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2a651 Eoc Practice Test All Volumes

120 Questions
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2A651 EOC Practice Test

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    (001) Which squadrons form a maintenance group?
    • A. 

      Operations, aircraft maintenance, flying.

    • B. 

      Maintenance, operations, quality assurance.

    • C. 

      Quality assurance, support, aircraft maintenance.

    • D. 

      Maintenance operations, maintenance, aircraft maintenance, and quality assurance.

  • 2. 
    (001) QA recommends possible corrective actions to which level?
    • A. 

      Supervisors.

    • B. 

      Flight commanders.

    • C. 

      Group commanders.

    • D. 

      Squadron commanders.

  • 3. 
    (001) Who monitors flying and maintenance schedules, and maintains visibility of fleet health indicators?
    • A. 

      Operations support center.

    • B. 

      Logistics support squadron.

    • C. 

      Operations support squadron.

    • D. 

      Maintenance operations center.

  • 4. 
    (001) When you are assigned to an aircraft maintenance squadron as an engine troop, to what flight will you most likely be assigned?
    • A. 

      Debrief.

    • B. 

      Training.

    • C. 

      Specialist.

    • D. 

      Deployment.

  • 5. 
    (002) What type of training is provided to help you learn the knowledge portion of your job?
    • A. 

      NCO academy.

    • B. 

      On-the-job training.

    • C. 

      Career development course.

    • D. 

      Task qualification training.

  • 6. 
    (002) You may attend the ALS after having how many months in the Air Force?
    • A. 

      24.

    • B. 

      36.

    • C. 

      48.

    • D. 

      60.

  • 7. 
    (003) Which program’s purpose is to ensure safe and healthy working conditions for all Air Force employees?
    • A. 

      ORM.

    • B. 

      MSDS.

    • C. 

      AFOSH.

    • D. 

      Flightline safety.

  • 8. 
    (003) Occupational health is regulated by Air Force series
    • A. 

      91.

    • B. 

      66.

    • C. 

      127.

    • D. 

      161.

  • 9. 
    (003) Which Air Force instruction defines quality maintenance and requires maintenance personnel to display integrity and comply with all written guidance?
    • A. 

      00–5–1.

    • B. 

      00–20–1.

    • C. 

      21–101.

    • D. 

      36–2108.

  • 10. 
    (004) Prior to starting any maintenance on the aircraft, what can you do to ensure that it is safe to proceed?
    • A. 

      Lock and pin the work stands.

    • B. 

      Check the AFTO Form 781K.

    • C. 

      Check the intake for FOD.

    • D. 

      Check with other personnel working inside or outside the aircraft.

  • 11. 
    (004) How far does a propeller’s axis of rotation extend?
    • A. 

      20 feet to the front and 15 feet from the rear.

    • B. 

      15 feet to the front and 10 feet from the rear.

    • C. 

      10 feet to the front and 5 feet from the rear.

    • D. 

      5 feet to the front and 1 foot from the rear.

  • 12. 
    (004) To avoid the engine exhaust blast, what is the minimum distance in feet to the rear of the aircraft?
    • A. 

      100.

    • B. 

      200.

    • C. 

      300.

    • D. 

      400.

  • 13. 
    (005) FOD is normally caused by
    • A. 

      People.

    • B. 

      Animals.

    • C. 

      Weather.

    • D. 

      Mechanical failure.

  • 14. 
    (005) Who has overall responsibility for the FOD program?
    • A. 

      Quality assurance.

    • B. 

      Squadron commander.

    • C. 

      Production supervisor.

    • D. 

      Maintenance group commander.

  • 15. 
    (006) During flightline and test cell operations, you may be exposed to
    • A. 

      Acetone.

    • B. 

      Toluene.

    • C. 

      Carbon dioxide.

    • D. 

      Carbon monoxide.

  • 16. 
    (006) Toxic materials are easiest to get into the body and cause rapid toxic reactions when they are in the form of
    • A. 

      Aerosols.

    • B. 

      Liquids.

    • C. 

      Solids.

    • D. 

      Gases.

  • 17. 
    (007) Who is responsible for providing you with training on how to wear, use, and maintain personal protective equipment?
    • A. 

      Safety.

    • B. 

      Hospital.

    • C. 

      Supervisor.

    • D. 

      Environmental.

  • 18. 
    (007) Hazardous waste storage areas must prevent
    • A. 

      Explosions.

    • B. 

      Unauthorized entry.

    • C. 

      Overflow of materials.

    • D. 

      Mixing of unlike materials.

  • 19. 
    (007) A common method for disposing of hazardous wasted is
    • A. 

      Dilution.

    • B. 

      Incineration.

    • C. 

      Land disposal.

    • D. 

      Biodegradation.

  • 20. 
    (007) For hazardous waste disposal, it is unlikely the Air Force can justify
    • A. 

      Incineration.

    • B. 

      Land disposal.

    • C. 

      Biodegradation.

    • D. 

      Chemico-physical treatment.

  • 21. 
    (008) A specialized function of the supply mission is
    • A. 

      Repair.

    • B. 

      Service.

    • C. 

      Disposal.

    • D. 

      Retrieval.

  • 22. 
    (008) From what perspective does the RSS manage supply?
    • A. 

      Base system.

    • B. 

      Weapons system.

    • C. 

      Inventory system.

    • D. 

      Geographical system.

  • 23. 
    (008) Which Base Supply function manages the repair cycle system?
    • A. 

      Depot Level Repair System.

    • B. 

      Repair Cycle Support System.

    • C. 

      Standard Base Supply System.

    • D. 

      Precious Metals Recovery System.

  • 24. 
    (008) Selected equipment items, when returned to depot because of their design characteristics function or application, are predetermined to require
    • A. 

      Overhaul.

    • B. 

      Retest OK.

    • C. 

      Time change.

    • D. 

      Repair cycle support.

  • 25. 
    (008) Which supply document provides a means for organizations to review all document numbers processed during the day by the SBSS?
    • A. 

      Priority Monitor Report (D18).

    • B. 

      Daily Document Register (D04).

    • C. 

      Due-out Validation Listing (M30).

    • D. 

      Repair Cycle Asset Management Listing (D23).

  • 26. 
    (008) Base Supply must deliver numerous parts to numerous organizations on a prioritized basis because of what difference in each organization?
    • A. 

      Mission.

    • B. 

      Contract.

    • C. 

      Location.

    • D. 

      Type of aircraft.

  • 27. 
    (009) What does a completed AFTO Form 350 serve to identify?
    • A. 

      Origin of an item.

    • B. 

      Why the item broke.

    • C. 

      How long the item will take to repair.

    • D. 

      The responsible reparable processing center.

  • 28. 
    (009) Which provides a block-by-block explanation of how to document the AFTO Form 350 tag?
    • A. 

      AFMAN 23–110.

    • B. 

      TO 00–20–2.

    • C. 

      AFI 91–301.

    • D. 

      TO 00–5–1.

  • 29. 
    (010) If you are TDY and IMDS and SBSS are not available, what form would you use to order an engine part?
    • A. 

      AF IMT 2005.

    • B. 

      AFTO Form 349.

    • C. 

      AFTO Form 350.

    • D. 

      DD Form 1574.

  • 30. 
    (010) If you need detailed information concerning the AF IMT 2005 codes and entries, refer to AFMAN
    • A. 

      23–110.

    • B. 

      23–254.

    • C. 

      91–110.

    • D. 

      91–254.

  • 31. 
    (011) Which form is attached to items that are awaiting parts or maintenance?
    • A. 

      DD Form 1574.

    • B. 

      DD Form 1575.

    • C. 

      DD Form 1577–2.

    • D. 

      DD Form 1577–3.

  • 32. 
    (012) Which item is one that a storage time period must be assigned to ensure that it will perform satisfactorily over a specified period of time?
    • A. 

      Supply.

    • B. 

      Shelf-life.

    • C. 

      Inspection.

    • D. 

      Bench stock.

  • 33. 
    (012) When a bench stock item has a type I shelf-life, it means the item
    • A. 

      Has an assigned shelf-life period that may be extended.

    • B. 

      Should be returned to supply after expiration date.

    • C. 

      Has a definite non-extendible period of shelf-life.

    • D. 

      Should be inspected or tested.

  • 34. 
    (013) A Category I DR is used to report a deficiency
    • A. 

      That is required for tracking by agreement of the single manager.

    • B. 

      Found during an initial acceptance inspection (critical or major defects only).

    • C. 

      That, if uncorrected, will cause major loss or damage to equipment or a system.

    • D. 

      That identifies a potential enhancement (applies to enhancements noted during the acquisition cycle).

  • 35. 
    (013) Within how many hours must Category I DR be forwarded to the screening point?
    • A. 

      8.

    • B. 

      12.

    • C. 

      24.

    • D. 

      72.

  • 36. 
    • A. 

      Shelf-life.

    • B. 

      Bench stock.

    • C. 

      Hazardous materials.

    • D. 

      Equipment Authorization Inventory Data.

  • 37. 
    (014) To become an equipment custodian, you must be appointed by the
    • A. 

      Shop chief.

    • B. 

      Supervisor.

    • C. 

      Commander.

    • D. 

      Supply chief.

  • 38. 
    (015) The first part of a TO number identifies the
    • A. 

      Sectionalization of the TO.

    • B. 

      Type of instructions found in the TO.

    • C. 

      Category and type of equipment in the TO.

    • D. 

      Model and series of the equipment covered by the TO.

  • 39. 
    (015) The second part of a TO number gives the
    • A. 

      TO classification.

    • B. 

      Type of equipment in the TO.

    • C. 

      Type of instructions found in the TO.

    • D. 

      Model and series for equipment type in the TO.

  • 40. 
    (016) In which type of TO would you find a list of TOs for a specific category of equipment?
    • A. 

      Index.

    • B. 

      Preliminary.

    • C. 

      Methods and procedure.

    • D. 

      Operational and maintenance.

  • 41. 
    (017) Which type of technical manual is divided into tasks that cover a particular maintenance action?
    • A. 

      General equipment.

    • B. 

      General system.

    • C. 

      Fault isolation.

    • D. 

      Job guide.

  • 42. 
    (017) Which type of additional data is not provided in interactive electronic technical manuals (IETMS)?
    • A. 

      Rapid action changes.

    • B. 

      Operational supplements.

    • C. 

      Urgent recommendations.

    • D. 

      Time compliance technical order.

  • 43. 
    (017) What section of the IPB contains an explanation of the coding used in the IPB?
    • A. 

      Introduction.

    • B. 

      Numerical index.

    • C. 

      Group assembly parts list.

    • D. 

      Reference designation index.

  • 44. 
    (018) What category of TCTO is issued to correct unsafe conditions that can result in a fatality or serious injury to personnel?
    • A. 

      Record.

    • B. 

      Urgent action.

    • C. 

      Routine action.

    • D. 

      Immediate action.

  • 45. 
    (019) Which TO covers information concerning the Air Force TO system?
    • A. 

      00–5–1.

    • B. 

      00–5–2.

    • C. 

      00–20–1.

    • D. 

      00–20–2.

  • 46. 
    (019) How can you tell when the text or a picture in a TO has been changed?
    • A. 

      The text or picture will be marked in color.

    • B. 

      The text or picture will be highlighted in yellow.

    • C. 

      The word “changed” will be marked on the text or picture.

    • D. 

      A bold vertical black line alongside the affected text or picture.

  • 47. 
    (020) An AFTO IMT 22 is not submitted for
    • A. 

      Job guides.

    • B. 

      Work cards.

    • C. 

      Preliminary TOs.

    • D. 

      Methods and procedures TOs.

  • 48. 
    (020) Who makes sure the AFTO IMT 22 is valid and warrants submission?
    • A. 

      Initiator.

    • B. 

      Commander.

    • C. 

      Supervisor of initiator.

    • D. 

      Product improvement office.

  • 49. 
    (020) Which AFTO IMT 22 recommendation would you submit which, if not corrected, could cause personnel injury or damage to equipment or property?
    • A. 

      Urgent.

    • B. 

      Special.

    • C. 

      Routine.

    • D. 

      Emergency.

  • 50. 
    (021) What are the two classifications of failures in RCM?
    • A. 

      Evident and hidden.

    • B. 

      Potential and evident.

    • C. 

      Hidden and functional.

    • D. 

      Potential and functional.

  • 51. 
    (021) In RCM, which preventative maintenance task is a scheduled inspection to detect a potential failure condition?
    • A. 

      Hard time.

    • B. 

      Lubrication.

    • C. 

      On condition.

    • D. 

      Failure finding.

  • 52. 
    (022) The primary goal of the ET&D program is to prevent or limit damage to turbine engines by
    • A. 

      Reviewing past engine accident investigation reports.

    • B. 

      Tracking serially controlled components and modules.

    • C. 

      Early detection of performance degradation and/or failures.

    • D. 

      Documenting engine overspeed and overtemperature conditions.

  • 53. 
    (022) Within the ET&D program, to whom do flightline personnel transfer collected data for analysis?
    • A. 

      Depot-level engine maintenance shops.

    • B. 

      Base engine maintenance shop.

    • C. 

      Product center engineers.

    • D. 

      Flightline expediter.

  • 54. 
    (022) Which technicians provide maintenance activity data to the ET&D program?
    • A. 

      Propulsion and depot.

    • B. 

      Depot and nondestructive inspection.

    • C. 

      Propulsion and nondestructive inspection.

    • D. 

      Environmental health and nondestructive inspection.

  • 55. 
    (023) What drives the creation of a CRP?
    • A. 

      Equipment cost and repair time.

    • B. 

      Number of available spare engines.

    • C. 

      Number of assigned maintenance personnel.

    • D. 

      Customer wait time and transportation constraints.

  • 56. 
    (023) Who maintains accountability of CIRF assets and reports their status?
    • A. 

      Production supervisor.

    • B. 

      Depot item manager.

    • C. 

      Engine technician.

    • D. 

      Supply officer.

  • 57. 
    (023) When a CIRF ships a replacement asset to a deployed unit, who is responsible for ensuring all appropriate documentation is completed?
    • A. 

      Deployed unit.

    • B. 

      CIRF personnel.

    • C. 

      Supply squadron.

    • D. 

      Transportation squadron.

  • 58. 
    (024) What supports base-level technicians by providing technical assistance and performing any repairs beyond their responsibility/capability?
    • A. 

      Field maintenance.

    • B. 

      Depot maintenance.

    • C. 

      Engine trending and diagnostics.

    • D. 

      Engine life-cycle management planning.

  • 59. 
    (024) Depot maintenance support base-level technicians by
    • A. 

      Providing technical assistance and performing repairs beyond their capability.

    • B. 

      Ensuring replacement parts are ordered in a timely manner.

    • C. 

      Notifying maintenance personnel of upcoming TCTO.

    • D. 

      Providing the most current TO updates to the field.

  • 60. 
    (024) Depot level support includes CLSS crews, depot maintenance support, maintenance assistance, and
    • A. 

      Jet engine intermediate maintenance crews.

    • B. 

      ALC teams.

    • C. 

      Engineer assistance.

    • D. 

      Field teams.

  • 61. 
    (025) A primary objective of the engine reporting system is to
    • A. 

      Schedule engine replacement times.

    • B. 

      Track parts replacement on jet engines.

    • C. 

      Report all engine related discrepancies.

    • D. 

      Maintain accurate and timely engine inventories.

  • 62. 
    (025) The key to making the CEMS work is
    • A. 

      Availability of engines and their parts.

    • B. 

      Accurate and timely data at the lowest level.

    • C. 

      Accurate and timely data at the highest level.

    • D. 

      Availability of a storage and analysis computer.

  • 63. 
    (025) For how many categories of reporting does the CEMS establish and maintain records?
    • A. 

      2.

    • B. 

      3.

    • C. 

      4.

    • D. 

      5.

  • 64. 
    (026) You should record the removal and replacement of engine accessories on which one of the following AFTO Forms?
    • A. 

      25.

    • B. 

      44.

    • C. 

      95.

    • D. 

      349.

  • 65. 
    (026) To document information concerning the status of engine TCTO, use AFTO Form
    • A. 

      25.

    • B. 

      95.

    • C. 

      98.

    • D. 

      349.

  • 66. 
    (027) What is the purpose of the Lead the Fleet/Pacer programs?
    • A. 

      Prevent unscheduled removal of engines.

    • B. 

      Identify engines requiring TCTO maintenance.

    • C. 

      Accelerate the flying rate of all the unit’s installed engines.

    • D. 

      Determine distress modes of an engine and its subsystems in the field.

  • 67. 
    (027) Which is not a Lead the Fleet/Pacer program objective?
    • A. 

      Reducing customer wait time for serviceable assets.

    • B. 

      Accurately update scheduled maintenance requirements.

    • C. 

      Evaluate the engine controls and accessories to include engine monitoring systems.

    • D. 

      Detect any unique durability problems that might force special scheduled inspections.

  • 68. 
    (027) How many years ahead should participating units accelerate engines, modules, and accessories?
    • A. 

      1.

    • B. 

      2.

    • C. 

      3.

    • D. 

      4.

  • 69. 
    (028) Carrying a hand tool in your pocket is potentially hazardous because it could cause
    • A. 

      Injury to you.

    • B. 

      Torn clothing.

    • C. 

      Electrical shock.

    • D. 

      Damage to the tool.

  • 70. 
    (028) What would you use to hold your tools when you cannot locate your toolbox within arm’s reach?
    • A. 

      Ziplock bag.

    • B. 

      Parts bag.

    • C. 

      FOD bag.

    • D. 

      Toolbag.

  • 71. 
    (029) If you must torque a sequence of three or more bolts,
    • A. 

      Use maximum torque.

    • B. 

      Use a staggered sequence.

    • C. 

      Torque from left to right.

    • D. 

      Overtorque, loosen, and retorque.

  • 72. 
    (029) The length of a torque extension is determined by the distance between the center of the square drive and the center of the
    • A. 

      Lock.

    • B. 

      Grip.

    • C. 

      Shaft index line.

    • D. 

      Broached opening.

  • 73. 
    (029) What type of rule should you use for measuring an inside diameter?
    • A. 

      Hook.

    • B. 

      Narrow.

    • C. 

      6-inch steel.

    • D. 

      Slide caliper.

  • 74. 
    (030) Micrometers are generally used to make measurements to an accuracy of
    • A. 

      One sixteenth of an inch.

    • B. 

      One one-hundredth of an inch.

    • C. 

      One one-thousandth of an inch.

    • D. 

      One ten-thousandth of an inch.

  • 75. 
    (030) The longest calibrated movement between the spindle and anvil of an outside micrometer is
    • A. 

      1 inch.

    • B. 

      2 inches.

    • C. 

      3 inches.

    • D. 

      4 inches.

  • 76. 
    (030) You adjust a micrometer by turning the
    • A. 

      Barrel.

    • B. 

      Frame.

    • C. 

      Spindle.

    • D. 

      Thimble.

  • 77. 
    (030) The vernier scale on a micrometer is used to read measurements in
    • A. 

      Hundredths of an inch.

    • B. 

      Thousandths of an inch.

    • C. 

      Ten-thousandths of an inch.

    • D. 

      Hundred-thousandths of an inch.

  • 78. 
    (031) Where is the contact point on a dial indicator located?
    • A. 

      On the dial face.

    • B. 

      At the end of the anvil.

    • C. 

      At the end of the thimble.

    • D. 

      At the end of a pivoted lever.

  • 79. 
    (031) What feature is common to all dial indicators?
    • A. 

      Construction of indicator.

    • B. 

      Construction of indicating hand.

    • C. 

      Ability to amplify movement greatly.

    • D. 

      Ability to amplify movement slightly.

  • 80. 
    (032) To avoid rust, measuring tools should never be stored where the relative humidity exceeds what percentage?
    • A. 

      10.

    • B. 

      20.

    • C. 

      40.

    • D. 

      50.

  • 81. 
    (032) What should you use for cleaning measuring tools?
    • A. 

      WD–40.

    • B. 

      Trychlorethlene.

    • C. 

      Turbo-super-carb.

    • D. 

      Dry-cleaning solvent.

  • 82. 
    (033) The Fluke 8025A multimeter control that is used to set the meter to check for AC and DC is the
    • A. 

      Function selector.

    • B. 

      Range-mode pushbutton switch.

    • C. 

      Touch-hold pushbutton switch.

    • D. 

      Volts, ohms, diode test input jack.

  • 83. 
    (034) How many range settings does the Fluke 8025A multimeter have?
    • A. 

      2.

    • B. 

      3.

    • C. 

      4.

    • D. 

      5.

  • 84. 
    (034) What is the maximum voltage that can be measured if the range button is set at 30 on the Fluke 8025A multimeter?
    • A. 

      28.

    • B. 

      30.

    • C. 

      32.

    • D. 

      34.

  • 85. 
    (035) What is the purpose of a borescope inspection on an engine?
    • A. 

      Replace a teardown inspection.

    • B. 

      Visually inspect internal cavities.

    • C. 

      Detect major damage inside the engine.

    • D. 

      Determine how much maintenance is required during a periodic inspection.

  • 86. 
    (035) Light is transmitted to the tip of a borescope by
    • A. 

      The fiber optics.

    • B. 

      An optical illusion bundle.

    • C. 

      A grounded extension cord.

    • D. 

      A directly magnified light source.

  • 87. 
    (035) What are the type(s) of view(s) available with the rigid borescope?
    • A. 

      Direct.

    • B. 

      Axisymetrical.

    • C. 

      Direct and lateral.

    • D. 

      60 degrees up and 180 degrees down.

  • 88. 
    (035) When operating a borescope, what part of the borescope illuminates the interior of the area you are inspecting?
    • A. 

      Light guide tube.

    • B. 

      Control unit.

    • C. 

      Distal tip light guides.

    • D. 

      Bending section lever.

  • 89. 
    (035) The type of borescope that uses miniature TV camera images is a
    • A. 

      Videoimagescope.

    • B. 

      Rigid borescope.

    • C. 

      Flexible scope.

    • D. 

      Fibrescope.

  • 90. 
    (035) Which factor is not considered for borescope operator certification?
    • A. 

      Experience.

    • B. 

      Maturity.

    • C. 

      Age.

    • D. 

      Rank.

  • 91. 
    (036) Proper bolt length allows a minimum of how many threads protruding the nut?
    • A. 

      1.

    • B. 

      2.

    • C. 

      3.

    • D. 

      4.

  • 92. 
    (036) The grip length of a bolt should be a few thousandths of an inch shorter than the material it is holding to
    • A. 

      Allow for the installation of a washer.

    • B. 

      Keep the nut from backing loose.

    • C. 

      Allow for expansion of the metal.

    • D. 

      Avoid bottoming out the nut.

  • 93. 
    (036) What type of bolt is used primarily in high-tension applications?
    • A. 

      Clevis.

    • B. 

      Hex head.

    • C. 

      Special purpose.

    • D. 

      Internal wrenching.

  • 94. 
    (036) Which nuts should never be used in areas where the temperature exceeds 250°F?
    • A. 

      Plain nuts.

    • B. 

      Wing nuts.

    • C. 

      Metallic self-locking nuts.

    • D. 

      Nonmetallic self-locking nuts.

  • 95. 
    (036) How is a screw length measured?
    • A. 

      Thread length of the treads.

    • B. 

      Base of the head to the bottom the threads.

    • C. 

      Length of the shank plus the threaded portion.

    • D. 

      Top of the head to the bottom of the screw threads.

  • 96. 
    (036) When installing a self-taping screw, the hole must be
    • A. 

      Slightly smaller than the screw.

    • B. 

      The same size as the screw shank.

    • C. 

      Slightly deeper than the length of the shank.

    • D. 

      Slightly shallower than the length of the screw.

  • 97. 
    (036) What type of washer is used to prevent corrosion of dissimilar metals?
    • A. 

      Plain.

    • B. 

      Lock.

    • C. 

      Star.

    • D. 

      Tab.

  • 98. 
    (036) To prevent damage to the soft metal surfaces and a lock washer is required, what should you use?
    • A. 

      Plain washer underneath the lock washer.

    • B. 

      Soft lock washer.

    • C. 

      Special washer.

    • D. 

      Crush washer.

  • 99. 
    (037) What type of pin is used in joints that carry shear loads and where the absence of clearance is essential?
    • A. 

      Tapered.

    • B. 

      Flathead.

    • C. 

      Cotter.

    • D. 

      Shear.

  • 100. 
    (038) When lockwiring, how many twists per inch are required to produce the proper stiffness?
    • A. 

      6 to 8.

    • B. 

      8 to 10.

    • C. 

      10 to 12.

    • D. 

      12 to 14.

  • 101. 
    (039) Copper tubing is not used on jet engines because it
    • A. 

      Is expensive.

    • B. 

      Is too flexible.

    • C. 

      Has a high-fatigue factor.

    • D. 

      Has extremely high tensile strength.

  • 102. 
    (039) You can identify the various system lines used to transfer fluids and gases on jet engines by
    • A. 

      Their international orange color.

    • B. 

      The different colors of the tubing or hoses.

    • C. 

      The specifications embossed on the tubing or hoses.

    • D. 

      The coded bands of colored tape placed around the tubing or hoses.

  • 103. 
    (039) What numerical value is given to a fitting used on tubing that measures 3/8 inch?
    • A. 

      2.

    • B. 

      4.

    • C. 

      6.

    • D. 

      8.

  • 104. 
    (039) Why should dust caps be installed over tube ends rather than inside them?
    • A. 

      Provides a tighter fit.

    • B. 

      Prevents nicking of inner tube surface.

    • C. 

      Avoids possibility of leaving caps installed.

    • D. 

      Provides less contact with corrosive lubricants.

  • 105. 
    (039) For a straight piece of tubing to remain serviceable, a dent must be less than what percentage of the tubing diameter?
    • A. 

      20.

    • B. 

      25.

    • C. 

      30.

    • D. 

      35r.

  • 106. 
    (039) What type of hoses should you never use oil as an aid to installing?
    • A. 

      Hydraulic.

    • B. 

      Pneumatic.

    • C. 

      Self-sealing.

    • D. 

      High-pressure.

  • 107. 
    (040) When you receive an engine in your shop, you should check the applicable forms and then
    • A. 

      Look for leaks.

    • B. 

      Change the oil filter.

    • C. 

      Inspect for missing parts.

    • D. 

      Check the compressor inlet.

  • 108. 
    (040) Operating procedures and practices that, if not strictly observed, may result in damage to equipment are shown in the maintenance manuals in the form of
    • A. 

      Notes.

    • B. 

      Hints.

    • C. 

      Warnings.

    • D. 

      Cautions.

  • 109. 
    (041) Preservation of a component being shipped is required when it is being returned to depot or stored for more than how many days?
    • A. 

      15.

    • B. 

      30.

    • C. 

      45.

    • D. 

      60.

  • 110. 
    (041) The shroud-type cover consists of a buildup of how many layers of wrap?
    • A. 

      2.

    • B. 

      3.

    • C. 

      4.

    • D. 

      5.

  • 111. 
    (041) Which TO covers the disposition of engines removed from aircraft involved in mishaps?
    • A. 

      00–20–4.

    • B. 

      2J–1–14.

    • C. 

      2J–1–19.

    • D. 

      33–1–37–1.

  • 112. 
    (042) Which container does not require warehouse facilities?
    • A. 

      Shroud.

    • B. 

      Prefabricated.

    • C. 

      Fiberglass reinforced plastic.

    • D. 

      Flexible environment control.

  • 113. 
    (042) To release the internal air pressure in a shipping container/module, you must remove the
    • A. 

      Parting surface nuts.

    • B. 

      Parting surface bolts.

    • C. 

      Filler valve on the side of the container.

    • D. 

      Filler valve on the front of the container.

  • 114. 
    (043) When removing the shipping container lid from the shipping container, how much are the turnlock fasteners turned?
    • A. 

      1/4 turn.

    • B. 

      1/2 turn.

    • C. 

      1 turn.

    • D. 

      2 turns.

  • 115. 
    (043) To determine whether an engine stored in a shipping container is serviceable or repairable, look on the
    • A. 

      Side of the container.

    • B. 

      Data plate on both halves of the container.

    • C. 

      Top half on the right panel of the container.

    • D. 

      Bottom half on the left panel of the container.

  • 116. 
    (044) Prior to removing a shipping container lid, what warning must be observed?
    • A. 

      Ensure humidity indicator is blue.

    • B. 

      Release all pressure before removing lid.

    • C. 

      Loosen bolts in a staggered pattern to prevent warpage.

    • D. 

      Ensure pressure is below 5 psi before loosening bolts.

  • 117. 
    (044) How many pins secure the adapters to the shipping container support?
    • A. 

      2.

    • B. 

      4.

    • C. 

      6.

    • D. 

      8.

  • 118. 
    (045) Engines inactive for over 180 days must have what accomplished?
    • A. 

      Motor the engine to circulate the oil.

    • B. 

      Inspect reservoirs to ensure they are full.

    • C. 

      Visually inspect compressor for corrosion.

    • D. 

      Preservation run and fuel system preservation.

  • 119. 
    (045) To prepare the engine fuel system for service after depreservation, you must flush the system with
    • A. 

      Oil.

    • B. 

      Fuel.

    • C. 

      PD–680.

    • D. 

      Calibration fluid.

  • 120. 
    (046) When metal is attacked by chemical corrosion, it will start
    • A. 

      Deep within the metal.

    • B. 

      On the surface of the metal.

    • C. 

      Throughout the metal all at once.

    • D. 

      Just under the surface of the metal.

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