2a651 CDC All Volume Random Self Test Questions

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CDC Quizzes & Trivia
2A651 All Volume Random Self Test Questions

  
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  • 1. 
    What is the common term for repair cycle assets?
    • A. 

      DIFM PARTS

    • B. 

      MICAP PARTS

    • C. 

      CYCLE ASSETS

    • D. 

      CANN PARTS


  • 2. 
    What two factors determine the priority for an off base requisition?
    • A. 

      LBS AND DAY

    • B. 

      UJC AND NAD

    • C. 

      FCU AND GCI

    • D. 

      FAD AND UJC


  • 3. 
    Where can you find a block by block explanation of how to document the afto form 350 tag?
    • A. 

      00-5-1

    • B. 

      00-5-2

    • C. 

      00-20-1

    • D. 

      00-20-2


  • 4. 
    Who provides you with the required equipment manager training?
    • A. 

      Equipment Management element at Base Training

    • B. 

      Base supply liason

    • C. 

      Equipment Management element at Base Supply

    • D. 

      Unit Base Manager


  • 5. 
    EAID items that require formal supply accountability must be reflected on what listing?
    • A. 

      CA/CRL

    • B. 

      CA/CLR

    • C. 

      CA/DVE

    • D. 

      PA/STK


  • 6. 
    Where can you look to find information concerning how to use the condition tags and the required entries for each?
    • A. 

      TO 00-5-1

    • B. 

      TO 00-5-2

    • C. 

      TO 00-20-3

    • D. 

      TO 00-20-2


  • 7. 
    Which forms should you submit if it's determined that a first time request part will become a recurring one and therefore, the stock level needs to be adjusted?
    • A. 

      AF IMT 2005

    • B. 

      AF IMT 2001

    • C. 

      AF IMT 1998

    • D. 

      AF IMT 1996


  • 8. 
    If a TO change contains new material that cannot be included on an existing page, how are added pages assigned?
    • A. 

      2-2-1 or 2-2A

    • B. 

      2-6-1 or 2-3A

    • C. 

      2-2-1 or 22B

    • D. 

      2-1-1 or 2-4c


  • 9. 
    Which type of washer is used on grooved shafts?
    • A. 

      Plain type washer

    • B. 

      Castlelated type washer

    • C. 

      Tapered type washer

    • D. 

      Tab type washer


  • 10. 
    Which screw is made from high tensile material?
    • A. 

      Shear head screw

    • B. 

      Tapered screw

    • C. 

      Structural screw

    • D. 

      Machine screw


  • 11. 
    Which type of nut requires an auxilary locking washer?
    • A. 

      Lock nut

    • B. 

      Plain nut

    • C. 

      Castle nut

    • D. 

      Plain washer


  • 12. 
    Where is the diameter fo a bolt measured?
    • A. 

      On the head

    • B. 

      On the threads

    • C. 

      On the shank

    • D. 

      On the grip


  • 13. 
    Which control switch is used to take measurements in a circuit thats difficult to reach?
    • A. 

      Funciton selector

    • B. 

      Hold

    • C. 

      Button push selector

    • D. 

      Hold pushbutton


  • 14. 
    On dial indicators with two indicators within one dial face, what does the smaller indicator measure?
    • A. 

      Ten-thousands of an inch

    • B. 

      One-hundred thousant of an inch

    • C. 

      Revolutions

    • D. 

      Centimeters


  • 15. 
    Which part of the micrometer has graduations that represent tenths of an inch?
    • A. 

      The barrel

    • B. 

      The thimble

    • C. 

      The pivot lever

    • D. 

      The micro handler


  • 16. 
    What are the height ranges of each of the five maintenance platforms?
    • A. 

      C-4, 4 FEET, B-2, 3 TO 10 FEET, B-4, 13 TO 20 FEET, B-5, 7 TO 12

    • B. 

      C-1, 4 FEET, B-4, 3 TO 10 FEET, B-2, 13 TO 20 FEET, B-6, 7 TO 12

    • C. 

      C-4, 4 FEET, B-2, 3 TO 10 FEET, B-4, 13 TO 20 FEET, B-5, 7 TO 12

    • D. 

      C-1, 4 FEET, B-1, 3 TO 10 FEET, B-2, 13 TO 20 FEET, B-4, 3 TO 7 FEET, B-5, 7 TO 12


  • 17. 
    What TO gives the procedure for cleaning a jet engine?
    • A. 

      2J-1-19

    • B. 

      2J-1-15

    • C. 

      2J-1-13

    • D. 

      2J-1-16


  • 18. 
    Which manual covers reporting an engine that was improperly shipped?
    • A. 

      AFJMAN 24-404

    • B. 

      AFJMAN 24-204

    • C. 

      AFJMAN 24-203

    • D. 

      AFJMAN 24-208


  • 19. 
    What type of cover is opened by using a zipper?
    • A. 

      Cotton wall frabricator

    • B. 

      Cover

    • C. 

      Prefabricated cover

    • D. 

      Loose fitting flexible cover


  • 20. 
    Which turbine drives the front compressor on a dual spool engine?
    • A. 

      The front turbine

    • B. 

      The mid turbine

    • C. 

      The center turbine

    • D. 

      The rear turbine


  • 21. 
    After the gases leave the turbine section and enter the exhaust section, what type of velocity do they have?
    • A. 

      Centrifugal

    • B. 

      Axial

    • C. 

      Divergent

    • D. 

      Convergent


  • 22. 
    Where is the point of highest airflow velocity in a jet engine?
    • A. 

      Turbine

    • B. 

      Compressor

    • C. 

      Exhaust

    • D. 

      Ejector nozzle


  • 23. 
    Approximately what percent of the energy produced by the fuel is needed to maintain the jet engine operating cycle?
    • A. 

      80

    • B. 

      100

    • C. 

      90

    • D. 

      60


  • 24. 
    When a jet engine reaches idle speed, what determines how the fuel control regulates engine speed?
    • A. 

      Turbine inlet temp

    • B. 

      Compressor temp

    • C. 

      Pt 7 and pt 2

    • D. 

      Power lever setting


  • 25. 
    Where is the point of highest pressure within a jet engine?
    • A. 

      Turbine section

    • B. 

      Compressor section

    • C. 

      Diffuser section

    • D. 

      Exhaust section


  • 26. 
    What two factors determine what proportion of the engergy of a fuel is actually used to propel an aircraft forward?
    • A. 

      Thermal and aircraft effeciency

    • B. 

      Thermal and propulsion efficiency

    • C. 

      Thermal and propulsive efficeincy

    • D. 

      Thermal and conductive efficiency


  • 27. 
    Which bearing discrepancy is caused by heavy shock loads or impact?
    • A. 

      Brinelling

    • B. 

      Pitting

    • C. 

      Grooving

    • D. 

      True Brinelling


  • 28. 
    Which bearing descrepancy occurs from continuous thrust loading during bearing rotation?
    • A. 

      Grooves

    • B. 

      Bands

    • C. 

      Brinelling

    • D. 

      Pitting


  • 29. 
    Which bearing discrepancy is the result of continued shaft oscillation?
    • A. 

      True brinelling

    • B. 

      False brinelling

    • C. 

      Impitent brinelling

    • D. 

      Axial brinelling


  • 30. 
    An augmentor is classified as what type of an engine?
    • A. 

      Ramrod engine

    • B. 

      Rampiston engine

    • C. 

      Ramjet engine

    • D. 

      Jetram engine


  • 31. 
    What is the approximate air to fuel ratio that is used for the actual burning process in a combustion chamber?
    • A. 

      20:1

    • B. 

      10:1

    • C. 

      15:1

    • D. 

      18:1


  • 32. 
    What achieves diffusion in axial flow compressor engine?
    • A. 

      Divergent shape of the casing aft of the compressor guide vanes

    • B. 

      Convergent shape of the casing aft of the compressor guide vanes

    • C. 

      Laterall shape of the casing aft of the compressor guide vanes

    • D. 

      Axial shape of the casing aft of the compressor guide vanes


  • 33. 
    What is the purpose of the air chamber in axial flow compressor engines?
    • A. 

      To bleed air from the N1 Low pressure compressor

    • B. 

      To bleed air from the PT7 Medium pressure compressor

    • C. 

      To bleed air from the N2 High pressure compressor

    • D. 

      To bleed air from the N4 High pressure compressor


  • 34. 
    Which type of compressor is more durable, the axial flow or the centrifugal?
    • A. 

      Axial flow

    • B. 

      Centrifugal

    • C. 

      Front

    • D. 

      Rear


  • 35. 
    How many shafs comprise the compressor/turbine shaft assembly?
    • A. 

      3

    • B. 

      5

    • C. 

      7

    • D. 

      9


  • 36. 
    What is the purpose of the inducer rotor?
    • A. 

      To pick up the air smoothly and feed it into the impeller

    • B. 

      To pick up the air vigurously and feed it into the compressor

    • C. 

      To pick up the air smoothly and feed it into the turbine

    • D. 

      To pick up the air smoothly and feed it into the diffuser


  • 37. 
    Which type of air compressor consists of a two port casing that houses a blower mechanism?
    • A. 

      Turbine compressor

    • B. 

      Diffuser compressor

    • C. 

      Compressor

    • D. 

      Roots compressor


  • 38. 
    Which type of air compressor is the most ineffeceint type of air compressor?
    • A. 

      Turbine compressor

    • B. 

      Roots compressor

    • C. 

      Gear compressor

    • D. 

      Diffuser compressor


  • 39. 
    Which type of air compressor is commonly used on the flight line?
    • A. 

      Gear compressor

    • B. 

      Piston pump compressor

    • C. 

      Gearotor compressor

    • D. 

      Root compressor


  • 40. 
    At what range temperature does the AE2100D3 engine fuel temp switch operate?
    • A. 

      Less than 50 degrees F

    • B. 

      Less than 34 degrees F

    • C. 

      More than 32 degrees F

    • D. 

      Less than 32 degrees F


  • 41. 
    How many fuel nozzles are installed on the AE2100D3 engine diffuser?
    • A. 

      16

    • B. 

      8

    • C. 

      12

    • D. 

      21


  • 42. 
    What component maintains a constant drop of 70 psid to the metering valve and returns excess fuel flow to the inlet side of the high pressure pump on the AE21OOD3?
    • A. 

      Pressure drop and spill valve

    • B. 

      Spill valve and de-pressure

    • C. 

      Pressure increase and spill valve

    • D. 

      Both A and B


  • 43. 
    On the AE21OOD3 engine, at what psid is the fuel flow relief valve in the high pressure pump fully opened?
    • A. 

      850

    • B. 

      100

    • C. 

      340

    • D. 

      750


  • 44. 
    What component on the F108 engine establishes the schedule for positioning the VBV's?
    • A. 

      MFC

    • B. 

      AFC

    • C. 

      RGB

    • D. 

      MEC


  • 45. 
    On the F108 engine, what parameters determine the position of the VSV's?
    • A. 

      N2 AND BIT

    • B. 

      N1 AND CIT

    • C. 

      N2 AND CIT

    • D. 

      N1 AND TIT


  • 46. 
    What type of pump is on the F108 engine fuel pump high pressure stage?
    • A. 

      Positive displacement gear type

    • B. 

      Negative displacement gear type

    • C. 

      Axial displacement gear type

    • D. 

      Centrifugal displacement gear type


  • 47. 
    Which three units can the CEDS replace at the organizational level and at the test cell?
    • A. 

      DCU, GSU, EAU

    • B. 

      DCA, GSA, EDU

    • C. 

      DCU, GSU, EDU

    • D. 

      DCU, GSCU, EAU


  • 48. 
    What parts of the propeller assembly form the feather stop?
    • A. 

      Front face of the piston, rear face of the hub, and an adjustment washer

    • B. 

      Rear face of the piston, front face of the hub, and an adjustment washer

    • C. 

      Axial face of the piston, front face of the hub, and an adjustment washer

    • D. 

      Mid face of the piston, front face of the hub, and an adjustment washer


  • 49. 
    How is piston and shaft movement translated to vary propeller blade angle?
    • A. 

      Through the operating pin

    • B. 

      Through the major pin

    • C. 

      Through the pinion input gear pin

    • D. 

      Through the operating shaft


  • 50. 
    What provides ice protection on the leading edge of each propeller blade?
    • A. 

      Anti ice boots

    • B. 

      Deicing plate

    • C. 

      Energized deicer valve

    • D. 

      Deicing boots


  • 51. 
    What is the most successful type of thrust reverser?
    • A. 

      Aerodynamic blockage

    • B. 

      Mechanical blockage

    • C. 

      Reverse thrust

    • D. 

      Thrust reversal system


  • 52. 
    The thrust reverser control valve controls hydraulic power for actuating what components?
    • A. 

      The fan and diffuser thrust reversers

    • B. 

      The fan and core thrust reversers

    • C. 

      The fan and exhaust thrust reversers

    • D. 

      The fan reversers


  • 53. 
    The operation of the control valve is in what three functional modes?
    • A. 

      Stowed and locked, deploying, and preventing

    • B. 

      Stowed and locked, deploying, and actuating

    • C. 

      Stowed and locked, deploying, and stowing

    • D. 

      Stowed and locked, deploying, and locking


  • 54. 
    The C-17 has how many fan blocker doors?
    • A. 

      4

    • B. 

      16

    • C. 

      10

    • D. 

      12


  • 55. 
    The C-17 has how many core blocker doors?
    • A. 

      7

    • B. 

      16

    • C. 

      12

    • D. 

      8


  • 56. 
    The C-17 has how many 95 percent proximity sensors?
    • A. 

      4

    • B. 

      7

    • C. 

      16

    • D. 

      2


  • 57. 
    Which part of the augmentor reduces the velocity of the gases so that the flame stability is maintained during augmentor operation?
    • A. 

      Sprayrings

    • B. 

      Exhaust Nozzle

    • C. 

      Flameholder

    • D. 

      Exhaust Liner


  • 58. 
    Name the four types of variable nozzle systems?
    • A. 

      Deve, Convergent divergent, Vectoring

    • B. 

      Flap, Iris, Convergent divergent, Vectoring

    • C. 

      Flap, Iris, Convergent divergent

    • D. 

      Axial, Iris, Convergent divergent, Vector


  • 59. 
    What is used to operate the flaps in the flap type nozzle system?
    • A. 

      Air pressure acting on a series of pistons

    • B. 

      Spring pressure acting on a series of pistons

    • C. 

      Oil pressure acting on a series of pistons

    • D. 

      Fuel pressure acting on a series of pistons


  • 60. 
    How many positioins does a typical iris type nozzle system have?
    • A. 

      4

    • B. 

      6

    • C. 

      10

    • D. 

      2


  • 61. 
    The divergent exhaust nozzle is what kind of system?
    • A. 

      Free floating

    • B. 

      Floating

    • C. 

      Spring pressure

    • D. 

      Free formed


  • 62. 
    The divergent nozzle segments are free floating, permitting what types of operations?
    • A. 

      Subsonic and Ultrasonic

    • B. 

      Ultrasonic and supersonic

    • C. 

      Supersonic and Hyper speed

    • D. 

      Subsonic and supersonic


  • 63. 
    What component is supported inside the augmentor liner?
    • A. 

      Liner Duct

    • B. 

      Mixing Duct

    • C. 

      Re-mixing Liner

    • D. 

      Mixing Liner


  • 64. 
    What component spreads the flame to the radial gutters of the flameholder?
    • A. 

      Rear gutter ring

    • B. 

      Mid gutter radial

    • C. 

      Mid gutter ring

    • D. 

      Front gutter ring


  • 65. 
    Compressor bleed air is extracted from what stator exit stage for anti icing?
    • A. 

      5th

    • B. 

      9th

    • C. 

      14th

    • D. 

      13th


  • 66. 
    Air is ducted into the fan flow path through how many exit slots?
    • A. 

      12

    • B. 

      9

    • C. 

      8

    • D. 

      13


  • 67. 
    Which type of duct design does a high bypass engine usually have?
    • A. 

      Long

    • B. 

      Short

    • C. 

      Wide

    • D. 

      Short-Long


  • 68. 
    What two types of stress act on the turbine rotor blades?
    • A. 

      Axial and rotational forces

    • B. 

      Heat and rotational forces

    • C. 

      Heat and centrifugal forces

    • D. 

      Heat and axial forces


  • 69. 
    The flexible feedback cables for the VBV's and VSV's transmit signals to what components?
    • A. 

      MFC

    • B. 

      RGB

    • C. 

      MEC

    • D. 

      RCVV


  • 70. 
    Below 45 percent corrected core engine speed, in what position are the VSV's?
    • A. 

      Energized open

    • B. 

      Partially closed

    • C. 

      Fully open

    • D. 

      Fully closed


  • 71. 
    What does the CVG system move and control?
    • A. 

      Compressor IGV and the first five rows of compressor stator vanes

    • B. 

      Compressor IGV and the first six rows of compressor stator vanes

    • C. 

      Compressor IGV and the first four rows of compressor stator vanes

    • D. 

      Compressor IGV and the first seven rows of compressor stator vanes


  • 72. 
    In what position are the compressor air bleed valves after start and during normal engine operation?
    • A. 

      Open

    • B. 

      Linear

    • C. 

      Bled

    • D. 

      Closed


  • 73. 
    Where is the compressor acceleration bleed control valve mounted?
    • A. 

      To the aft anti icing tube at the diffuser housing

    • B. 

      To the fwd anti icing tube at the diffuser housing

    • C. 

      To the rear anti icing tube at the diffuser housing

    • D. 

      To the aft anti icing tube at the compressor housing


  • 74. 
    How is the CVG actuator controlled?
    • A. 

      By High pressure fuel from the PMFR

    • B. 

      By High pressure fuel from the P&D

    • C. 

      By low pressure fuel from the MEC

    • D. 

      By High pressure fuel from the FPMU


  • 75. 
    What tools can you use if you are required to repeen an area of the blade?
    • A. 

      Power driven aluminium blade peener or a peening hammer

    • B. 

      Blade checking indicator

    • C. 

      Re peening sledge hammer

    • D. 

      Dremel and mallet


  • 76. 
    In what position is the rotating loop in a generator when no voltage is being produced?
    • A. 

      Vertical

    • B. 

      Horizontal

    • C. 

      Laterall

    • D. 

      Fixed


  • 77. 
    What unit senses variation from the desired CSD output speed?
    • A. 

      Boost pump

    • B. 

      Alternator stator

    • C. 

      Basic speed governor

    • D. 

      Speed governor


  • 78. 
    When the thermocouples in an EGT system are hooked up in parallel, what type of circuit is this?
    • A. 

      Averaging

    • B. 

      Direct

    • C. 

      Alternate

    • D. 

      Fixed


  • 79. 
    How many volts does the AC ignition system deliver to the igniter plug?
    • A. 

      30,000

    • B. 

      45,000

    • C. 

      20,000

    • D. 

      90,000


  • 80. 
    What funciton does the vibrator unit in the DC ignition system perform?
    • A. 

      It changes direct current to alternate current

    • B. 

      It changes direct current to pulsating current

    • C. 

      It change alternate current to direct current

    • D. 

      It changes alternate current to pulsating current


  • 81. 
    Which high energy capacitor ignition part smoothes out the pulsations in the current?
    • A. 

      Pulsating vibrator

    • B. 

      Direct rectifier

    • C. 

      Gas filled rectifier

    • D. 

      Capacitor


  • 82. 
    At what percent engine RPM does the T56 speed sensitive control engergize the ignition relay?
    • A. 

      18% 2,200

    • B. 

      16% 2,200

    • C. 

      19% 2,200

    • D. 

      21%


  • 83. 
    At what percent engine RPM does the T56 speed sensitive control de-energize the ignition exciter?
    • A. 

      65%

    • B. 

      75%

    • C. 

      45%

    • D. 

      30%


  • 84. 
    What is the discharge rate for the main core igniter plug on a F100 engine?
    • A. 

      1 to 5 sparks per second

    • B. 

      2 to 5 sparks per second

    • C. 

      3 to 5 sparks per second

    • D. 

      4 to 5 sparks per second


  • 85. 
    What is the rate of spark in an AE2100d3?
    • A. 

      5 to 10 sparks each second

    • B. 

      3 to 5 sparks each second

    • C. 

      2 to 8 sparks each second

    • D. 

      4 to 7 sparks each second


  • 86. 
    The compressor inlet gearbox housing of the JFS provides drive pads and mounting flange for what assemblies?
    • A. 

      Fuel control, two speed switch assembly and CGB

    • B. 

      Fuel control, two speed switch assembly and AMAD

    • C. 

      Engine adapter PTO shaft

    • D. 

      Power turbine overspeed switch


  • 87. 
    What type of combustion section does the JFS have?
    • A. 

      Reverse flow, can annular type

    • B. 

      Forward flow, annular type

    • C. 

      Reverse flow, annular type

    • D. 

      Forward flow, can annular type


  • 88. 
    Positive pressure is maintained in the fuel control during shutdown by what system?
    • A. 

      Bypass flow system

    • B. 

      Bypass fuel system

    • C. 

      Bypass oil system

    • D. 

      Bypass alternate current system


  • 89. 
    Which unit connects the ADG to the F-16 engine?
    • A. 

      Aircraft adapter

    • B. 

      AMAD shaft

    • C. 

      Engine adapter

    • D. 

      PTO shaft


  • 90. 
    What component schedules the start of fuel and ignition for the JFS?
    • A. 

      ESS CONTROLLER

    • B. 

      SCS CONTROLLER

    • C. 

      EAU CONTROLLER

    • D. 

      DSG CONTROLLER


  • 91. 
    How many ounces of engine oil are used to lubricate the gear train?
    • A. 

      13.2

    • B. 

      16.5

    • C. 

      14.4

    • D. 

      14.5


  • 92. 
    The start panel is monitored and controlled by the mission computer by which bus?
    • A. 

      MIL-STD-1554B data bus

    • B. 

      MIL-STD-1555B data bus

    • C. 

      MIL-STD-1556B data bus

    • D. 

      MIL-STD-1553B data bus


  • 93. 
    Which propeller assembly provides electrical circuits between the brush block assembly and the spinner, afterbody, and blade assemblies?
    • A. 

      Deicer contact ring holder assembly

    • B. 

      Deicer boot ring holder assembly


  • 94. 
    What are the primary mechanical controls provided to the control assembly?
    • A. 

      Throttle

    • B. 

      Throttle and condition lever

    • C. 

      Condition


  • 95. 
    Which valve housing component contains the beta set cam and alpha shaft rigging cam?
    • A. 

      Alpha shaft

    • B. 

      Beta shaft


  • 96. 
    Which valve housing component can be pinned at 5 degree increments?
    • A. 

      Beta shaft rigging con

    • B. 

      Beta shaft rigging shaft

    • C. 

      Beta shaft rigging cam


  • 97. 
    What combined maintenance approach modifies or eliminates the intermediate (off equipment) function, where possible, by consolidating that repair function at the depot level?
    • A. 

      2LM

    • B. 

      3LM

    • C. 

      1LM


  • 98. 
    What type of maintenance facility is a hybrid of 2LM and 3LM?
    • A. 

      Centralized repair center

    • B. 

      Regional repair center


  • 99. 
    Who takes the lead in identifying, tracking, assessing, and correcting R&M deficiencies on their assigned air and space equipment and also co chairs the PIWG?
    • A. 

      Single manager

    • B. 

      Regional manager

    • C. 

      Origin point


  • 100. 
    What is the impact of a DR report with a 1C priority?
    • A. 

      Prevents the accomplishment of a non essential capabibility, not including MC

    • B. 

      Prevents the accomplishment of an essential capability


  • 101. 
    Which IMDS-CDB subsystem tracks maintenance on test equipment?
    • A. 

      ATERS

    • B. 

      IMDS

    • C. 

      CEMS

    • D. 

      Maintenance review


  • 102. 
    Which IMDS-CDB subsystem monitors estimated time in commission ETIC?
    • A. 

      Sub system and equipment reporting

    • B. 

      Status and inventory reporting


  • 103. 
    What maintenance metric is perhaps the best know yardstick for measuring a units performance?
    • A. 

      MC RATE

    • B. 

      NMC RATE


  • 104. 
    What maintenance repair priority level should be assigned to perform maintenance on primary mission aircraft, related AGE, and munitions support equipment for the first 8 hours after landing?
    • A. 

      Priority 2

    • B. 

      Priority 1

    • C. 

      Priority 4


  • 105. 
    What MRP level should be assigned to perform scheduled maint to include periodic insp, routine TCTO's?
    • A. 

      Priority 2

    • B. 

      Priority 4

    • C. 

      Priority 5


  • 106. 
    What MRP level should be assigned to perform routine repair of AGE and repair cycle assets?
    • A. 

      Priority 5

    • B. 

      Priority 3

    • C. 

      Priority 1


  • 107. 
    In AMXS/HMXS or MXS, who does the MX SUPT work for?
    • A. 

      MXG/CD

    • B. 

      MOO

    • C. 

      MXG/CC


  • 108. 
    Who is responsible through the MOS/CC to the MXG/CC for monitoring the overall health of the fleet?
    • A. 

      MOF/CC assisted by the MOF SUPT

    • B. 

      MOF/CD assisted by the MOF SUPT


  • 109. 
    What form should be used to establish a TODO accout?
    • A. 

      AFTO IMT 43

    • B. 

      AFTO IMT 22


  • 110. 
    What AF IMT should be submitted to have a TO correction or improvement be considered under the IDEA program?
    • A. 

      AF IMT 43

    • B. 

      AF IMT 22

    • C. 

      AF IMT 1000


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