Flashcard Set Preview
| Side A | Side B | ||
| 1 |
Which cleaning substance acts as a sterilant for cold sterilization, as well as a disinfectant?
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Gluteraldehyde
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| 2 |
What 2 oral diseases affect the enamel?
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FORLCavity lesions
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| 3 |
What kind of teeth do canines have?
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Radicular brachyodont teeth
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| 4 |
What kind of teeth do rats have?
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Brachyodont premolars
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| 5 |
What layer of a blood smear should you exam for Microfilaria?
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Feathered edge
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| 6 |
What kind of worm is Ancylostoma caninum?
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Hookworm
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| 7 |
What are 2 common side effects of Hookworms?
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Bloody diarrhea (they suck blood from the intestines)AnemiaCoughing from migration through...
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| 8 |
What parasite is the causative agent of Equine Protozoal Myelitis?
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Sarcocystis
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| 9 |
What is the main symptom of Cryptosporidium?
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Diarrhea
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| 10 |
What parasite of felines will cause liver failure, extravascular hemolysis, and parasitic inclusions...
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Cytauxzoon
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| 11 |
What would the BUN:Cr ratio be for renal azotemia?
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5-20:1
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| 12 |
What diseases is PU/PD common in?
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DiabetesHyperadrenocorticismHypoadrenocorticism
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| 13 |
What disease will cause increased BUN and Creatinine levels, phosphorus elevations, casts in...
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Tubular disease
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| 14 |
What would be the number one indicator of Glomerular disease?
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Increased protein levels in the urine
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| 15 |
Which radiology substance can be poured down the drain because the silver has not dissociated...
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Developer
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| 16 |
What is the maximum gas pressure that should be given to an airway? (unit: cm H2O)
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20 cm H2O
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| 17 |
CO2 increases, increased airway resistance, and lower concentrations of gas anesthetics may...
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Rebreathing system
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| 18 |
Which anesthetic inhalant has the highest MAC requiring a higher percentage to cause effect?
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Sevoflurane
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| 19 |
What is a common side effect of Propofol?
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Bradycardia
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| 20 |
What is the major side effect of Sulfa drugs?
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Crystal formation in the kidneys
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| 21 |
What species has more drug sensitivities to Sulfa drugs?
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Dogs
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| 22 |
What are the major contraindications of quinolones?
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Use of them in young growing animals because of the effect of cartilage formation
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| 23 |
What can Enrofloxacin cause in cats?
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Blindness
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| 24 |
What kind of drugs are Imidazoles?
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Fungicides
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| 25 |
What drug group is effective in reducing edema?
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Corticosteroids
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| 26 |
Overuse of Corticosteroids can lead to what?
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Cushing's disease (Hyperadrenocorticism)
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| 27 |
What are the two main side effects of Corticosteroids?
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Immune system depressionDelayed healing
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| 28 |
What drugs can cause abortions in ruminants? (Especially cattle and horses)
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Corticosteroids
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| 29 |
What are NSAID's?
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(COX)-2 inhibitors
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| 30 |
What are Diueretics?
|
Drugs that decrease the workload of the heart by removing water via the kidneys
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| 31 |
What substance acts by mimicking the sympathetic nervous system to increase contractility of...
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Catecholamines
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| 32 |
What do Positive Inotropic drugs affect?
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Contratility of the heart
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| 33 |
What are Expectorants?
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Drugs that dilute and liquefy secretions
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| 34 |
Where do Antitussives work in the body?
|
Centrally at the midbrain level to suppress the cough center
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| 35 |
Which drug group is used to reduce the spasmodic contractions of bronchioles/bronchi?
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Bronchodilators
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| 36 |
What are the actions of Antihistamines?
|
To cause bronchodilation and prevent mast cell degranulation by blocking or suppressing the...
|
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| 37 |
What are Decongestants?
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Drugs that reduce swelling of nasal tissues
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| 38 |
What 3 groups of drugs are commonly used to treat respiratory conditions?
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CorticosteroidsDiureticsAntimicrobials
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| 39 |
What are 2 common Catecholamine drugs?
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EpinephrineDopamine
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| 40 |
What expectorant is a smooth-muscle relaxant used for large-animal anesthesia?
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Guaifenesin (Mucinex)
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| 41 |
What 2 levels can Emetics work at?
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Brain levelStomach level
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| 42 |
What 2 levels can Antidiarrheal drugs work at?
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Intestinal tract levelNervous input to gut function
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| 43 |
What drugs have a specific effect on the kidneys?
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DiureticsCholinergic agonistsUrinary tract acidifiers/alkalizers
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| 44 |
What are Osmotic Diuretics commonly used for?
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Reducing edema (especially with cranial trauma)Treat acute renal failure
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| 45 |
What are Urinary Acidifiers and Urinary Alkalizers used for?
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Acidifiers: To dissolve or prevent struvite crystalsAlkalizers: Minimize calcium oxalate and...
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| 46 |
What species can have excesses of Thyroid Hormone that are treated by blocking hormone production?
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Cats
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| 47 |
What are Gonadotropins?
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Substances that target the gonads to act like either FSH or LH
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| 48 |
What are Gonadotropins divided into?
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EstrogensProgestinsAndrogens
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| 49 |
What hormone is used to cause lysis of the corpus luteum and to terminate pregnancy?
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Prostaglandins
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| 50 |
What drug is used in cattle to synchronize estrus?
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Norgestomet
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| 51 |
What is the use of Regumate (Altrenogest) in horses?
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To syncrhonize or suppress estrus Maintain pregnancy
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| 52 |
What is the estrogen Estradiol Cypionate used for?
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Terminate pregnancy
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| 53 |
What is the actions of Oxytocin?
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Promotes uterine contractionsPromotes milk let down
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| 54 |
What 3 groups of drugs are commonly used for Behavior Modification?
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AntidepressantsAntianxietyHormones
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| 55 |
What Progestin must humans use caution with to prevent absorption through the skin?
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Regu-Mate
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| 56 |
What are Colloids?
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Large molecular weight substances that stay within the blood vessels
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| 57 |
What type of solutions are used in emergencies?
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Hypertonic solutions
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| 58 |
What are the most common additives in fluid therapy?
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ElectrolytesBlood pH balancersCalories for energySupplement vitamins
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| 59 |
How many ounces are in a CUP?
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8 ounces
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| 60 |
How many cups are in a PINT?
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2 cups
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| 61 |
How many pints are in a QUART?
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2 pints
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| 62 |
How many quarts are in a GALLON?
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4 quarts
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| 63 |
What are the 2 most common medications for Tapeworm treatment?
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Epsiprantel and Praziquantel
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| 64 |
What is the most toxic ectoparasite drug and what is it treated (reversed) with?
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Organophosphates Reversed with Atropine
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| 65 |
Explain Narrow Therapeutic Index drugs.
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The minimal effective dosage is close to the toxic dose
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| 66 |
What do Aminoglycosides require to work in inhibiting protein synthesis?
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Oxygen
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| 67 |
What is Sarcocystis?
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A protozoal disease of horses
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| 68 |
How many scrubs should each quadrant on the hand get?
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25
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| 69 |
How many scrubs should each quadrant on the arm get?
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10
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| 70 |
What suture is least likely to cause suture reaction or wicking of bacteria?
|
Stainless Steel
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| 71 |
Which teeth do not exist in cats?
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405 and 406
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| 72 |
Which portion of the tooth is covered with cementum?
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The root
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| 73 |
Which teeth of canines are single-rooted?
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IncisorsCaninesFirst premolars
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| 74 |
Which teeth of canines are double-rooted?
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Second and third premolarsSecond molar
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| 75 |
Which teeth of canines have three roots?
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Fourth upper premolarFirst upper molar
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| 76 |
How many deciduous teeth and permanent teeth do dogs have?
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28 deciduous42 permanent
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| 77 |
Which teeth of the cat have one root?
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IncisorsCaninesMaxillary second premolar
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| 78 |
Which tooth of cats has three roots?
|
Upper last premolar
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| 79 |
Which species teeth are all single rooted?
|
Horses and cows
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| 80 |
What kind of teeth do horses and cattle have?
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Radicular Hypsodont
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| 81 |
The first premolar of horses is also referred to as what?
|
Wolf tooth
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| 82 |
Is the mandibular symphysis of the horse unfused or fused?
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Fused
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| 83 |
What teeth do cattle lack?
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Upper incisors and canines
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| 84 |
Which animal has a double set of upper incisors?
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Rabbits
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| 85 |
Which animals have enamel only found on the lingual surface?
|
Rodents and rabbits
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| 86 |
What kind of teeth do lagomorphs and some rodents have?
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Aradicular Hypsodont
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| 87 |
Which animals have aradicular hypsodont incisors and brachyodont premolars and molars?
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Rats and mice
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| 88 |
Which animals have a palatal ostium?
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Chinchillas and Guinea Pigs
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| 89 |
What are the two types of stones used to sharpen dental instruments?
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Arkansas stone - lubricated with oilCeramic stone - lubricated with water
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| 90 |
What part of dentistry deals with the pulp of the tooth?
|
Endodontics
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| 91 |
What is another name for Exodontics?
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Tooth extraction
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| 92 |
What is Calcium Alginate used for in dentistry?
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Used to make an impression of the oral cavity
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| 93 |
The Parallel Technique in dental radiology is used for what teeth only?
|
Mandibular cheek teeth
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| 94 |
What is the Bisecting Angle Technique used for in dental radiology?
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Non-mandibular teeth
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| 95 |
What is the Extraoral Technique in dental radiology used for?
|
For assessing cheek teeth in horses, rodents, lagomorphs
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| 96 |
The oral cavity and the muscles of mastication are innervated by which nerve?
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Trigeminal nerve
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| 97 |
What is the most common local anesthetic for the oral cavity and how soon before a procedure...
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Bupivicaine5 minutes prior
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| 98 |
Explain the three types of blocks for regional anesthesia.1) Infra-alveolar block2) Infraorbital...
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1) Infra-alveolar: Anesthetizes the entire mandible on that side2) Infraorbital: Anesthetizes...
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| 99 |
What drug can be used in periodontal treatment to kill of anaerobic bacteria?
|
Doxycycline
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| 100 |
Define Epulis.
|
An overgrowth of the gum tissue that is very common in brachycephalic breeds
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| 101 |
What is the most common oral cancer found in dogs and the second most common found in cats?
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Malignant Melanoma
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| 102 |
What is the most common oral cancer found in cats and the second most common found in dogs?
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Squamous Cell Carcinoma
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| 103 |
What is the third most common tumor in both dogs and cats?
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Fibrosarcoma
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| 104 |
Class I Malocclusion is AKA?
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Crossbite
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| 105 |
Class II Malocclusion is AKA?
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Parrot Mouth
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| 106 |
Class III Maloccolusion is considered normal in what breed?
|
Brachycephalic breeds
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| 107 |
Which dental specialty deals with abnormal orientation of teeth?
|
Orthodontics
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| 108 |
Which blood collection tube is commonly used for coagulation studies?
|
Blue-top
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| 109 |
Which blood collection tube is best for glucose studies?
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Gray-top (sodium fluoride)
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| 110 |
What RBC abnormality is common in lead poisoning?
|
Basophilic stippling
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| 111 |
Heinz bodies are commonly seen in RBC's with what toxicities?
|
ZincMaple leafOnionTylenol
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| 112 |
Pink, intracytoplasmic inclusions may be seen with what viral infection?
|
Distemper
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| 113 |
Elevated WBC counts with hypersegmented neutrophils and no bands are called?
|
Stress leukogram
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| 114 |
What is the collection site of choice for bone marrow in the cow?
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Ribs
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| 115 |
What is the collection site of choice for bone marrow in the horse?
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Sternum
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| 116 |
What are the highest numbers of circulating lymphocytes?
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T Cells
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| 117 |
What cells NEVER leave the bone marrow?
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Megakaryocytes
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| 118 |
What is the definitive host of Cytauxzoon?
|
Bobcat
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| 119 |
Which WBC is normally elevated in cases of immune mediated arthritis?
|
Neutrophils
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| 120 |
Mesothelial cells will be seen in what type of aspirations?
|
Body cavity aspirations
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| 121 |
The most common cause of calcium decreases on serum testing is what?
|
Hypoalbuminemia
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| 122 |
What 2 problems can lead to diabetes?
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PancreatitisPeriodontal Disease
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| 123 |
What are 2 common agglutination tests?
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CogginsCoombs
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| 124 |
Anoplura and Mallophaga are?
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Sucking and Chewing Lice
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| 125 |
Ctenocephalides, Echidnophaga, Xenopsylla and Pulex are all what?
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Fleas
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| 126 |
Psoroptes ovis and Chorioptes are?
|
Sarcoptic mites of horses, cattle, sheep
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| 127 |
Psoroptes cuniculli is what?
|
The sarcoptic mange of rabbits and is zoonotic
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| 128 |
Sarcoptes is known as what?
|
ScabiesIt is zoonotic and affects multiple species
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| 129 |
Otodectes cynotis is what?
|
The ear mite of the dog and cat
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| 130 |
Notoedres is what?
|
Cat scabies and it is zoonotic
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| 131 |
What type of mange affects cattle the most?
|
Demodectic mange
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| 132 |
Chyletiella is what?
|
Also known as "Walking Dandruff"Mainly affects rabbits, but any mammal is susceptible to it
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| 133 |
Explain Ixodes.
|
White-tailed deer tickAffects humans, dogs, cats
|
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| 134 |
Explain Rhipicephalus sanguineus.
|
Brown dog tickAffects humans, dogs, cattle
|
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| 135 |
Explain the following Dermacentor species:1) D. variabilis2) D. andersoni3) D. nitens4) D....
|
1) D. variabilis: American Dog Tick - affects dogs2) D. andersoni: Rocky Mountain...
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| 136 |
What are Sarcocystis, Toxoplasma gondii, Neospora caninum and Cryptosporidium?
|
Coccidians
|
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| 137 |
What are Plasmodium, Haemoproteus and Hepatozoon canis?
|
Red blood cell parasites that have arthropod vectors (insects)
|
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| 138 |
What are Cytauxzoon and Babesia?
|
Red blood cell parasites that are carried by ticks
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| 139 |
What are Cestodes?
|
Tapeworms
|
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| 140 |
What are the reproductive elements of cestodes?
|
Proglottids
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| 141 |
What 3 species are cestodes (tapeworms)?
|
Taenia spp.Diplydium sp.Echinococcus spp.
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| 142 |
What are Trematodes?
|
Flukes
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| 143 |
What is the intermediate host of most trematodes?
|
Snails
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| 144 |
Fasciola spp. and Paragonimus kellicotti are both what?
|
Trematodes (flukes)
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| 145 |
What type of parasites do not have a true intermediate host?
|
Hookworms and Strongyles
|
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| 146 |
What eggs fit the description: pigmented and oval with a pointed end and a blunt end with an...
|
Fluke eggs
|
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| 147 |
What are Nematodes?
|
Roundworms
|
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| 148 |
Onchocerca spp. and Dirofilaria immitis are what?
|
Filarial roundworms (may be found in blood vessels, lymph tissues, body cavities)
|
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| 149 |
Melarsomine is AKA and treats what?
|
Immiticide Treats heartworms
|
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| 150 |
What 2 animals do not respond well to adulticide therapy?
|
Cats and ferrets
|
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| 151 |
Ancylostoma spp., Ostertagia, Haemonchus, Strongylus spp., and Dictyocaulus are all what time...
|
Hookworms/Strongyles and Hairworms
|
|
| 152 |
What is Dictyocaulus?
|
The lungworm
|
|
| 153 |
What group of Nematodes may result in visceral larval migrans?
|
Ascarids
|
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| 154 |
What are Ascaris, Parascaris, Toxoscaris, and Toxocara?
|
Roundworms (ascarids)
|
|
| 155 |
What organs do ascarids target?
|
Intestines or the stomach
|
|
| 156 |
What are Trichinella, Trichuris Vulpis, Capillaria spp., Eucoleus aerophila and Dioctyphema...
|
Roundworms in a group called Adenophorea
|
|
| 157 |
What is Trichuris vulpis?
|
A whipworm with no intermediate host
|
|
| 158 |
What is Capillaria spp.?
|
Bladder worm with the earthworm as the intermediate host
|
|
| 159 |
What is Eucoleus aerophila?
|
Lungworm with the earthworm as the intermediate host
|
|
| 160 |
What is Dioctyphema renale?
|
Giant kidney worm with the earthworm as the intermediate host (possibly fish or frogs)
|
|
| 161 |
What is the only important species of pinworms?
|
Oxyuris equi
|
|
| 162 |
What is the pH of carnivores?
|
Acidic (<7.0)
|
|
| 163 |
What is the pH of herbivores?
|
Alkaline (>7.0)
|
|
| 164 |
What should urine slides be examined under to identify casts and crystals?
|
10x - low power
|
|
| 165 |
What should urine slides be examined under to identify bacteria and cell morphology?
|
40x - high power
|
|
| 166 |
What is the most common epithelial cell?
|
Transitional
|
|
| 167 |
What do Mallophaga species cause?
|
Itchiness
|
|
| 168 |
Zinc sulfate is the preferred solution float for what?
|
Giardia cysts
|
|
| 169 |
Which parasite is a liver fluke?
|
P. kellicotti
|
|
| 170 |
Explain the appearance of Eucoleus, Trichuris, and Capillaria.
|
Smooth, football-shaped shells with double plugs
|
|
| 171 |
Spirocerca and Physaloptera infect what?
|
The stomach and esophagus causing ulceration
|
|
| 172 |
A round ovum with a pigmented center is what parasite?
|
Toxocara spp.
|
|
| 173 |
Explain Fluke eggs.
|
Golden color, a pointy end, and an operculum
|
|
| 174 |
Most trematodes are best diagnosed by what fecal procedure?
|
Sedimentation
|
|
| 175 |
What does a high protein level do to the pH?
|
Decreases it
|
|
| 176 |
What disease has the following symptoms: Glycosuria, ketonuria, low SG?
|
Diabetes
|
|
| 177 |
What cells would NOT be seen on a cystocentesis sample?
|
Squamous cells
|
|
| 178 |
Ketonuria is caused by?
|
Starvation and diabetes
|
|
| 179 |
Borrelia burgdorferi is the causative agent of what?
|
Lyme Disease
|
|
| 180 |
What nutrient do cats require at four times the level needed in the canine diet?
|
Niacin
|
|
| 181 |
Is the fixative acidic or alkaline?
|
Acidic
|
|
| 182 |
What part of the x-ray machine produces electrons?
|
Cathode
|
|
| 183 |
What is the part of the x-ray machine that produces x-rays and is usually made of tungsten?
|
Anode
|
|
| 184 |
How are x-rays produced?
|
By electrons hitting a metal
|
|
| 185 |
The SPEED of electrons is adjusted by the what?
|
kVp
|
|
| 186 |
The part of the anode that electrons hit is called the?
|
Target
|
|
| 187 |
The NUMBER of electrons is adjusted by the what?
|
mA
|
|
| 188 |
What type of anodes require higher mAs because they have shorter exposure times?
|
Stationary
|
|
| 189 |
Air-filled structures appear what color on a radiograph?
|
Black
|
|
| 190 |
Green-light sensitive film should be used with what type of screens?
|
Rare earth screens
|
|
| 191 |
Blue-light sensitive film should be used with what type of screens?
|
Calcium tungstate screens
|
|
| 192 |
Is the developer alkaline or acidic?
|
Alkaline
|
|
| 193 |
The fixative should be in contact with the film for how long?
|
Twice as long as the developer time
|
|
| 194 |
Exposure to light results in an artifact called what and appear what color?
|
Film fog and appear dark
|
|
| 195 |
What do static electricity artifacts resemble?
|
Black lightning bolts or trees
|
|
| 196 |
What temperature is the developer maintained at?
|
95 degrees Fahrenheit
|
|
| 197 |
What is the heel effect?
|
The increased clarity and darkness of the side of the film closest to the cathode (place the...
|
|
| 198 |
The faster the screen, the _______ the ____ required to produce the image.
|
Lower, mAs
|
|
| 199 |
By increasing the kVp, what will happen?
|
The contrast will be increased
|
|
| 200 |
What is the Source Image Distance?
|
The distance between the film and the x-ray tube
|
|
| 201 |
What is the desired SID?
|
40 centimeters
|
|
| 202 |
When should gowns and gloves be radiographed to ensure effective coverage?
|
6-12 months
|
|
| 203 |
What does ALARA stand for?
|
As low as reasonably achievable
|
|
| 204 |
What is the maximum permissible dose per year in Sv and rems?
|
0.05 Sv per year5 rems per year
|
|
| 205 |
When does grid cutoff occur?
|
When the focused rid is not placed with the proper side toward the beam
|
|
| 206 |
What is the advantage of using the Bucky technique?
|
No grid lines present on the finished film
|
|
| 207 |
What substance is used in Myelographys?
|
Injection of a water-soluble organic iodide into the spine
|
|
| 208 |
What type of radiographs do not require as high a setting on mAs?
|
Thoracic
|
|
| 209 |
What is a PennHIP used for?
|
Determines the distraction index of the hip joint
|
|
| 210 |
When do you do skyline radiographs?
|
On turtles
|
|
| 211 |
What substance is usually used for GI studies?
|
Barium
|
|
| 212 |
Radiodense appears what color?
|
White
|
|
| 213 |
Radiolucent appears what color?
|
Black
|
|
| 214 |
When should you never use barium?
|
Bladder studies
|
|
| 215 |
Ionic solutions of organic iodides are used for what type of studies?
|
GI studies when perforation is suspectedThey can also be used for IV injection or injection...
|
|
| 216 |
Double contrast studies are a combination of what?
|
Gas and iodine
|
|
| 217 |
What 2 things have the highest impedance and are seen as hyperechoic (white) on ultrasounds?
|
Bone and air
|
|
| 218 |
What has the lowest impedance to sound and is seen as black or hypoechoic?
|
Pure liquid
|
|
| 219 |
What is usually isoechoic unless it is diseased?
|
Fat
|
|
| 220 |
How does the spleen appear on an ultrasound?
|
Hyperechoic
|
|
| 221 |
How does the bladder appear on an ultrasound?
|
Hypoechoic because it contains urine
|
|
| 222 |
What is Doppler sonography used for?
|
To diagnose heart disease and blood vessel abnormalities
|
|
| 223 |
When does acoustic shadowing occur?
|
When all the sound is reflected at an interface between two different densities
|
|
| 224 |
Distant enhancement occurs when what happens?
|
When the sound waves go through a fluid-filled cyst or an organ
|
|
| 225 |
Explain MRI.
|
Uses nonionizing radio frequenciesUsed for soft-tissueUses a magnet
|
|
| 226 |
Explain CT Scan.
|
Primarily used for CNS or nasal cavityCan be 2D or 3D
|
|
| 227 |
Explain Nuclear scintography.
|
Used primarily for function studies of organsUses radioactive isotope tracer which emits gamma...
|
|
| 228 |
What kind of view would be best for assessing the anconeal process?
|
90-degree flexion elbow
|
|
| 229 |
What view should be used when an ear infection is suspected?
|
Open-mouth view
|
|
| 230 |
What is the cause of black crescents appearing on the film?
|
Bent film
|
|
| 231 |
What kind of drug is Medetomidine?
|
Alpha-2 agonist
|
|
| 232 |
What is not in the circle of a rebreathing anesthetic system?
|
Scavenging system
|
|
| 233 |
What drug increases HR and contractility by stimulating beta-1 receptors?
|
Epinephrine
|
|
| 234 |
What does calcium gluconate treat?
|
Eclampsia
|
|
| 235 |
What drugs typically cause apnea and respiratory depression?
|
PropofolKetamineMorphine
|
|
| 236 |
A prolonged CRT indicates what?
|
Hypovolemia
|
|
| 237 |
What anesthetic gas goes through the most metabolization in the body?
|
Halothane
|
|
| 238 |
What kind of anesthesia machine does not have a manometer?
|
Nonrebreathing
|
|
| 239 |
What drug provides poor visceral analgesia?
|
Ketamine
|
|
| 240 |
Where is a pressure regulator located?
|
Between oxygen tanks and the oxygen flow meter
|
|
| 241 |
A bottle of the combination lidocaine and epinephrine is used to do what?
|
Local analgesia and hemostasis
|
|
| 242 |
What reflex is the last to go in an anesthetized patient?
|
Corneal
|
|
| 243 |
Which drug and route is used to treat allergic bronchitis in the cat?
|
Inhaled glucocorticoids
|
|
| 244 |
What heartworm preventative is NOT used in cats?
|
Moxidectin (ProHeart)
|
|
| 245 |
What common drug causes dilation of the veins and coronary arteries?
|
Nitroglycerin
|
|
| 246 |
What chemotherapy drug should NEVER be given in cats?
|
Cisplatin
|
|
| 247 |
Paragonimus kellicotti results from ingestion of what?
|
Raw seafood
|
|
| 248 |
What dog breeds are prone to parvovirus?
|
Rottweilers and pit bulls
|
|
| 249 |
What drug is not metabolized by the liver?
|
Ketamine
|
|
| 250 |
What anesthetic inhalant is commonly associated with malignant hyperthermia?
|
Halothane
|
|
| 251 |
What nerve processes conduct impulses TOWARD the cell bodies?
|
Dendrites
|
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