Security Forces CDC's Vol 1 (5 Level)

100 Questions  I  By Airmangill
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Security Forces CDC's VOL 1 (5 Level)

  
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  • 1. 
    What year was the name of the career field changed to "Security Police"?
    • A. 

      1971

    • B. 

      1985

    • C. 

      1966

    • D. 

      1950


  • 2. 
    In 1971, Security Forces was split into two seperate functions, what were these functions?
    • A. 

      Police dog units & law enforcement specialties

    • B. 

      Law enforcement & security specialties

    • C. 

      Security & force protection elements

    • D. 

      Security teams & security elements


  • 3. 
    The law enforcement specialty was responsible for providing...
    • A. 

      Weapons storage area security

    • B. 

      The protection of personnel only

    • C. 

      Duties associated with physical security

    • D. 

      The typical police response to safeguard personnel and property


  • 4. 
    The Vietnam conflict pointed out the need for...
    • A. 

      Armored vehicles in support of base defense

    • B. 

      Additional security personnel

    • C. 

      Less military working dogs

    • D. 

      Revised security thinking


  • 5. 
    The death of SSgt. Terrance Jensen had what effect?
    • A. 

      Air Police were no longer posted on the perimeter of air bases

    • B. 

      Within 2 months, 149 additional K9 teams were shipped to Vietnam

    • C. 

      Air Police leadership was no longer willing to use K9's in base defense roles

    • D. 

      It had an adverse public reaction to what Air Force Air Police could accomplish


  • 6. 
    Operation SAFESIDE provided Security Police with...
    • A. 

      Early redeployment from Vietnam

    • B. 

      Additional communications equipment

    • C. 

      Opportunities to cross-train into other career fields

    • D. 

      Training in light infantry tactics and special weapons


  • 7. 
    After Vietnam, what was the next large scale war that Security Police found themselves involved in?
    • A. 

      Operation NORTHERN WATCH

    • B. 

      Operation DESERT STORM

    • C. 

      Operation JUST CAUSE

    • D. 

      The Balkan Conflict


  • 8. 
    Prior to March 1971, basic training graduates could be assigned to SP units without...
    • A. 

      Weapons qualifications

    • B. 

      Formal technical training

    • C. 

      Meeting Air Force fitness standards

    • D. 

      Recieving their full clothing allowance


  • 9. 
    When SF Members perform law enforcement functions, they are referred to as...
    • A. 

      Force Protectors

    • B. 

      Security Police

    • C. 

      Police Officers

    • D. 

      Defenders


  • 10. 
    The term "SF Member" is used when...
    • A. 

      Performing law enforcement functions

    • B. 

      Communicating on a tactical radio

    • C. 

      Performing security functions

    • D. 

      Addressing each other


  • 11. 
    The SF Shield serves as a figure of...
    • A. 

      History

    • B. 

      Jurisdiction

    • C. 

      Legal authority

    • D. 

      Symbol of power


  • 12. 
    The Security Police Shield started out as a/an...
    • A. 

      Distinctive hat worn only by Military Police

    • B. 

      Military Police/Air Police brassard

    • C. 

      4x4 laminated ID card

    • D. 

      Air Police function badge


  • 13. 
    When was the first trial issue shield approved?
    • A. 

      1943

    • B. 

      1945

    • C. 

      1950

    • D. 

      1957


  • 14. 
    What AFSC is awarded upon completion of the Military Working Dog Handler apprentice course?
    • A. 

      7CO31M

    • B. 

      3PO31B

    • C. 

      3PO31A

    • D. 

      3MWDX1


  • 15. 
    Airman Leadership School must be completed prior to...
    • A. 

      The base Education Office

    • B. 

      Assuming the rank of SSgt

    • C. 

      Awarding of the 5 skill level

    • D. 

      Becoming eligible for Weighted Airman Promotion System (WAPS) testing


  • 16. 
    Adhering to what form(s) of guidance ensures mission accomplishment?
    • A. 

      Code of Conduct only

    • B. 

      SF General Orders only

    • C. 

      Code of Conduct and SF General Orders

    • D. 

      Performance Fitness Examination


  • 17. 
    What are the cornerstones of our profession?
    • A. 

      Integrity and Behavior

    • B. 

      Ethics and Attitude

    • C. 

      Attitude and Behavior

    • D. 

      Ethics and Integrity


  • 18. 
    You have failed to follow what general conduct guideline if you issued a ticket based on the violater's race?
    • A. 

      Seeking favors

    • B. 

      Exercising authority

    • C. 

      Assistance to others

    • D. 

      Personal attitudes


  • 19. 
    Your conduct when apprehending suspects should be in accordance with...
    • A. 

      AFI 31-205, The Air Force Corrections Program

    • B. 

      AFI 31-206, Security Forces Investigation Program

    • C. 

      AFI 31-207, Arming and Use of Force by Air Force Personnel

    • D. 

      AFI 31-301, Air Base Defense


  • 20. 
    How many different job titles are normally present in the typical unit structure?
    • A. 

      5

    • B. 

      12

    • C. 

      34

    • D. 

      40


  • 21. 
    The typical SF command section includes all of the following except...
    • A. 

      Superintendent, Resources and Training

    • B. 

      Standardization and Evaluation

    • C. 

      Chief, Security Forces

    • D. 

      First Sergeant


  • 22. 
    When officers are in charge of flights (SFO A/B/C/D), they are designated...
    • A. 

      Flight Administrators

    • B. 

      Flight Commanders

    • C. 

      Operations Officers

    • D. 

      Flight Chiefs


  • 23. 
    The term "Every Airman is a sensor...contributing to overall base defense" is the concept of...
    • A. 

      Principles of War

    • B. 

      Rules of Engagement

    • C. 

      Intergrated Base Defense

    • D. 

      Defense Force Doctrine


  • 24. 
    During base defense the S-3 function can be compared to...
    • A. 

      Base defense supply

    • B. 

      Commanders support staff

    • C. 

      The Operations Officer position

    • D. 

      Intelligence Analyst position


  • 25. 
    The primary task of the S-4 during combat operations is to...
    • A. 

      Armory duties

    • B. 

      Supply and resupply

    • C. 

      Intelligence gathering

    • D. 

      Radio/telephone operator duties


  • 26. 
    The authority,capacity,  power and right of the military to police their own is known as...
    • A. 

      Military presence

    • B. 

      Military jurisdiction

    • C. 

      Legal precedence

    • D. 

      Military law


  • 27. 
    Which legal document contains law that applies to all branches of the U.S. Armed Forces?
    • A. 

      UCMJ

    • B. 

      US Constitution

    • C. 

      Federal Statutes

    • D. 

      International law


  • 28. 
    Federal statutes are laws passed by Congress and are contained in the...
    • A. 

      Bilateral and multilateral agreements

    • B. 

      Status of Force Agreements

    • C. 

      US Constitution

    • D. 

      US Code


  • 29. 
    Laws in the US Code that directly affect the Air Force are covered in...
    • A. 

      Title 2

    • B. 

      Titles 4-6

    • C. 

      Title 10

    • D. 

      Title 18


  • 30. 
    US military authority in host nation territories is governed by...
    • A. 

      Federal statutes

    • B. 

      US Constitution

    • C. 

      Article 2/UCMJ

    • D. 

      Status of Forces Agreements (SOFA)


  • 31. 
    What example of international law was reached at the Hague and Geneva Conventions?
    • A. 

      Law of Armed Conflict

    • B. 

      MCM Title 10 statutes

    • C. 

      SOFA agreements

    • D. 

      Rules of War


  • 32. 
    The types of jurisdiction found on US government installations are...
    • A. 

      Concurrent, current & proprietary

    • B. 

      Partial, exclusive, bilateral & concurrent

    • C. 

      Exclusive, concurrent, partial & propietary

    • D. 

      Exclusive, concurrent, propietary & multilateral


  • 33. 
    When concurrent jurisdiction exists and there is a conflict with the state...
    • A. 

      The federal government prevails under the Supremacy Clause

    • B. 

      The federal government must share prosecution rights

    • C. 

      National security concerns must take precedence

    • D. 

      The state has priority to prosecute


  • 34. 
    When an occupying power exercises all authority over an occupied territory it is known as...
    • A. 

      A proprietary government

    • B. 

      A military government

    • C. 

      Nationalist regime

    • D. 

      A military state


  • 35. 
    Martial law is military jurisdiction over the civilian population...
    • A. 

      When directed by the Joint Chiefs of Staff

    • B. 

      During government elections

    • C. 

      When declared by state governors

    • D. 

      In a time of emergency


  • 36. 
    Which type of martial law exists when military authority totally replaces civil authority?
    • A. 

      Qualified

    • B. 

      Exclusive

    • C. 

      Military law

    • D. 

      Absolute


  • 37. 
    During absolute martial law, Security Forces members have the authority to...
    • A. 

      Detain civilians

    • B. 

      Apprehend all offenders

    • C. 

      Apprehend military personnel

    • D. 

      Detain and prosecute offenders


  • 38. 
    Which UCMJ article gives you the authority to apprehend military offenders?
    • A. 

      Article 134

    • B. 

      Article 7b

    • C. 

      Article 1

    • D. 

      Article 5


  • 39. 
    Title 18, Section 1382 of the US Code authorizes you to...
    • A. 

      Act in an official law enforcement capacity off base

    • B. 

      Apprehend civilians for on base offenses

    • C. 

      Release military offenders to supervisors

    • D. 

      Detain civilians for on base offenses


  • 40. 
    Under exclusive jurisdiction you normally relinquish detained civilians to...
    • A. 

      US Army Military Police

    • B. 

      US Marshals

    • C. 

      City police

    • D. 

      County sheriff's


  • 41. 
    What right could you envoke when apprehending any person for breech of peace?
    • A. 

      Code of Conduct

    • B. 

      Title 10, US Code

    • C. 

      Self-defense right

    • D. 

      Citizens right of arrest


  • 42. 
    You can research the provisions of the Posse Comitatus Act in...
    • A. 

      The UCMJ

    • B. 

      The Internal Security Act of 1950

    • C. 

      Title 18, Section 1385 US Code

    • D. 

      The Manual for Courts-Martial


  • 43. 
    The Defense Authorization Act authorizes us to assist civil authorities by providing...
    • A. 

      Air Force vehicles and fuel

    • B. 

      Funding for civilian law enforcement use

    • C. 

      Information, equipment, facilities & training

    • D. 

      Security Forces with civilian law enforcement positions


  • 44. 
    Military working dogs are most effective when they are visible to the public; we ensure this by...
    • A. 

      Conducting periodic public demonstrations

    • B. 

      Patrolling MWD's in civilian housing areas

    • C. 

      Randomly searching vehicles at base gates

    • D. 

      Searching elementary schools


  • 45. 
    MWD's should be kept on-leash except when the must...
    • A. 

      Search occupied buildings

    • B. 

      Bite and hold multiple suspects

    • C. 

      Search unoccupied buildings and disperse crowds

    • D. 

      Bite and hol a suspect or search an unoccupied building


  • 46. 
    Before releasing a MWD to search buildings, the handler must...
    • A. 

      Give a verbal warning stating they are about to realeas the dog

    • B. 

      Loudly announce their intentions to order the dog to bite

    • C. 

      Place the MWD on a long leash

    • D. 

      Have the dog bark three times


  • 47. 
    When conducting building checks the MWD is normally...
    • A. 

      On-leash

    • B. 

      Off-Leash

    • C. 

      On a long leash

    • D. 

      Left in the vehicle


  • 48. 
    The MWD team should always approach buildings from the...
    • A. 

      Upwind side

    • B. 

      Downwind side

    • C. 

      Crosswind direction

    • D. 

      Front side or street side


  • 49. 
    Who determines whether a MWD will search the building on or off-leash?
    • A. 

      On duty supervisor and handler

    • B. 

      Chief, Security Forces

    • C. 

      Operations officer

    • D. 

      Kennel master


  • 50. 
    The MWD's greatest advantage during security operations is...
    • A. 

      The MWD's ability to see through thick fog and rainy conditions

    • B. 

      Detection capabilities during periods of limited visibility

    • C. 

      The team's ability to work alone

    • D. 

      It's quick response capability


  • 51. 
    What is the MWD's role when the riot control team is apprehending demonstrators?
    • A. 

      Protect members of the apprehension team

    • B. 

      Dispersing the remaining crowd off-leash

    • C. 

      Biting and holding demonstrators

    • D. 

      Apprehending rioters


  • 52. 
    Hostile intent is best described as...
    • A. 

      Unarmed demonstrators

    • B. 

      Rioters with no weapons

    • C. 

      Verbal warnings of hostile actions

    • D. 

      The imminent threat of force to US forces


  • 53. 
    What are the Rules of Engagement elements of self defense?
    • A. 

      Necessity and authority

    • B. 

      Immediacy and controlled

    • C. 

      Proportionality and necessity

    • D. 

      Proportionality and immediacy


  • 54. 
    Proportionality of force to counter hostile acts must be...
    • A. 

      Of reasonible intensity, duration and magnitude

    • B. 

      Of the maximum duration under Rules of War

    • C. 

      Of the appropriate non-lethal means

    • D. 

      Used only in defense of foreign nationals


  • 55. 
    A written order by a competant military commander ordering a search is called a/an...
    • A. 

      Consent search

    • B. 

      Search warrant

    • C. 

      Command authority

    • D. 

      Search authorization


  • 56. 
    Who can issue off base search procedures in foreign countries?
    • A. 

      Air Force installation commanders

    • B. 

      Joint rear area commanders

    • C. 

      Staff Judge Advocate

    • D. 

      US Magistrate


  • 57. 
    What exists when there is reason to believe that evidence sought is located in a specific place?
    • A. 

      Plain view rule

    • B. 

      Probable cause

    • C. 

      Lawful searching

    • D. 

      Exigent circumstances


  • 58. 
    A search affidavit of "Probable Cause" supporting your request for...
    • A. 

      Search authorization

    • B. 

      Consent to search

    • C. 

      Plain view seizure

    • D. 

      Authority to Courts-Martial


  • 59. 
    A person who exercises control over property given to them for safe keeping...
    • A. 

      Not give consent to search

    • B. 

      Grant consent to search that property

    • C. 

      May give consent to search that property only

    • D. 

      May allow another person to grant consent


  • 60. 
    Under what conditions during a lawful stop can a frisk be conducted?
    • A. 

      The person stopped appears to be in pain

    • B. 

      The person shoplifted a carton of cigarettes

    • C. 

      You reasonably believe the person is armed and dangerous

    • D. 

      You believe the person commited a hit and run traffic violation


  • 61. 
    Probable cause is not required when searching as a result of...
    • A. 

      Speeding violations

    • B. 

      Lawful apprehensions

    • C. 

      Dress and appearance violations

    • D. 

      The execution of a search authorization


  • 62. 
    What are the common reasons for an interviewee's reluctance to talk?
    • A. 

      Biased toward police, resentment and fear of involvement

    • B. 

      Inconvenience, resentment and fear of involvement

    • C. 

      Fear of involvement and biased toward police

    • D. 

      Resentment and inconvenience


  • 63. 
    If a witness is reluctant to talk because of the possible reprisals they are experiencing...
    • A. 

      Prejudice

    • B. 

      Resentment

    • C. 

      Inconvenience

    • D. 

      Fear of involvement


  • 64. 
    Which type of interviewee is interviewed to develop facts?
    • A. 

      Suspects

    • B. 

      Victims

    • C. 

      Witnesses

    • D. 

      Prosecutors


  • 65. 
    The four step interview process includes preparing, planning, closing and...
    • A. 

      Conducting

    • B. 

      Witnessing

    • C. 

      Investigating

    • D. 

      Interrogating


  • 66. 
    What are the types of interview approaches?
    • A. 

      Indirect, alternating

    • B. 

      Reverse, direct, indirect

    • C. 

      Direct, indirect, reverse

    • D. 

      Alternating, direct, indirect


  • 67. 
    Investigative notes should contain the case number, date, person interviewed and...
    • A. 

      Location of incident

    • B. 

      Other investigators

    • C. 

      Time of interview

    • D. 

      Room number


  • 68. 
    When does your pre-trial preperation begin?
    • A. 

      Trial council contacts you

    • B. 

      You are notified of the courts-martial

    • C. 

      When you advise the suspect of their rights

    • D. 

      As soon as you are dispatched to an incident


  • 69. 
    Investigators will conduct pre-trial preperation with...
    • A. 

      The Chief, Security Forces

    • B. 

      The staff judge advocate

    • C. 

      Witnesses to the case

    • D. 

      The victim and suspect


  • 70. 
    When should you give your opinion during court proceedings?
    • A. 

      During pre-trial preperation

    • B. 

      When answering prosecution questions

    • C. 

      Only if asked to do so by the prosecution or defense

    • D. 

      Always present your professional opinion as fact


  • 71. 
    The budget process is broken down into two centers of control...
    • A. 

      Supply resources and responsibility center

    • B. 

      Resources and responsibility center

    • C. 

      Man power and cost centers

    • D. 

      Cost centers and responsibility center


  • 72. 
    Who is normally responsible for the responsibility center?
    • A. 

      Squadron commander

    • B. 

      Operations Officer

    • C. 

      Superintendent

    • D. 

      NCOIC


  • 73. 
    The Unit Manpower Document (UMD) is the primary document that reflects?
    • A. 

      AFSC

    • B. 

      Members PRP status

    • C. 

      Individual position number

    • D. 

      Positions authorized to accomplish the mission


  • 74. 
    What is the main reason supply discipline is mandatory?
    • A. 

      Store, maintain, operate and dispense material on an as needed basis

    • B. 

      Operate, dispense and protect government bench stock items for future resale.

    • C. 

      Maintain adequate stock levels, deplete old supplies, and free up necessary storage areas.

    • D. 

      Conserve, protect, and maintain available government supplies, equipment, and real property.


  • 75. 
    What does the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFEPT) identify?
    • A. 

      Mandatory education and training requirements only

    • B. 

      On duty life cycle education and training requirements

    • C. 

      Just in time education and training requirements, both on and off duty

    • D. 

      Life cycle education and training requirements, both mandatory and desirable.


  • 76. 
    What is the responsibility of the Security Forces Manager (SFM)?
    • A. 

      The NCOIC for the Stan-Eval program

    • B. 

      The commander for the Stan-Eval program

    • C. 

      The superintendent for the Stan-Eval program

    • D. 

      The Operations Officer for the Stan-Eval Program


  • 77. 
    Stan-Evals will be conducted within?
    • A. 

      120 duty days after an individual completes qualification training

    • B. 

      90 duty days after an individual completes qualification training

    • C. 

      60 duty days after an individual completes qualification training

    • D. 

      30 duty days after an individual completes qualification training


  • 78. 
    The goal of the Air Force Law Enforcement Terminal System (AFLETS)) program is to provide what?
    • A. 

      The same capabilities as all civilian police

    • B. 

      Law Enforcement with new technology

    • C. 

      Law Enforcement with new computers

    • D. 

      Prompt police information through the use of technology


  • 79. 
    What are the responsibilities of The Chief of Security Forces (CFS)?
    • A. 

      Selecting/training civilian officials on the AFLETS program

    • B. 

      Selecting/training of personnell operating the AFLETS system.

    • C. 

      Managing the local NLETS program

    • D. 

      Managing the local NCIC program


  • 80. 
    Computerized Criminal Histories and the Interstate Identification Index are documented in what federal system?
    • A. 

      Logs controlled under the Privacy Act of 1972

    • B. 

      A federal system of logs controlled under the Privacy Act of 1973

    • C. 

      A federal system of records controlled under the Privacy Act of 1974

    • D. 

      A federal system of records controlled under the Privacy Act of 1975


  • 81. 
    All personel assigned against a Unit Type Code manpower position will...
    • A. 

      Receive firearms training based on their duty tasking

    • B. 

      Receive firearms training based on their rank and status

    • C. 

      Receive firearms training based on use of force requirements

    • D. 

      Receive firearms training based on their assigned arming group (Group A, B, or C)


  • 82. 
    Individual weapons training programs are outlined in?
    • A. 

      AFI 31-201, Security Police Procedures

    • B. 

      AFI 31-101, Installation Security Programs

    • C. 

      AFMAN 31-201, Volume 1, Security Forces History and Organization

    • D. 

      AFMAN 36-226, Volume 1, Combat Arms Training Programs, Individual Weapons


  • 83. 
    What form is used for personnel who use firearms on a temporary basis?
    • A. 

      AF Form 522, Ground Weapon Training Data

    • B. 

      AF Form 629, Small Arms Hand Receipt

    • C. 

      AF Form 1297, Temporary Issue Receipt

    • D. 

      AF Form 797, Job Qualifications Standard


  • 84. 
    The use of prowords in radio communications help...
    • A. 

      Aids in transmitting and reception

    • B. 

      Clarify understanding of the message being sent

    • C. 

      Distract and confuse unauthorized listeners

    • D. 

      Shorten sending time and to simplify clear reception


  • 85. 
    Persons will not be tasked to supervise inmates if they...
    • A. 

      Are of the same sex as the inmate

    • B. 

      Are of the opposite sex of the inmate

    • C. 

      Have an unfavorable information file

    • D. 

      Are personally involved with the inmate


  • 86. 
    Corrections staff personnel should complete or be scheduled to attend...
    • A. 

      Service Corrections course (or civilian equivelant)

    • B. 

      Civilian Corrections course only

    • C. 

      Base corrections course only

    • D. 

      State Corrections Certification Course


  • 87. 
    All inmates are assigned a custody status and classifed as either...
    • A. 

      Pre trial detainee, post trial inmates or casual

    • B. 

      Pre-trial detainee, post-trial detainee

    • C. 

      Post trial inmate or trial inmate

    • D. 

      Pre-trial casual or Casual


  • 88. 
    All inmates will have an initial confinement examination within...
    • A. 

      24 hours

    • B. 

      48 hours

    • C. 

      72 hours, or as soon as possible

    • D. 

      24 hours, or the next duty day


  • 89. 
    What can you use to clean your mouth effectively in the absence of other means?
    • A. 

      Saltwater

    • B. 

      Sulfuric Acid

    • C. 

      Tree branches

    • D. 

      Weapons cleaning brush


  • 90. 
    What are the four major groups for the transmission of communicable diseases?
    • A. 

      Contact, internal, water born, insect and animal born

    • B. 

      Contact, external, water born, insect and animal born

    • C. 

      Contact, inhaling, insect, insect and animal born

    • D. 

      Contact, intestinal, water born, insect and animal born


  • 91. 
    What is one of the ways you can prevent the introduction of diseases into your body?
    • A. 

      Eating baby food while in the field

    • B. 

      Not eating and drinking only water

    • C. 

      Eating and drinking from approved sources only

    • D. 

      Treating contaminated water with salt and vinegar


  • 92. 
    An effective way of defeating crawling insects is...
    • A. 

      Not wearing socks

    • B. 

      Spraying your boots with Windex

    • C. 

      Not washing your pants bottoms

    • D. 

      Tucking your pants into the tops of your socks and boots


  • 93. 
    What can you use to keep your clothes dry in the field?
    • A. 

      Water proof clothing bags

    • B. 

      Change them frequently

    • C. 

      Tree branches

    • D. 

      Mosquito nets


  • 94. 
    What is considered the most deadly hazard of the Security Forces career field?
    • A. 

      Fires

    • B. 

      Stress

    • C. 

      Major accidents

    • D. 

      Traffic accidents


  • 95. 
    There are many causes of stress, however, the main source of stress can be found where?
    • A. 

      Personal life and job

    • B. 

      Personal life and nightclubs

    • C. 

      Job and recreational activities

    • D. 

      Job and off duty employment


  • 96. 
    What is the first step in finding ways to reduce stress?
    • A. 

      Finding the right stress medication

    • B. 

      Recognizing stressors

    • C. 

      Running daily

    • D. 

      Relaxing


  • 97. 
    Most often suicidal persons are overwhelmed with...
    • A. 

      Too much money, divorce, and work problems

    • B. 

      Pending legal action, work problems, or having fun

    • C. 

      Loss of a loved one, mental health, and divorce

    • D. 

      Relationship difficulties, divorce, and going on vacation


  • 98. 
    Miroorganisms in blood that cause disease are?
    • A. 

      "A" cells

    • B. 

      White blood cells

    • C. 

      Cancer causing cells

    • D. 

      Blood born pathogens


  • 99. 
    The single most important source of disease transmission in the workplace is?
    • A. 

      Sweat

    • B. 

      Blood

    • C. 

      Syringes

    • D. 

      Body Fluids


  • 100. 
    What tactics reduce exposure to blood borne pathogens on the job?
    • A. 

      Employee work practices, personal protective equipment, and housekeeping.

    • B. 

      Hepatitis B vaccine, misuse of personal protective equipment

    • C. 

      Personal protective equipment, unsanitary housekeeping

    • D. 

      Unsafe work practices, Hepatitis B vaccine


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