

      The synaptic cleft prevents an impulse from being transmitted directly from one neuron to another.


  • 34. 
    The period after an initial stimulus when a neuron is not sensitive to another stimulus is the
    • A. 

      Resting period

    • B. 

      Repolarization

    • C. 

      Depolarization

    • D. 

      Refractory period


  • 35. 
    Saltatory conduction is made possible by
    • A. 

      The myelin sheath

    • B. 

      Large nerve fibers

    • C. 

      Diphasic impulses

    • D. 

      Erratic transmission of nerve impulses


  • 36. 
    All the following are true about graded potentials except that they
    • A. 

      Are short-lived

    • B. 

      Can form on receptor endings

    • C. 

      Increase amplitude as they move away from the stimulus point

    • D. 

      Can be called postsynaptic potentials


  • 37. 
    Which of these cells forms myelin sheaths within the central nervous system?
    • A. 

      Perikarya

    • B. 

      The epineurium

    • C. 

      Oligodendrocytes

    • D. 

      Ependymal cells


  • 38. 
    The voltage-gated potassium channel has how many gates?
    • A. 

      One

    • B. 

      Two

    • C. 

      Three


  • 39. 
    An action potential generated in a membrane will, if possible
    • A. 

      Propagate in both directions

    • B. 

      Diminish in intensity gradually

    • C. 

      Stay localized to the point of stimulation


  • 40. 
    Which ions are moving into and out of the cell during depolarization?
    • A. 

      Sodium

    • B. 

      Potassium

    • C. 

      Both of these

    • D. 

      None


  • 41. 
    Which of these values would represent reverse polarization, given a resting membrane potential of -85 mV?
    • A. 

      –55 mV

    • B. 

      +35 mV

    • C. 

      –90 mV


  • 42. 
    An inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP) is associated with
    • A. 

      A change in sodium ion permeability

    • B. 

      Hyperpolarization

    • C. 

      Opening of voltage-gated channels


  • 43. 
    The brainstem includes the
    • A. 

      Cerebral hemispheres, midbrain, pons, and medulla

    • B. 

      Midbrain, pons, and medulla

    • C. 

      Diencephalon, pons, cerebellum, and medulla

    • D. 

      Midbrain alone


  • 44. 
    The subarachnoid space lies between which two layers of the meninges?
    • A. 

      Arachnoid and epidura

    • B. 

      Arachnoid and pia

    • C. 

      Arachnoid and dura

    • D. 

      Dura and epidura


  • 45. 
    The vital centers for the control of heart rate, respiration, and blood pressure are found in the
    • A. 

      Pons

    • B. 

      Medulla

    • C. 

      Diencephalon

    • D. 

      Midbrain


  • 46. 
    The outermost meninx is the
    • A. 

      Dura

    • B. 

      Arachnoid

    • C. 

      Pia matter


  • 47. 
    If the posterior part of the neural tube were to fail to close properly
    • A. 

      Spinal bifida might result

    • B. 

      Cranial nerves would fail to form

    • C. 

      There would be no hindbrain


  • 48. 
    Which of these is not a midbrain structure?
    • A. 

      Third ventricle

    • B. 

      Cerebral peduncles

    • C. 

      Corpora quadrigemina

    • D. 

      Red nucleus


  • 49. 
    The brain area that regulates activities that control the state of wakefulness or alertness of the cerebral cortex is the
    • A. 

      Thalamus

    • B. 

      Reticular formation

    • C. 

      Pyramids

    • D. 

      Limbic system


  • 50. 
    The functions of the vestibulocochlear nerves include
    • A. 

      Vision and hearing

    • B. 

      Smell and taste

    • C. 

      Hearing and balance

    • D. 

      Fine and gross muscle control


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