3d1x3 CDC Volume 1 Ure

100 Questions  I  By Ihatecdc
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CDC Quizzes & Trivia
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Questions and Answers

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  • 1. 
    (001)  What reason for modulation involves modulating low frequency signals for transmission over long distances?
    • A. 

      Spectrum conservation

    • B. 

      Channel allocation

    • C. 

      Ease of radiation

    • D. 

      Companding


  • 2. 
    (001)  What are the three general categories used to produce modulation in radio frequency (RF) transmission today?
    • A. 

      Binary amplitude shift keying, frequency shift keying, and phase shift keying.

    • B. 

      Pulse amplitude, pulse width, and pulse position.

    • C. 

      Amplitude, frequency, and phase.

    • D. 

      Analog, digital, and shift keying.


  • 3. 
    (002)  When the modulating signal and carrier signal are combined within a modulator, the output signal contains a/an
    • A. 

      Modulating signal, upper sideband, lower sideband.

    • B. 

      Carrier, upper sideband, and lower sideband.

    • C. 

      Upper sideband and modulating signal.

    • D. 

      Carrier and modulating signal.


  • 4. 
    (002)  If a carrier frequency of 1 MHz and a modulating tone of 10 kHz goes to the modulator, the output signal includes
    • A. 

      1.01 MHz, 1 MHz, and 0.99 MHz.

    • B. 

      1.1 MHz, 1 MHz, and 0.9 MHz.

    • C. 

      1.11 MHz, 1 MHz, 0.99 MHz.

    • D. 

      1.111 MHz, 1 MHz, 0.999 MHz


  • 5. 
    (002)  If the modulating audio signal is 10kHz wide, what is the bandwidth of the transmitted amplitude modulated signal?
    • A. 

      5 kHz

    • B. 

      10 kHz

    • C. 

      15 kHz

    • D. 

      20 kHz


  • 6. 
    (002)  The bandwidth of an amplitude modulated signal is
    • A. 

      Two times the modulating signal.

    • B. 

      The same as the modulating signal.

    • C. 

      Determined by modulation index.

    • D. 

      Defined in terms of maximum amount of modulation.


  • 7. 
    (002)  The amount of effect or change that the intelligence has on the carrier in an amplitude modulated signal is expressed as the
    • A. 

      Percent of modulation.

    • B. 

      Modulation index.

    • C. 

      Bandwidth.

    • D. 

      Deviation.


  • 8. 
    (002)  Which statement concerning bandwidth is true?
    • A. 

      Overmodulating increases bandwidth due to the production of harmonics.

    • B. 

      Undermodulating increases bandwidth due to the production of harmonics.

    • C. 

      Overmodulating increases bandwidth due to the output's increased amplitude.

    • D. 

      Undermodulating increases bandwidth due to the output's increased amplitude.


  • 9. 
    (002)  Reducing modulation to less than 100 percent gives
    • A. 

      More total power.

    • B. 

      A reduction in carrier power.

    • C. 

      No reduction in carrier power.

    • D. 

      A reduction in carrier and sideband power.


  • 10. 
    (003)  In frequency modulation (FM), the amount of oscillator frequency change is
    • A. 

      Inversely proportional to the amplitude of the modulating signal.

    • B. 

      Directly proportional to the amplitude of the modulating signal.

    • C. 

      Inversely proportional to the phase of the modulating signal.

    • D. 

      Directly proportional to the phase of the modulating signal.


  • 11. 
    (003)  In frequency modulation (FM), what is considered a significant sideband?
    • A. 

      Sidebands containing at least 1 percent of the total transmitted power.

    • B. 

      Sidebands containing at least 3 percent of the total transmitted power.

    • C. 

      Sidebands containing at least 10 percent of the total transmitted power.

    • D. 

      Sidebands containing at least 0.1 percent of the total transmitted power.


  • 12. 
    (003)  What is the formula to find the modulating index?
    • A. 

      Deviation divided by frequency of modulation.

    • B. 

      Deviation times frequency of modulation.

    • C. 

      Sideband divided by carrier frequency.

    • D. 

      Sideband times carrier frequency.


  • 13. 
    (004)  In phase modulation (PM), the carrier's
    • A. 

      Phase is shifted at the rate of the modulating signal.

    • B. 

      Phase shifted with the phase of the modulating signal.

    • C. 

      Amplitude is shifted at the rate of the modulating signal.

    • D. 

      Amplitude is shifted with the phase of the modulating signal.


  • 14. 
    (004)  What is the advantage of adding more phase shifts?
    • A. 

      Easier detection.

    • B. 

      Smaller bit error rate.

    • C. 

      Better signal-to-noise ratio.

    • D. 

      Higher data rates within a given bandwidth.


  • 15. 
    (005)  What is the first step in the pulse code modulation (PCM) process?
    • A. 

      Discrete amplitudes are assigned to the sampling pulses.

    • B. 

      A binary code number is assigned to the sample.

    • C. 

      The quantizer limits the amplitude of the pulses.

    • D. 

      The analog signal is band-limited.


  • 16. 
    (005)  What part of the pulse code modulation (PCM) process converts a continuous time signal into a discrete time signal?
    • A. 

      Sampling.

    • B. 

      Rectifying.

    • C. 

      Oscillating.

    • D. 

      Band limiting.


  • 17. 
    (005)  A type of pulse modulation (PM) that changes the amplitude of the pulse train to vary according to the amplitude of the input signal is called
    • A. 

      Pulse width modulation (PWM).

    • B. 

      Pulse position modulation.

    • C. 

      Pulse duration modulation.

    • D. 

      Pulse amplitude modulation.


  • 18. 
    (006)  If an error should occur, what data transmission is lost in a synchronous transmission?
    • A. 

      One character.

    • B. 

      Block of data.

    • C. 

      A parity bit.

    • D. 

      Synchronization (SYNC) bit.


  • 19. 
    (007)  When using vertical redundancy check (VRC), what significance does the amount of ones have in a data bit pattern?
    • A. 

      Determines parity.

    • B. 

      Determines transmission rate.

    • C. 

      Determines whether transmission is in American Standard code for Information Interchange (ASCII) format.

    • D. 

      Determines whether transmission is synchronous or asynchronous.


  • 20. 
    (007)  What two error detection methods, when used together, are 98 perfent effective in detecting errors?
    • A. 

      Checksum and cyclic redundancy check.

    • B. 

      Longitudinal redundancy check and checksum.

    • C. 

      Cyclic redundancy check and vertical redundancy check.

    • D. 

      Vertical redundancy check and longitudinal redundancy check.


  • 21. 
    (007)  What error detection method adds stacked characters, divides it by 255, and disregards the answer except for the remainder?
    • A. 

      Checksum.

    • B. 

      Block check character.

    • C. 

      Cyclic redundancy check.

    • D. 

      Vertical redundancy check.


  • 22. 
    (007)  What error-correction technique sends a retransmittal request by the receiver to the sender if it finds an error in a received frame?
    • A. 

      Error-correcting code.

    • B. 

      Forward error control.

    • C. 

      Redundant data transfer.

    • D. 

      Automatic retransmit on request.


  • 23. 
    (007)  When using forward error control as a method of error correction, where does error correction take place?
    • A. 

      Receiving end.

    • B. 

      In the oscillator.

    • C. 

      Transmitting end.

    • D. 

      In the primary buffers.


  • 24. 
    (008)  What does an optical source do?
    • A. 

      Terminates fober optics cable.

    • B. 

      Converts electrical energy into optical energy.

    • C. 

      Extend the distance and to preserve signal integrity.

    • D. 

      Accepts optical signals and converts them into electrical signals.


  • 25. 
    (008)  Light sources that are applicable to fiber optic waveguide are light-emitting diodes (LED) and
    • A. 

      Photo transistors.

    • B. 

      Hybrid photodiodes.

    • C. 

      Semiconductor laser diodes.

    • D. 

      Integrated photodiode/preamplifiers.


  • 26. 
    (008)  What type of light is emitted from a laser?
    • A. 

      Incoherent.

    • B. 

      Coherent.

    • C. 

      Ordinary.

    • D. 

      Invisible.


  • 27. 
    (008)  Laser diode power coupling is measured in which range
    • A. 

      Megawatt.

    • B. 

      Microwatt.

    • C. 

      Milliwatt.

    • D. 

      Kilowatt.


  • 28. 
    (009)  A device that accepts optical signals from an optical fiber and converts them into electrical signals is called an optical
    • A. 

      Regenerator.

    • B. 

      Transmitter.

    • C. 

      Amplifier.

    • D. 

      Receiver.


  • 29. 
    (009)  Small current that flows from a photodiode even with no light is called
    • A. 

      Dark current.

    • B. 

      Dispersion.

    • C. 

      Distortion.

    • D. 

      Ionization.


  • 30. 
    (009)  The responsivity of a photo detector is dependent on the
    • A. 

      Emitter rise time.

    • B. 

      Wavelength of light.

    • C. 

      Signal-to-noise ratio (SNR).

    • D. 

      Emitter modulation speed.


  • 31. 
    (009)  What are the two main types of photodetectors?
    • A. 

      Positive intrinsic negative and avalanche photodiode.

    • B. 

      Light-emitting diode (LED) and avalanche photodiode.

    • C. 

      LED and semiconductor laser.

    • D. 

      Tunnel and zener diodes.


  • 32. 
    (009)  What photo detector converts one photon to one electron?
    • A. 

      Light emitting diode (LED).

    • B. 

      Avalanche photodiode.

    • C. 

      Positive intrinsic negative (PIN) diode.

    • D. 

      Integrated photodiode/preamplifier (IDP).


  • 33. 
    (010)  What is used to extend the distance of a fiber optic communication systems link?
    • A. 

      Receiver.

    • B. 

      Transmitter.

    • C. 

      Repeater.

    • D. 

      Patch cords.


  • 34. 
    (010)  Which repeater amplifies optical signal without converting to and from the electrical domain?
    • A. 

      Repeaters.

    • B. 

      Regenerators.

    • C. 

      Optical amplifiers.

    • D. 

      Receiver.


  • 35. 
    (011)  Short sections of single fiber cables that has a connector at each end is called a
    • A. 

      Pigtail.

    • B. 

      Patch cord.

    • C. 

      Jumper.

    • D. 

      Breakout cables.


  • 36. 
    (011)  Which fiber-optic connector uses a quick-release, keyed bayonet couplings that are preferred in situations where severe vibrations are not expected?
    • A. 

      Biconic.

    • B. 

      Field connector (FC).

    • C. 

      Straight tip (ST).

    • D. 

      Sub-miniature, type A (SMA).


  • 37. 
    (011)  Which fiber optic connector uses a push-pull engagement for mating?
    • A. 

      Biconic.

    • B. 

      Field connector (FC).

    • C. 

      Subscriber (SC).

    • D. 

      Sub-miniature, type A (SMA).


  • 38. 
    (012)  What initial nuclear radiation elements generate electromagnetic pulses?
    • A. 

      Gamma rays and neutrons.

    • B. 

      Thermally generated x-rays.

    • C. 

      Transient radiation effects on electronics.

    • D. 

      Neutrons and thermally generated X-rays.


  • 39. 
    (012)  High-altitude electromagnetic pulse is what type of frequency phenomenon, and involces which frequency range?
    • A. 

      Secondary; 1 hertz to 1 gigahertz.

    • B. 

      Wideband; 1 hertz to 1 gigahertz.

    • C. 

      Secondary; 10 hertz to 10 gigahertz.

    • D. 

      Wideband; 10 hertz to 10 gigahertz.


  • 40. 
    (012)  A system-generated electromagnetic pulse is a problem for satellites and reentry vehicles that are
    • A. 

      Susceptible to the wideband frequency phenomenon.

    • B. 

      Directly exposed to nuclear radiations from a high-altitude burst.

    • C. 

      Affected by the azimuthal magnetic fields and time-varying air conductivity.

    • D. 

      Influenced by the signal fading or waveform distortion caused by the structured plasma field.


  • 41. 
    (012)  Which distinct region of the source region electromagnetic pulse is produced by the interactions between the weapon products and the earth's atmosphere?
    • A. 

      Secondary.

    • B. 

      Radiated.

    • C. 

      Plasma.

    • D. 

      Source.


  • 42. 
    (012)  What electromagnetic pulse region is the principal threat to electronic systems by cable?
    • A. 

      Local.

    • B. 

      Source.

    • C. 

      Radiated.

    • D. 

      Long-line.


  • 43. 
    (012)  How does scintillation effect communications?
    • A. 

      Large attenuation of the transmitted signal causing the received signal-to-noise (SNR) to fall below unity.

    • B. 

      Transmitted signal fading caused by multiple path propagation through the structured plasma field.

    • C. 

      Layers of charged electrons that are trapped and prevent transmissions through the layer.

    • D. 

      Absorption of the transmitted signal through the contaminated area.


  • 44. 
    (012)  Atmospheric disturbances from initial nuclear radiation on higher frequencies affect comunications by which types of effects?
    • A. 

      Blackout.

    • B. 

      Absorption.

    • C. 

      Scintillation.

    • D. 

      Attenuation.


  • 45. 
    (013)  Which one of the following statements are true converning shielding?
    • A. 

      Cables should be of unshielded construction.

    • B. 

      Only ventilation ports are shielded along the walls.

    • C. 

      Sensitive equipment will be located within the shielded barrier.

    • D. 

      All power lines supplying shielded areas does not require filters.


  • 46. 
    (013)  What is the purpose of bonding?
    • A. 

      To isolate facility from any external electrical electromagnetic propagation.

    • B. 

      To reduce interference coupling around circuits and around interconnecting lines.

    • C. 

      To ensure a mechanically strong, low impedance interconnection between metal objects.

    • D. 

      To eliminate harmful differences of potential between the various telephone cables entering facility.


  • 47. 
    (013)  Which types of filters are always used in combination with surge arresters?
    • A. 

      Linear.

    • B. 

      Alternating current (AC) line.

    • C. 

      Direct current (DC) DC line.

    • D. 

      Power line.


  • 48. 
    (014)  If the interference can be eliminated by disconnecting the receiving antenna, the source of the disturbance is most likely
    • A. 

      Line noise.

    • B. 

      Internal to the radio.

    • C. 

      External to the radio.

    • D. 

      Radio receiver trouble.


  • 49. 
    (014)  What is an example of intentionally induced electromagnetic interference (EMI)?
    • A. 

      Jamming.

    • B. 

      Spurious responses.

    • C. 

      Intermodulation.

    • D. 

      Power line noise.


  • 50. 
    (014)  What type of electromagnetic interference (EMI) occurs when a receiver responds to off-frequency signals?
    • A. 

      Rusty Bolt.

    • B. 

      Co-channel.

    • C. 

      Brute force.

    • D. 

      Spurious responses.


  • 51. 
    (014)  What type of equipment often generates many spurious emissions?
    • A. 

      Slow tuning receiver.

    • B. 

      Rapid tuning receiver.

    • C. 

      Slow tuning transmitter.

    • D. 

      Rapid tuning transmitter.


  • 52. 
    (014)  What man-made noise results from voltage surges, arcing, or corona discharges?
    • A. 

      Relays.

    • B. 

      Lighting.

    • C. 

      Power line.

    • D. 

      Switching equipment.


  • 53. 
    (014)  How can you normally eliminate electromagnetic interference (EMI) noise bursts caused by sodium and mercurt vapor lights that have stopped working while the power is still applied?
    • A. 

      Change the bulb.

    • B. 

      Ground out the light fixture.

    • C. 

      Install a noise reject filter on the light.

    • D. 

      Install a noise reject filter on the receiver.


  • 54. 
    (015)  What Air Force program is used to resolve an electromagnetic interference (EMI) incident?
    • A. 

      Mishap prevention.

    • B. 

      Frequency management (FM).

    • C. 

      Electrostatic discharge (ESD) control.

    • D. 

      Spectrum interference resolution (SIR).


  • 55. 
    (015)  At what level does the Air Force want electromagnetic interference (EMI) problems resolved?
    • A. 

      Affected unit.

    • B. 

      Affected major command.

    • C. 

      Electromagnetic environmental effects office.

    • D. 

      Spectrum interference resolution office.


  • 56. 
    (015)  What is the first step in the Air Force spectrum interference resolution (SIR) program?
    • A. 

      Identify the source.

    • B. 

      Verifying the source.

    • C. 

      Resolving the interference.

    • D. 

      Reporting the interference.


  • 57. 
    (015)  What do you do when you are reasonably sure electromagnetic interference (EMI) exists?
    • A. 

      Request engineering assistance.

    • B. 

      Contact the base frequency manager.

    • C. 

      Systematically gather data for analysis.

    • D. 

      Contact the spectrum interference resolution (SIR) office.


  • 58. 
    (015)  Who is initially responsible for reporting an electromagnetic interference (EMI)?
    • A. 

      The operator.

    • B. 

      Major command (MAJCOM).

    • C. 

      The frequency manager (FM).

    • D. 

      Federal Communications Commission (FCC).


  • 59. 
    (015)  Which Air Force service provides on-site direction finding and interference problem analysis?
    • A. 

      USAF Gold Flag Program.

    • B. 

      Unit Self-Sufficiency Support.

    • C. 

      Reliability and Maintainability Deficiency.

    • D. 

      Quick Fix Interference Reduction Capability.


  • 60. 
    (015)  What program addresses persistent and recurring interferences problems in joint operations?
    • A. 

      The reliability and maintainability.

    • B. 

      Joint Spectrum Interference Resolution (SIR).

    • C. 

      Air Force Spectrum Interference Resolution (AFSIR).

    • D. 

      The Quick Fix Interference Reduction Capability (QFIRC).


  • 61. 
    (015)  Who is tasked to provide interference resolution support to the unified commanders?
    • A. 

      The operator.

    • B. 

      Joint Spectrum Center (JSC).

    • C. 

      Installation spectrum manager (ISM).

    • D. 

      Federal Communications Commission (FCC).


  • 62. 
    (016)  Which feature of the Fluke 8025A locks the measurement into the display for viewing and automatically updates the display when you take a new measurement?
    • A. 

      Rotary switch.

    • B. 

      Range push button.

    • C. 

      Power-up self-test.

    • D. 

      Touch-hold push button.


  • 63. 
    (017)  Which current range on the Fluke 8025A do you select to measure 250 milliamps alternating current (AC)?
    • A. 

      Microamps direct current (DC).

    • B. 

      Microamps AC.

    • C. 

      Milliamps/amp DC.

    • D. 

      Milliamps/amp AC.


  • 64. 
    (017)  When testing a diode with the 8025A, the leads across a "good" diode produces an "OL" (open) on the display in one direction while reversing the leads produces
    • A. 

      A continunous audible tone.

    • B. 

      "SL" (short) on the display.

    • C. 

      A wavering audible tone.

    • D. 

      Three short beeps.


  • 65. 
    (018)  How are voltage, time, and depth represented on the oscilloscope display?
    • A. 

      Voltage = intensity, time = vertical axis, and depth = horizontal axis.

    • B. 

      Voltage = intensity, time = horizontal axis, and depth = vertical axis.

    • C. 

      Voltage = horizontal axis, time = vertical axis, and depth = intensity.

    • D. 

      Voltage = vertical axis, time = horizontal axis, and depth = intensity.


  • 66. 
    (018)  Which mode of triggering an oscilloscope causes a trace to be drawn on the screen at all times, whether there is an input signal or not?
    • A. 

      Auto.

    • B. 

      Norm.

    • C. 

      External.

    • D. 

      Source.


  • 67. 
    (019)  Which probe does not need to actually make contact with the circuit under test?
    • A. 

      Current probe.

    • B. 

      Passive 1:1 probe.

    • C. 

      Active (FET) probe.

    • D. 

      Passive divider, 10:1 probe.


  • 68. 
    (020)  What digital storage oscilloscope circuit compensates for high sampling rates of high frequency signals?
    • A. 

      Analog-to-digital converter.

    • B. 

      Digital-to-analog converter.

    • C. 

      Charged coupled device.

    • D. 

      Cathode-ray tube.


  • 69. 
    (020)  Sampled data points are stored in the memory of a digital storage oscilloscope as
    • A. 

      Sequential records.

    • B. 

      Waveform points.

    • C. 

      Record lengths.

    • D. 

      Record points.


  • 70. 
    (020)  What area of a digital storage oscilloscope takes digitized samples and performs numberous manipulations on the data including measuring rise and fall times, periods, time intervals, and math computations?
    • A. 

      Microprocessors.

    • B. 

      Acquisition.

    • C. 

      Memory.

    • D. 

      Input.


  • 71. 
    (020)  What type of sampling does a digital storage oscilloscope normally use on single-shot or seldom-occurring signals?
    • A. 

      Sequential.

    • B. 

      Repetitive.

    • C. 

      Real-time.

    • D. 

      Random.


  • 72. 
    (020)  In real-time sampling, what type of interpolation is used when measuring pulse waves?
    • A. 

      Sine.

    • B. 

      Linear.

    • C. 

      Non-uniform.

    • D. 

      Companding.


  • 73. 
    (020)  Which are the three types of digital storage oscilloscope acquisition modes, and which is the standard operating mode?
    • A. 

      Sample, peak detect, averaging; sample.

    • B. 

      Real-time, peak detect, sample; real-time.

    • C. 

      Real-time, peak detect, sample; averaging.

    • D. 

      Sample, peak detect, averaging; peak detect.


  • 74. 
    (020)  In acquiring a 4K record length on a digital storage oscilloscope, how many samples can you view at one time?
    • A. 

      1,000

    • B. 

      2,000

    • C. 

      3,000

    • D. 

      4,000


  • 75. 
    (021)  What test equipment provides a bit error detection system that can determine the received data quality after traveling over a communications link?
    • A. 

      Megger.

    • B. 

      Multimeter.

    • C. 

      Oscilloscope.

    • D. 

      Bit error rate (BER).


  • 76. 
    (021)  What pattern simulator section of the bit error rate test set accepts a 480bit parallel word and generates a serial pattern?
    • A. 

      480bit transmitter only.

    • B. 

      Pseudo random noise (PRN) generator.

    • C. 

      Pseudo random noise (PRN) comparator.

    • D. 

      48-bit register and 8-bit word display.


  • 77. 
    (021)  What pattern simulator section of the bit error rate test set converts the non-return zero-level (NRZ-L) data into the desired coding, such as non-return zero-mark (NRZ-M)?
    • A. 

      Data drivers.

    • B. 

      Code converter.

    • C. 

      External data comparator.

    • D. 

      Pseudo random noise (PRN) synchronizer/comparator.


  • 78. 
    (021)  What pattern synchronizer and error counter section of the bit error rate test set internally generates its own pattern to compare with the received data from the data/clock receivers?
    • A. 

      48-bit transmitter.

    • B. 

      48-bit synchronizer/comparator.

    • C. 

      External data pattern synchronizer/comparator.

    • D. 

      Pseudo random noise (PRN) synchronizer/comparator.


  • 79. 
    (022)  Which of these bit rates do you use for a bit error rate test on a 64 Kbps data circuit?
    • A. 

      511 bps.

    • B. 

      9,600 bps.

    • C. 

      64 Kbps.

    • D. 

      1.544 Mbps.


  • 80. 
    (022)  On the bit error rate test (BER) set, the 25-pin connector are designed to operate with data modems to
    • A. 

      Simplify connection of test equipment to the modem under test and to transmit the test pattern.

    • B. 

      Simplify connection of test equipment to the modem under test and to carry the necessary signaling and handshake signals for modem operations.

    • C. 

      Isolate test equipment from the data circuit under test and to transmit the test pattern.

    • D. 

      Isolate test equipment from the data circuit under test and to carry the necessary signaling and handshake signals for modem operations.


  • 81. 
    (023)  System grounds must continually be tested
    • A. 

      Randomly.

    • B. 

      Periodically.

    • C. 

      Every 10 years.

    • D. 

      Just one time only.


  • 82. 
    (024)  A known current is generated by the earth ground tester between the earth ground electrode and the
    • A. 

      Grounding point.

    • B. 

      Inner earth stake Y.

    • C. 

      Auxiliary current probe.

    • D. 

      Auxiliary potential probe.


  • 83. 
    (024)  Where is voltage potential measured in the fall of potential ground testing method?
    • A. 

      Between the auxiliary potential electrode and the earth ground electrode.

    • B. 

      Between the auxiliary current electrode and the earth ground electrode.

    • C. 

      Between the auxiliary potential and auxiliary current electrodes.

    • D. 

      Between the earth ground electrode and the outer stake Z.


  • 84. 
    (024)  The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) have recommended a ground resistance value of
    • A. 

      5 ohms or less.

    • B. 

      10 ohms or less.

    • C. 

      20 ohms or less.

    • D. 

      25 ohms or less.


  • 85. 
    (025)  What component on a protocol analyzer process the frames based on the selected test and user configuration inputs?
    • A. 

      Counter.

    • B. 

      Buffer.

    • C. 

      Central processing unit (CPU).

    • D. 

      Filter.


  • 86. 
    (025)  What protocol analyzer test window provides information concerning the network utilization and frame error that are related to a specific protocol?
    • A. 

      Media access control (MAC) node statistics.

    • B. 

      Connection statistics.

    • C. 

      Protocol statistics.

    • D. 

      Node discovery.


  • 87. 
    (025)  What protocol analyzer test window reports errors that occur at the physical layer such as bad frame check sequence (FCS), short frames, and jabbers?
    • A. 

      Media access control (MAC) node statistics.

    • B. 

      Connection statistics.

    • C. 

      Protocol statistics.

    • D. 

      Node discovery.


  • 88. 
    (025)  What active test is selected to see the path that the packets are traveling and the time it takes the packets to compete the trip?
    • A. 

      Packet Internetwork Groper (PING)

    • B. 

      Trace Route.

    • C. 

      Traffic Generator.

    • D. 

      Route Generator.


  • 89. 
    (026)  Which one of these is not an application of a radio frequency (RF) generator?
    • A. 

      Verifying transmitter frequencies.

    • B. 

      Troubleshooting receivers.

    • C. 

      Checking antenna systems.

    • D. 

      Aligning telemetry receivers.


  • 90. 
    (027)  A power reading that uses the abbreviation dBm indicates the
    • A. 

      Ratio of decibels relative to a 1-milliwatt standard.

    • B. 

      Ratio of decibels relative to a 1-megawatt standard.

    • C. 

      Actual power level expressed in milliwatts.

    • D. 

      Actual power level expressed in megawatts.


  • 91. 
    (028)  During what operation is the radio frequency blanking output used on the HP 436A power meter?
    • A. 

      While in WATT mode operation.

    • B. 

      While in REMOTE mode operation.

    • C. 

      During the automatic zeroing operation.

    • D. 

      During calibration adjustment operation.


  • 92. 
    (029)  Plug-in elements of the wattmeter are selected based on the
    • A. 

      Selection of the autorange function.

    • B. 

      Frequency and power to be measured.

    • C. 

      1-milliwatt standard and relative decibels.

    • D. 

      Absolute and relative power levels to be measured.


  • 93. 
    (029)  The two switches on the front panel of the wattmeter is to correstpond to the
    • A. 

      Power range of the reverse element.

    • B. 

      Power range of the forward element.

    • C. 

      Frequency range of the forward element.

    • D. 

      Frequency range of the reverse element.


  • 94. 
    (029)  When reading forward power on a wattmeter, what does two right facing arrow head mean?
    • A. 

      Equipment malfunction.

    • B. 

      Calculating forward power.

    • C. 

      No power is applied for reading.

    • D. 

      Power exceeds 120 percent of the range.


  • 95. 
    (029)  What feature is useful for making adjustments to optimize any of the parameters which the wattmeter measures?
    • A. 

      Peaking aid.

    • B. 

      Minimum reading.

    • C. 

      Maximum reading.

    • D. 

      Standing wave ratio.


  • 96. 
    (030)  Which measurements are not made with a spectrum analyzer?
    • A. 

      Frequency stability.

    • B. 

      Peak-peak voltage.

    • C. 

      Amplitude modulation.

    • D. 

      Subcarrier oscillator outputs.


  • 97. 
    (031)  Which are the correct four classes of electronic counters?
    • A. 

      Frequency counters, time counters, microwave counters, and reciprocal counters.

    • B. 

      Frequency counters, universal counters, microwave counters, and reciprocal counters.

    • C. 

      Frequency counters, universal counters, period counters, and reciprocal counters.

    • D. 

      Scaling counters, universal counters, microwave counters, and reciprocal counters.


  • 98. 
    (032)  What test equipment combines the operations of many test instruments in a single compact unit?
    • A. 

      Volt meter.

    • B. 

      Oscilloscope.

    • C. 

      Impedance meter.

    • D. 

      Communication service monitor.


  • 99. 
    (032)  What function is not part of the communication service monitor?
    • A. 

      Radio frequency generator.

    • B. 

      Analog multimeter.

    • C. 

      Oscilloscope.

    • D. 

      Receiver.


  • 100. 
    (033)  What operational capability of the communication service monitor produces sine, square, and triangle waveforms?
    • A. 

      Scope.

    • B. 

      Duplex.

    • C. 

      Receiver.

    • D. 

      Function generator.


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